Practice exam questions

Question 1

Frost et al. (2010) evaluated the effects of the performer’s prior knowledge on the functional movement screen; what did they find?

a) There was a significant improvement in FMS scores from 14.1 (±1.8) to 16.7 (±1.9) after instructions and coaching practices were administrated.
b) There was a significant reduction in FMS scores from 16.7 (±1.9) to 14.1 (±1.8) after instructions and coaching practices were administrated.
c) Prior knowledge and coaching instructions resulted in significant improvements in these individual test scores: deep squat, hurdle step, in-line lunge and shoulder mobility.
d) Prior knowledge and coaching instructions resulted in significant improvements in these individual test scores: straight leg raise, stability push-up and rotary stability.
e) a & c

Answer 1

e) a & c

Question 2

Within the FMS scoring system roughly what angle of hip flexion is required to score a 3 in the hamstring straight legged raise?

a) 50 – 60º
b) 60 – 70º
c) 70 – 80º
d) 80 – 90º
e) Above 90º

Answer 2

e) Above 90º

Question 3

What would be key considerations during the needs analysis of a sport?

a) Movement and physiological demands of match play, movement and physiological demands of training, characteristics of players, training preference of player
b) Movement and physiological demands of match play, characteristics of players
c) Movement and physiological demands of match play, movement and physiological demands of training, training preference of player
d) Movement and physiological demands of match play, movement and physiological demands of training, characteristics of players
e) Movement and physiological demands of training, characteristics of players, training preference of player

Answer 3

a) Movement and physiological demands of match play, movement and physiological demands of training, characteristics of players, training preference of player

Question 4

When quantifying the physiological demands of sport, which of the following are key considerations?

a) Heart rate response
b) Oxygen consumption
c) Blood lactate concentration
d) Blood glucose concentration
e) All of the above

Answer 4

e) All of the above

Question 5

Turner (2009) suggests a strength and conditioning coach should consider which of the following factors, when conducting a needs analysis?

a) The biomechanical and physiological requirements of the sport
b) The mechanisms of injury and prehabilitative strategies within the sport
c) The appropriateness of the test battery
d) The individual goals of the athlete and sports coach
e) All of the above

Answer 5

e) All of the above

Question 6

According to Stone (2006) which of these male elite sport performers requires the
largest energy consumption in order to support their daily training requirements?

a) Super heavyweight weightlifter
b) Marathon runner
c) Sprinter
d) Basketball player
e) Cross country runner

Answer 6

a) Super heavyweight weightlifter

Question 7

If an athlete suffers from lumbar lordosis then according to Petty (2006) theory of Crossed Syndrome, which of these statements are true?

a) The quadriceps, calves and erector spine muscle groups are shortened
b) The quadriceps, calves and erector spine muscle groups are elongated
c) The hamstrings, tibias anterior and abdominal muscle groups are shortened
d) The hamstrings, tibias anterior and abdominal muscle groups are elongated
e) A and D

Answer 7

e) A and D

Question 8

An athlete approaches you with limited hamstring flexibility (30º deficit in the 90/90 test). According to Mohr, Long & Goad (2014) which type of training would be the most effective in this situation?

a) Static hamstring stretching
b) Eccentric hamstring training
c) Foam rolling on the hamstrings
d) A and C
e) B and C

Answer 8

d) A and C

Question 9

In order to improve maximal strength, Baechle & Earle (2008) recommend workouts which involve:

a) High intensities (≥85% 1RM),high volumes (≥8 repetitions per set) and long inter-set rest intervals (3-5 minutes)
b) High intensities (≥85% 1RM), low volumes (≤6 repetitions per set) and long inter-set rest intervals (3-5 minutes)
c) High intensities (≥85% 1RM), low volumes (≤6 repetitions per set) and short inter-set rest intervals (≤90 seconds)
d) Moderate intensities (67-80% 1RM), low volumes (≤6 repetitions per set) and long inter-set rest intervals (3-5 minutes)
e) Moderate intensities (87-80% 1RM), high volumes (8-12 repetitions per set) and short inter-set rest intervals (≤90 seconds)

Answer 9

b) High intensities (≥85% 1RM), low volumes (≤6 repetitions per set) and long inter-set rest intervals (3-5 minutes)

Question 10

In order to maximise gains in muscle size during a resistance training programme, Baechle & Earle (2008) recommend workouts which involve:

a) High intensities (≥85% 1RM),high volumes (≥8 repetitions per set) and long inter-set rest intervals (3-5 minutes)
b) High intensities (≥85% 1RM), low volumes (≤6 repetitions per set) and long inter-set rest intervals (3-5 minutes)
c) High intensities (≥85% 1RM), low volumes (≤6 repetitions per set) and short inter-set rest intervals (≤90 seconds)
d) Moderate intensities (67-85% 1RM), low volumes (≤6 repetitions per set) and long inter-set rest intervals (3-5 minutes)
e) Moderate intensities (67-85% 1RM), high volumes (8-12 repetitions per set) and short inter-set rest intervals (≤90 seconds)

Answer 10

e) Moderate intensities (67-85% 1RM), high volumes (8-12 repetitions per set) and short inter-set rest intervals (≤90 seconds)

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT one of the conditions which should be considered when considering the specificity of a strength assessment?

a) Type of muscle action
b) Movement velocity
c) Posture
d) Familiarisation
e) Range of motion

Answer 11

d) Familiarisation

Question 12

According to the systematic review by Rhea et al., (2003) untrained individuals experience optimal strength gains with…

a) 2 resistance training sessions per week
b) 1 resistance training sessions per week
c) 4 resistance training sessions per week
d) 5 resistance training sessions per week
e) 3 resistance training sessions per week

Answer 12

e) 3 resistance training sessions per week

Question 13

For an athlete with a one repetition maximum back squat strength of 195kg, what weight would need to be lifted in order for the athlete to work at 85% of their one repetition maximum?

a) 165.75 kg
b) 156 kg
c) 175.5 kg
d) 164 kg
e) 180 kg

Answer 13

a) 165.75 kg

Question 14

According to the protocol recommended by Baechle & Earle (2008), how many maximal attempts should a coach ideally permit when aiming to identify an athlete’s one repetition maximum?

a) 1
b) 1-2
c) 3-5
d) 7-10​
e) 10

Answer 14

c) 3-5

Question 15

When aiming to predict an individual’s one repetition maximum, what test would provide the most accurate assessment?

a) 10RM protocol
b) 3RM protocol
c) 5RM protocol
d) 6RM protocol
e) 8RM protocol

Answer 15

b) 3RM protocol

Question 16

According to the review by Folland & Williams (2007), strength improvements that occur in the absence of significant increases in muscle size may result from:

a) Fibre hyperplasia
b) Fibre sub-type transformations = Fry (2004)
c) Fibre hypertrophy
d) Neural adaptations
e) B and D

Answer 16

d) Neural adaptations

Question 17

According to the findings of Narici et al., (1989) strength adaptations in previously untrained individuals primarily result from:

a) Muscular adaptations during the initial stages (<6-8 weeks) and neural adaptations thereafter (8-12 weeks)
b) Neural adaptations during the initial stages (<6-8 weeks) and muscular adaptations thereafter (8-12 weeks)
c) Neural adaptations during the initial stages (1-2 weeks) and muscular adaptations thereafter (3-8 weeks)
d) Muscular adaptations during the initial stages (1-2 weeks) and neural adaptations thereafter (3-8 weeks)

Answer 17

b) Neural adaptations during the initial stages (<6-8 weeks) and muscular adaptations thereafter (8-12 weeks)

Question 18

According to Ratamess (2012), previously untrained individuals typically display:

a) Small increases in muscle strength
b) Adaptations that are relatively non-specific to the training undertaken
c) Large increases in muscle strength
d) Slow rates of progression
e) A and C

Answer 18

b) Adaptations that are relatively non-specific to the training undertaken

Question 19

According to Fehér (2000) the first is initiated when?

a) The bar is level with the weightlifters hips
b) The bar is below the knee
c) The bar is level with the weightlifter chest
d) The bar is above the head
e) The bar is resting on the floor

Answer 19

e) The bar is resting on the floor

Question 20

According to Fehér (2000) the second pull phase in the snatch is initiated when?

a) The bar is level with the weightlifters hips
b) The bar is below the knee
c) The bar is level with the weightlifter chest
d) The bar is above the head
e) The bar is resting on the floor

Answer 20

a) The bar is level with the weightlifters hips

Question 21

Which of the following grips is regularly used in the Snatch or Clean component in Elite Olympic weightlifting?

a) Alternated Grip
b) Hook Grip
c) Neutral Grip
d) Supinated Grip
e) None of the above

Answer 21

b) Hook Grip

Question 22

When performing a clean or snatch the barbell velocity can be enhanced in the transition phase by successfully implementing which skill?

a) The double knee bend
b) Valsalva Maneuver
c) Fully extending the hips
d) Hyperventilating
e) The straight legged pull

Answer 22

a) The double knee bend

Question 23

According to Haff et al. (2003), the concept of splitting short rest periods in between single or small groups of repetitions during a resistance training session is known as

a) Supersets
b) Compound sets
c) Complex training
d) Cluster training
e) Strength-endurance training

Answer 23

d) Cluster training

Question 24

According to Baechle & Earle (2008), the process of performing two resistance exercises which stress two opposing muscles/muscle groups in a sequential manner is known as

a) Cluster training
b) Supersets
c) Compound sets
d) Complex training
e) Rest-pause training​

Answer 24

b) Supersets

Question 25

Complex training is defined as?

a) Alternating strength exercises with plyometric exercises within a set
b) Alternating strength exercises with plyometric exercises between sets
c) Alternating the load of a strength-speed exercise within the set
d) Alternating the load of a strength-speed exercise between a set
e) Alternating the intensity of the selected plyometric exercises between sets

Answer 25

b) Alternating strength exercises with plyometric exercises between sets

Question 26

Which of the following definitions best describes what is meant by ‘volume-load’ when referring to a resistance exercise workout?

a) The weight lifted during a workout (% one repetition maximum)
b) The total amount of work performed during a workout (load lifted x no. of sets x no. of repetitions)
c) The total number of repetitions performed in a workout (no. of sets x no. of repetitions) = repetition volume
d) The product of force and displacement = mechanical work
e) The percentage of heart rate maximum maintained during a workout

Answer 26

b) The total amount of work performed during a workout (load lifted x no. of sets x no. of repetitions)

Question 27

Bampouras et al. (2012) identified the Myotest Pro to be an accurate and reliable measure of kinetic variables produced in jumping. However, on closer inspection the raw data presented shows a very large over estimation in which variable?

a) Peak Power
b) Peak velocity
c) Peak Force
d) Jump height
e) Peak impulse

Answer 27

c) Peak Force

Question 28

Within the seminars we evaluated the accuracy of several instruments used to assess jump height. Which of the instruments analysed produced the best association with the values produced by the force plate?

a) Myotest Pro
b) Fitro Linear encoder
c) A and b
d) Opto jump
e) None of the above

Answer 28

d) Opto jump

Question 29

You conduct a countermovement jump (CMJ) test and squat jump (SQJ) test on a female volleyball player, in which she achieves a CMJ height of 46cm and a SQJ height of 43cm. Therefore, according to Siff (2002) what type of training should be implemented to improve her jump performance?

<5% Plyometrics
>10% Weightlifting
5-10% balanced approach

a) Speed-Strength (e.g. Plyometric training)
b) Strength-Speed training (e.g. Weightlifting)
c) A balanced approach between Speed-Strength and Strength-Speed
d) Single joint Isometric training at specific angles related to jumping
e) Multi joint Isometric training at specific angles related to jumping

Answer 29

c) A balanced approach between Speed-Strength and Strength-Speed

Question 30

According to the findings of Moore, Hickey and Reiser (2005) and Tricoli et al. (2005) which method of training produced a superior chronic enhancement in the vertical countermovement jump performance?

a) Weightlifting (e.g. cleans or clean derivatives)
b) Moderate to high intensity vertical plyometrics
c) Moderate to high intensity horizontal plyometrics
d) Maximal strength training
e) An inter set combination of both maximal strength training with moderate to high intensity vertical plyometrics

Answer 30

a) Weightlifting (e.g. cleans or clean derivatives)

Question 31

According to Chu (1998) what is the most appropriate work to rest ratio for plyometric drills?

a) 1:5
b) 1:4
c) 1:3
d) 1:2
e) 1:1

Answer 31

a) 1:5

Question 32

Which of the following plyometric exercises is deemed to be the most intense?

a) Double legged Jumps in place
b) Bounding
c) Depth Jumps
d) Box-jumps
e) Single legged Jumps in place

Answer 32

c) Depth Jumps

Question 33

Which of the following plyometric exercises is deemed to be the least intense?

a) Double legged jumps in place
b) Bounding
c) Depth Jumps
d) Box-jumps
e) Single legged Jumps in place

Answer 33

a) Double legged jumps in place

Question 34

Makarur et al. (2013) implemented a resisted sprint training programme and found that sprint velocity increased through an improvement in which underlying parameter?

a) Stride rate
b) Contact time
c) Flight time
d) Stride length
e) Direction of force application

Answer 34

d) Stride length

Question 35

You are asked to supervise an athlete performing a plyometric session. However, it quickly becomes apparent that the athlete does not possess an effective landing technique. Therefore, what type of plyometric exercise could you implement in order to correct this deficiency?

a) Hurdle bounding
b) Drop jumping
c) Jumping on to a box
d) Lateral hopping
e) Repeated vertical jumping

Answer 35

c) Jumping on to a box

Question 36

According to Chu (1998) the optimal weekly volume of foot contacts for a beginner in their offseason should be between:

a) 20 - 60
b) 60 - 100
c) 100 - 150
d) 120 - 250
e) 250 - 400

Answer 36

b) 60 - 100

Question 37

Which of the following definitions best describes what is meant by a ballistic muscle action?

a) When the end of a movement chain is fixed
b) Motion that results from an initial impulse from a muscular contraction followed by a relaxation of the muscles
c) When the end of a movement chain is not fixed
d) When there is no change in the external joint angle
e) When the joint velocity is constant

Answer 37

b) Motion that results from an initial impulse from a muscular contraction followed by a relaxation of the muscles

Question 38

You have been approached to conduct a battery of tests on an international adult male triple jumper. What is the ideal approach velocity at their final stride?

a) 7-8m/s
b) 8-9m/s
c) 9-10m/s
d) 10-11m/s
e) 11-12m/s

Answer 38

d) 10-11m/s

Question 39

Rumpf et al. (2014) conducted a meta-analysis on methods of developing sprinting speed and found that highly trained athletes showed the most improvement from implementing which type of training intervention?

a) A combined training of specific sprint exercises with non-specific explosive strength exercises
b) Specific sprint exercises
c) Non-specific explosive strength exercises
d) Non- specific strength exercises
e) Training involving a combination of plyometric and isometric exercises

Answer 39

a) A combined training of specific sprint exercises with non-specific explosive strength exercises

Question 40

Rumpf et al. (2014) conducted a meta-analysis on methods of developing sprinting speed and found that recreationally trained athletes showed the most improvement from implementing which type of training intervention?

a) A combined training of specific sprint exercises with non-specific explosive strength exercises
b) Specific sprint exercises
c) Non-specific explosive strength exercises
d) Non- specific strength exercises
e) Training involving a combination of plyometric and isometric exercises

Answer 40

b) Specific sprint exercises

Question 41

Jeffries (2010) suggested that key initiation movements enable successful changes of direction. One of these positions is called the athletically loaded position in which the athlete assumes a position where…

a) Their ankles are outside the line of their knees and their knees are outside the line of their hips in the frontal plane
b) Their ankles are outside the line of their knees and their knees are inside the line of their hips in the frontal plane
c) Their ankles are inside the line of their knees and their knees are inside the line of their hips in the frontal plane
d) Their ankles are in line with their knees and their knees are inline with their hips in the frontal plane
e) Their weight is distributed on their heels and they are making small movements called jockeying

Answer 41

a) Their ankles are outside the line of their knees and their knees are outside the line of their hips in the frontal plane

Question 42

Agility is the ability to change the body’s position efficiently when coordinating multi planer movements. According to Ĉoh (2003), Young, James & Montgomery (2002) and Twist & Benicky (1995) which of these physical attributes can influence agility?

a) Balance, Coordination and Speed
b) Strength
c) Endurance
d) Reaction and cognitive factors
e) All of the above

Answer 42

e) All of the above

Question 43

Cronin et al. (2008) evaluated the mechanical properties of different sprint training devices over 25 metres. Which device provided the greatest increase in forward lean during the acceleration phase of a sprint?

a) Loaded sled sprints
b) Weighted vest sprints
c) Parachute sprints
d) Bungee cord sprinting
e) Downhill sprinting

Answer 43

a) Loaded sled sprints

Question 44

During a Lactate Minimum (LaMin.) exercise test what does the minimum point on the graph represent?

a) The minimum point represents the intensity of exercise where lactate production increases above lactate catabolism.
b) The minimum point represents the intensity of exercise where lactate production and lactate catabolism is suggested to be in equilibrium.
c) The minimum point represents the intensity of exercise where lactate production dramatically reduces below lactate catabolism.
d) The minimum point represents the start of the incremental exercise phase of the test.
e) The minimum point represents the intensity of exercise where lactate production is exceeded by lactate catabolism and is suggested to be in equilibrium.

Answer 44

b) The minimum point represents the intensity of exercise where lactate production and lactate catabolism is suggested to be in equilibrium.

Question 45

Jones (2007) described a bi-phasic treadmill protocol for assessing endurance running performance. Which of the statements below best describes the protocol?

a) Phase 1 is used to determine maximal performance variables where athletes complete 1 minute stages at 1% gradient increasing running speed by 1km.h-1 at the end of each stage. Phase 2 is used to determine sub-maximal oxygen consumption where the athlete runs at 1% increasing gradients every minute until volitional exhaustion.
b) Phase 1 is used to determine sub-maximal performance variables where athletes complete 5 minute stages at 1% gradient increasing running speed by 1.5km.h-1 at the end of each stage. Phase 2 is used to determine maximal oxygen consumption where the athlete runs at 1% increasing gradients every minute until volitional exhaustion.
c) Phase 1 is used to determine sub-maximal performance variables where athletes complete 3 minute stages at 1% gradient increasing running speed by 1km.h-1 at the end of each stage. Phase 2 is used to determine maximal oxygen consumption where the athlete runs at increasing speeds every minute until volitional exhaustion.
d) Phase 1 is used to determine sub-maximal performance variables where athletes complete 3 minute stages at 1% gradient increasing running speed by 1km.h-1 at the end of each stage. Phase 2 is used to determine maximal oxygen consumption where the athlete runs at 1% increasing gradients every minute until volitional exhaustion.
e) Phase 1 is used to determine sub-maximal performance variables where athletes complete 2 minute stages at 1% gradient increasing running speed by 1km.h-1 at the end of each stage. Phase 2 is used to determine maximal oxygen consumption where the athlete runs at 2% increasing gradients every minute until volitional exhaustion.

Answer 45

d) Phase 1 is used to determine sub-maximal performance variables where athletes complete 3 minute stages at 1% gradient increasing running speed by 1km.h-1 at the end of each stage. Phase 2 is used to determine maximal oxygen consumption where the athlete runs at 1% increasing gradients every minute until volitional exhaustion.

Question 46

For endurance training what does the literature suggest is the optimal training intensity distribution?

a) 80% High Intensity : 20% Low Intensity
b) 60% Low Intensity : 40% High Intensity
c) 80% Low Intensity : 20% High Intensity
d) 70% Low Intensity : 30% High Intensity
e) 50% Low Intensity : 50% High Intensity

Answer 46

c) 80% Low Intensity : 20% High Intensity

Question 47

When quantifying the proportion of distance or time spent in specific speed zones, what does zone 5 refer to (Rampinini et al., 2007)?

a) Standing
b) Walking
c) High Intensity Running
d) Running
e) Jogging

Answer 47

c) High Intensity Running

Question 48

According to a study by Almond et al. (2005) the percentage of marathon runners who were diagnosed as being hyponatremic were:

a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 9%
d) 13%
e) 20%

Answer 48

d) 13%

Question 49

From the graph below what is the best description of where the key lactate kinetic points of Lactate Threshold (LT), Lactate Turnpoint (LTP) and Onset of Blood Lactate Accumulation (OBLA) occur? – OBLA is always at 4mmol

a) LT occurs at 135W, LTP occurs at 240W, and OBLA occurs at approximately 205W.
b) LT occurs at 205W, LTP occurs at 240W, and OBLA occurs at approximately 255W.
c) LT occurs at 170W, LTP occurs at 240W, and OBLA occurs at approximately 275W.
d) LT occurs at 170W, LTP occurs at 205W, and OBLA occurs at approximately 240W.
e) LT occurs at 170W, LTP occurs at 240W, and OBLA occurs at approximately 255W.

Answer 49

e) LT occurs at 170W, LTP occurs at 240W, and OBLA occurs at approximately 255W.

Question 50

Tolfrey et al. (2009) correlated 2-mile run performance with different physiological markers/tests associated with endurance performance. Which marker/test showed the strongest relationship with 2-mile run performance?

a) Running economy
b) Running speed at lactate threshold (vLT)
c) Running speed at a fixed blood lactate concentration of 4 mmol.L–1 (v4)
d) Running speed at maximal lactate steady state (vMLSS)
e) Velocity at VO2max (vV O2 max)

Answer 50

d) Running speed at maximal lactate steady state (vMLSS)

Question 51

For an American Football player which of the following would best describe the relationship between volume and intensity at the beginning of the preparatory period?

a) High volume, low intensity
b) High Volume, high intensity
c) Low volume, high intensity
d) Low volume, low intensity
e) Medium volume and medium intensity

Answer 51

a) High volume, low intensity

Question 52

Which type of long term strength training strategy alternates the sessional aims between endurance, hypertrophy and maximal strength over the microcycle?

a) Reverse-linear periodisation
b) Linear periodisation
c) Block periodisation
d) Conjugate periodisation
e) Undulating periodisation

Answer 52

d) Conjugate periodisation

Question 53

Which type of long term training strategy starts the annual plan with a low volume and high intensity and then transitions to a low intensity and high volume by the middle of the competitive phase?

a) Reverse-linear periodisation
b) Linear periodisation
c) Block periodisation
d) Conjugate periodisation
e) Undulating periodisation

Answer 53

a) Reverse-linear periodisation

Question 54

When planning using periodisation principles, a mesocycle according to Matveyev (1977) is defined as:

a) Several months to a year
b) 4-6 weeks
c) 2 days to 2 weeks
d) 1 year
e) 4 years

Answer 54

b) 4-6 weeks

Question 55

According to Wesley-Smith (2011), when planning strength training which of the
following refers to a program where there is progressive overload?

a) Undulation
b) Conjugation
c) Active Rest
d) Linearity
e) Maintenance

Answer 55

a) Undulation

Question 56

When planning using periodization principles, a mesocycle according to Chandler and Brown (2013) is defined as:

a) Several months to a year
b) 2-6 weeks
c) 2 days to 2 weeks
d) 1 year
e) 4 years

Answer 56

b) 2-6 weeks

Question 57

Which of these is NOT a basic mesocycle block structure?

a) Accumulation
b) Transmutation
c) Realization
d) Involution
e) Restoration

Answer 57

e) Restoration

Question 58

Burkett, Ziuritis & Phillips (2001) evaluated the effects of different warm-ups on
vertical jump performance. From their findings, which of the following warm-ups
produced a superior jump height performance in comparison to the other conditions?

a) Static Stretching
b) No activity
c) Sub-maximal Jumping
d) Weighted Box Jumps
e) A combination of a, c and d

Answer 58

d) Weighted Box Jumps

Question 59

According to Junior et al. (2014) the usage of cryotherapy after a simulated jujitsu competition reduces which of these markers of fatigue?

a) Creatine Phosphokinase (CPK)
b) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)
c) Perceived pain
d) a, b and c
e) None of the above

Answer 59

d) a, b and c

Question 60

Jake is a strength coach working with a group of elite male athletes. He is concerned about some of the behaviours his athletes are demonstrating in the workouts; he is worried that he has inadvertently created a climate which encourages a “performance avoidance” goal orientation.

What behaviour might his athletes demonstrate in the workouts that would cause him to conclude this?

a) They are reluctant to engage in the workouts at all, and frequently complain that they are bored
b) They regularly argue with one another
c) They struggle to make decisions around their training regime, and constantly look to him for guidance
d) When they select their own weights, they choose weights which are on the verge of being too heavy, in order to impress one another
e) When they select their own weights, they choose weights which they can certainly lift, and are not challenging enough to make significant gains in strength

Answer 60

e) When they select their own weights, they choose weights which they can certainly lift, and are not challenging enough to make significant gains in strength

Question 61

Approximately, what percentage of nutritional supplements in UK have been found contaminated with prohibited substances?

a) 5%
b) 18%
c) 25%
d) 35%
e) 45%

Answer 61

b) 18%

Question 62

Which of the following amino acids are both essential?

a) Leucine and Valine
b) Leucine and Arginine
c) Leucine and Aspartic acid
d) Leucine and Alanine
e) Leucine and Proline

Answer 62

a) Leucine and Valine

Question 63

Is beta-alanine:

a) A proteogenic amino acid
a) An essential amino acid
b) A fatty acid
c) A vitamin
d) None of the above

Answer 63

d) None of the above

Question 64

Cribb et al. (2009) evaluated the effectiveness of various supplements on 10 weeks of strength training. Which combination of supplements provided the greatest gains in muscle strength and hypertrophy?

a) Protein & Carbohydrate
b) Protein, Carbohydrate & Vitamin D
c) Carbohydrate & Caffeine
d) Protein, Carbohydrate & Creatine
e) Caffeine & Bicarbonate

Answer 64

d) Protein, Carbohydrate & Creatine

Question 65

A female centre in netball has the following results from pre-season testing;

Age: 24
Body-mass: 70kg
Body-fat: 12%
1RM Squat: 100kg
1RM Power Clean: 70kg
10 metre sprint: 1.80s
V02 max: 33 ml/kg/Min

Which of the following should be focused upon during the pre-season?

a) Maximal Strength
b) c & d
c) Body composition
d) Aerobic endurance
e) Sprint speed

Answer 65

d) Aerobic endurance

Question 66

A male rugby union prop forward has the following results from pre-season testing;

Age: 21
Body-mass: 110kg
Body-fat: 23%
1RM Squat: 200kg
1RM Bench Press: 145kg
1RM Power Clean 120kg
10 metre sprint: 1.91s
V02 max: 44 ml/kg/Min

Which of the following should be focused upon during the pre-season?

a) Maximal Strength
b) c & d
c) Body composition
d) Aerobic endurance
e) Sprint speed

Answer 66

d) Aerobic endurance

Question 67

A female centre in netball has the following results from pre-season testing;

Age: 24
Body-mass: 70kg
Body-fat: 12%
1RM Squat: 100kg
1RM Power Clean: 70kg
10 metre sprint: 2.00s
V02 max: 53 ml/kg/Min

Which of the following should be focused upon during the pre-season?

a) Maximal Strength
b) c & d
c) Body composition
d) Aerobic endurance
e) Sprint speed

Answer 67

e) Sprint speed