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SAM 4 Final Past questions > PQ8 > Flashcards

PQ8 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the goal of asepsis?

a) to prevent contamination
b) To reduce contamination
c) To allow contamination
d) All of the above

A

To prevent contamination

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2
Q

What cannot be the reason of haemopericardium in dogs?

a) Chemodectoma
b) Idiopathic inflammation
c) Thromboembolism
d) Coagulopathy

A

Thromboembolism

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3
Q

What are characteristic of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

a) may cause thromboembolism
b) May cause sudden death
c) Often has long survival
d) Causes right sided heart dilation

A

D) Causes right sided heart dilation

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4
Q

What are the consequences of left-sided heart failure?

A) pulmonary oedema

B) Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs

C) Congestive liver

D) Ascites

A

Pulmonary oedema; Pleural fluid accumulation (cats)

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5
Q

Pacemaker implantation is justified for:

A. For the treatment of supraventricular tachycardia

B. For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia
C. For the treatment of 3rd degree AV block
D. For the treatment of 1st degree AV block

A

The treatment of 3rd degree AV block

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6
Q

What cannot be determined by colour Doppler ultrasound?

a. the presence of bloodflow
b. the direction of bloodflow
c. the speed of bloodflow
d. the character of bloodflow (laminar or turbulent)

A

The character of blood flow (laminar or turbulent)

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7
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

Dogs have pre-formed antibodies to blood group antigens DEA

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8
Q

Which statement is false about chest tracheal and resection?

A

Up to 25% of the trachea can be removed

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9
Q

What is the appropriate respiration rate for CPR?

A. 6-7/min

B.20-30/min

C.30-40/min

D.10-12/min

A

10-12/min

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10
Q

The concept of wet wound treatment

A. Is obsolete

B. Can be used in the maturation phase of wound healing

C. Is based on the retention of wound secretion on the wound surface

D. It can only be used for chronic wounds

A

Is obsolete

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11
Q

What drug/suspension can be given IV?

A. Oil injection

B. Vaccine

C. Tissue irritant drugs

D. Long acting antibiotic suspension

A

Tissue irritant drugs

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12
Q

Which statement is correct? Open-system blood collection

A. Blood obtained by this method is suitable for blood testing

B. Suitable for receiving large amounts of blood

C. Is easy to perform/implement

D. No contamination

A

Is easy to perform/implement

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13
Q

Characteristic of the foreign body in the nasal cavity

A. In most cases, spontaneously healing rhinitis

B. Requires glucocorticoid & antibiotic treatment; Decreases oedema

C. Improper treatment/handling can cause fungal rhinitis

D. Rhinoscopy can be postponed for months

A

Requires glucocorticoid & antibiotic treatment; Decreases oedema

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14
Q

Which statement is correct?

A. There is no valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we take blood from here

B. There is a valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we cannot take blood from here

C. There is no valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so no infusion can be given here

D. There is a valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so we infuse it here

A

There is a valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we cannot take blood

from here

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15
Q

Characteristic of “reverse sneezing”

A) Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background

B) Indicates a serious, life-threatening illness

C)Usually caused by irritation of the anterior of the nasal cavity

D)indicates a laryngeal lesion

A

Usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity

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16
Q

When used in a contact layer, its antibacterial effect is due to its dehydrating properties

A

Silver

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17
Q

Which muscle can be used for intramuscular drug administration?

A

M. quadriceps femoris (Semi-tendinosus/membranosus too)

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18
Q

According to Poncet’s BOAS classification system, which is the most defining clinical condition of the grade III classification

A. Severity of stridor/stertor

B. Syncope

C. Duration of clinical signs

D. Grade 3 laryngeal collapse

A

Grade 3 laryngeal collapse

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19
Q

In the complex therapy of heartworm, the only adulticidal agent accepted by AHS is..

A

Milbemycin oxime

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20
Q

The recommended time of the last combined primary vaccine in the primary vaccination series of the pup

A

12 weeks of age( can be 16 too)

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21
Q

Which contact layer is best to cover the wound in the exudative phase?

A

hydrogel

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22
Q

Choose the correct answer? Colloid infuions

A) Contain small molecule weight compounds

B) In a dosage less than 20ml/kg/day they may induce coagulopathy

C)are used to treat dehydration

D) Can be used in hypovolaemia combined with crystalloids

A

D) Can be used in hypovolaemia combined with crystalloids

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23
Q

The study found that the cat had prolonged skin tuberculosis due to hypovolaemic dehydrated hypovolaemic and dehydrated old age.

“In case of hypovolaemic shock, the first choice for starting infusion therapy is”…

A. 5% glucose

B. HAES infusion

C. Lactated Ringer’s solution

D. 10% NaCl

A

HAES infusion

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24
Q

At what age is it recommended to start vaccinating dogs?

A

6-8 weeks

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25
Q

Which part of the canal cartilage is fixed during CAL surgery?

A

None

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26
Q

Prognath bite is normal in

A

Cat; Bulldog; Boxer; Pug

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27
Q

In case of secondary wound infection:

a. Bacterial sample taken and antibiotics resistancy test is obligatory
b. use concentrated cytotoxic solution on the wound surface
c. Perform surgical debridement on the affected area
d. Use talc-powder on the wound surface and cover it with a bandage

A

a. Bacterial sample taken and antibiotics resistancy test is obligatory

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28
Q

Closed system blood collection

A

For mandatory blood count

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29
Q

Vena cava syndrome caused by heartworm can be clearly identified

A. Echocardiography

B. A mild form of heartworm

C. Clinical category

D. Blood smear

A

Echocardiography?

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30
Q

Cyanotic mucous membranes are related to?

A. Acute left heart failure

B. Right heart failure

C. Shock

D. Anemia

A

Shock

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31
Q

The suggested treatment option for severe FORL (feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions)

A. Total tooth extraction or crown amputation

B. Chemotherapy

C. A vitamin for 8 weeks

D. Topical chlorhexidine for 8 weeks

A

Total tooth extraction or crown amputation

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32
Q

Which clinical signs are characteristic for gastric disease?

A. Vomitus; Haematemesis; Anorexia

B. Hematemesis, abdominal pain, regurgitation

C. Dyspnea, vomit, fever

D. Odynophagia, hematemesis, weight loss

A

Vomitus; Haematemesis; Anorexia

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33
Q

Application of antibiotics in case of diarrhoea is:

A. Necessary only in the event of risk of sepsis

B. Always necessary

C. Forbidden

D. Necessary only in the event of bacterial enteritis

A

Necessary only in the event of risk of sepsis

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34
Q

Mild, acute, small intestinal diarrhoea/ suggested additional examinations / dog, cat

A. Fecal analysis: parasitological examination

B Fecal analysis: parasitological examination and anaerob bacteriological culture

C Fecal analysis: parasitological examination and Parvo ELISA test

D Fecal analysis: bacteriological and fungal culture

A

Faecal analysis: parasitological examination

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35
Q

Which statement is NOT correct about EOGC (eosinophil granuloma complex) in cat

A. Eosinophilia can be detected in the blood

B. Allergy is suspected in the pathogenesis

C. Can be diagnosed only by X-ray

D. In the treatment the cyclosporine is a good option

A

Can be diagnosed only by X-ray

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36
Q

Which statement is correct for gastric diseases?

A. Predisposing factors of gastric ulcerative disease include NSAlDs metabolic diseases corticosteroids

B. Acute gastritis is not self-limiting

C. Contrast radiography for ulcers

D. All

A

Predisposing factors of gastric ulcerative disease include NSAlDs metabolic diseases corticosteroids

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37
Q

Which is associated with portal hypertension?

A. Hepatic microvascular hypoplasia

B. Arterioportal / arterio-venosus fistula

C. Congenital portosystemic shunt

D. Hepatic lipidosis

A

Arterioportal / arterio-venosus fistula

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38
Q

Which statement is correct?

A. ALP has the following isoenzymes in the cat: liver, bone, steroid-induced

B. The bile acid, bilirubin, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis.

C. The bilirubinuria is always pathologic in the dog, associate with hyperbilirubinaemia.

D. ALT and AST are cholestatic enzymes

A

The bile acid, bilirubin, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis.

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39
Q

Which statement is NOT correct about feline hepatic lipidosis?

A. Elevated lipoprotein synthesis due to fasting, thereby decreases the triglycerides level in the liver

B. It is characterized by intrahepatic cholestasis

C. The bile acid, bilirubin, ALT and ALP are elevated in the blood. However, GGT can be disproportionally low

D. The clinical signs are the obese cat has weight loss, icterus, ptyalism, coagulopathy, and hepatomegaly

A

Elevated lipoprotein synthesis due to fasting, thereby decreases the triglycerides level in the liver

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40
Q

Tonsillectomy should be an indication

A

Chronic tonsilitis; Tonsil tumour

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41
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning perianal adenoma?

A. It is uncommon in females

B. It mostly occurs in males

C. It mainly originated from circumanal glands

D. It originates from the anal sac in females

A

It originates from the anal sac in females (T for adenocarcinomas)

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42
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Excessive inflation of the stomach may interfere with gastroscopic examination of the antrum and pylorus

43
Q

Which of the following conditions indicates liver lobectomy?

A. Superficial liver rupture

B. Diffuse hepatomegaly

C. Cholelithiasis

D. Liver abscess

A

Liver abscess

(also cyst rupture, tumour torsion, Acute extra-hepatobiliary obstruction (EHBO))

44
Q

Characteristic of lymphangiectasia

A. Ascites, poor body condition

B. Severe, chronic large bowel diarrhoea

C. Polyphagia, obesity

D. Hyperproteinaemia

A

Ascites, poor body condition

(Ascites; Hydrothorax; Weight loss; Emaciation)

45
Q

NOT true for EPI (exocrine pancreas insufficiency)

A. Inappetence and recurrent large bowel diarrhoea are typical

B. There is breed predilection among German Shepherd dogs

C. It is diagnosed with TLI-measurement

D. Enzyme supplementation is necessary for life long

A

Inappetence and recurrent large bowel diarrhoea are typical

46
Q

Which BOAS surgery technique causes less wide soft palate?

A. FFPP (folded flap palatoplasty)

B. Soft palate resection

C. Tonsillectomy

D. Sacculectomy

A

FFPP (Folded flap palatoplasty)

47
Q

Which statement is NOT characteristic about the primary copper (Cu) accumulation?

A. Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis

B. Bedlington terrier, Labrador and probably the Dalmatian have primer Cu accumulation

C. The Cu accumulated mostly in the centrolobular zona

D. Progressive, lifelong Cu accumulation

A

Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis (secondary)

48
Q

Gastropexy: what does it mean?

A. The gastric wall is sutured to the abdominal wall

B. The gastric wall is sutured to the liver

C. The duodenum is sutured to the abdominal wall

D. The omentum is sutured to the gastric wall

A

The gastric wall is sutured to the abdominal wall

49
Q

Which statement is correct for the clinical sign of oesophageal disease in general?

A. Appetite increases

B. Appetite decreases

C. Appetite can be decreased or increased

A

Appetite can be decreased or increased

50
Q

Infiltrating tonsillectomy during anaesthesia?

A

Adrenaline

51
Q

How to diagnose deep pain?

A

The patient pulls the finger tight; Turns head; Vocalisation; Tries to bite

52
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe?

A. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical

indication

B. The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication

C. It definitely requires emergency care

D. It is caused by morphological and/or functional disorders of abdominal organ(s)

A

The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication

53
Q

Why is the multifil suture material not recommended for the surgeries of the gastrointestinal organs?

or

Why do we NOT use multifilament suture in gastric and intestinal surgery?

A. Expensive

B. High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage (caused by the suture material)

C. Tensile security properties are worse

D. Knot security properties are worse

A

High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage (caused by the suture material)

or

Occurrence of septic complications is increased, due to the thread drainage threat

54
Q

In case of congenital cerebrovascular disease, which is true?

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt can be used as palliative, symptomatic treatment

55
Q

It is not true for acute domestic disasters

A

The exact organ involvement needs to be determined for the indication of an ambulatory operation

56
Q

What is the most common region for flexion in a young dog?

A

Atlantoaxial joint (C1-C2) causing luxation

57
Q

What is true for hydrocephalus?

A

Ventricular system dilation within the cranium

58
Q

From the following which is due to regenerative anaemia?

A. Lack of erythropoetin caused anaemia

B. Iron deficiency anaemia

C. Hemolytic anaemia

D. Aplastic anaemia

A

Hemolytic anaemia

59
Q

Which drug can cause bone marrow damage?

A

Phenobarbital; Imepitoin

60
Q

Which one does not cause immune haemolytic anaemia?

A. Microsporum

B. Mycoplasma

C. Babesia

D. Haemangiosarcoma

A

Microsporum

61
Q

Which one does not cause seconary immune haemolytic anaemia?

A. Microsporum

B. Mycoplasma

C. Babesia

D. Haemangiosarcoma

A

Microsporum

62
Q

Which is the best surgical technique for Hansen I disc herniation?

A

Hemilaminectomy

63
Q

Which blood parameter is good to test in case of anaemia?

A

RBC; PCV

64
Q

Case study: The owner of a 3-year-old Labrador has experienced him having 2 seizures in the last 2 months. Apart from this, no other symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Idiopathic epilepsy

B. Structural epilepsy, following congenital brain lesion

C. Reactive epileptic seizures are known in labradors

D. Portosystemic shunt (considering the dogs age)

A

Idiopathic epilepsy (breed disposition)

65
Q

What causes cats to be sensitive to pyrethrin?

A

Ca/Mg ATPase inhibitor; In cats, hepatic glucuronidase activity is very low

66
Q

What situation does taking CSF samples help diagnosis?

A

Meningitis; Meningoencephalitis; Bleeding; Inflammatory changes, meningomyelitis

67
Q

Which of the following diseases with non-regenerative anaemia has the best prognosis?

A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

B. Addisons disease

C. Sertoli cell testicular tumor with hyperoestrogenism

D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A

Addison’s / Hypothyroidism

68
Q

What is the most common cause for spasm in a young adult dog?

A. Congenital Heart disease

B. Primary Epilepsy

C. PSS
D. Brain tumor

A

Primary epilepsy

69
Q

Enterotomy suture:

A. Monofil, absorable suture material, simple interrupted suture in 2 layers
B. Multifil, absorable suture material, simple interrupted suture in 2 layers
C. Monofil absorbable suture material, simple interrupted or continuous suture pattern in 1 layer

D. Monofil with non-absorbable suture material; Simple interrupted/continuous suture pattern in 1 layer

A

Monofil absorbable suture material, simple interrupted or continuous suture pattern in 1 layer

70
Q

Which one means cervical malformation & malarticulatio?

A. Wobbler syndrome

B. Cauda equina syndrome

C. Perthes disease

D. Sever type disease

A

Wobbler syndrome

71
Q

The modified Glasgow coma scale is based on the following

A

Pupil size; Motor activity; State of consciousness

72
Q

What is not true for the acute stomach catastrophe?

A

The precise diagnosis of organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication (you can perform an explorative laparotomy if you don’t know what the main lesion is!)

73
Q

Which of the following statements is not true for splenic hemangiosarcoma?

A. Tumor splenectomy is only considered palliative surgery

B. Chemotherapy does not increase significantly the survival

C. Tumor rupture type does not worsen the prognosis

D. Does not cause metastasis in the liver

A

Tumour rupture type does not worsen the prognosis

74
Q

Which diagnosis is wrong for UMN

A

Hyporeflexia

75
Q

Which instrumental additional test is best for diagnosing fibrocartilage embolism?

A. X-ray

B. CT

C. MRI

D. Liquor cytology

A

MRI

76
Q

Which cannot be a symptom of transverse myelopathy?

A. X-ray

B. CT

C. MRI

D. Liquor cytology

A

Liquor cytology

and

Partiality; Limping; Lameness

77
Q

What is best for anti-epilepsy?

A

Phenobarbital (though may cause hepatotoxicity or non-regenerative anaemia);

Imepitoin

78
Q

What is not true for degenerative myelopathy?

A. Nutritional origin

B. Slow progressive disease in which the axon degenerates and there is demyeliation

C. The most common disease in old german shepherds

D. Currently no knows therapy

A

Nutritional origin

79
Q

Rabies and Aujeszky Disease symptoms difference in dogs and cats:

A. Paresthesia is common in Aujeszky disease, aggressive behaviour is common in Rabies

B. Strabism and ascending limb paralysis is common in Aujeszky , paresthesia is common in rabies

C. Swallowing disturbance does not occur in Aujeszky just in Rabies. Lung edema is typical for Aujeszky

D. Rabies does not occur in cats only Aujeszky

A

Paraesthesia is common in Aujeszky’s; aggressive behaviour is common in rabies

80
Q

Which symptom is not common for acute abdomen?

A

DIC

81
Q

In what lesion can liquor cytology help to evaluate?

A. Hansen type III discopathy

B. Wobbler syndrome

C. Hemivertebrae

D. Meningomyelitis

A

Meningomyelitis

82
Q

Which statement is true?

A) Botulism is caused by coli Bacteria and its main symptom is flaccid paresis

B) Tetanus is caused by clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis

C) Botulism is caused by clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis

D) Tetanus is caused by coli bacteria and the main symptom is muscle spasm

A

Botulism is caused by clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis

83
Q

Brain tissue damage in order of severity?

A) Commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri, lacerta vitidis

B) Comorbiditas cerebri, contusio cerebri, laceracio cerebri

C) Lacerio cerebri, commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri

D) Commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri, laceracio cerebri

A

A)Commotio cerebri > Contusion cerebri > Lacerta vitidis

84
Q

What does DAMNIT-V schematic stand for?

A)For differentiating between hydrocephalus and brain stem hypoplasia during the physical examination of the neurological examination

B) For constructing a list of differential diagnosis based on anatomical and pathophysiological features of a disease

C) For grading the severity of the neurological lesions of the spinal chord during myelography

D) For prognosis

A

B)For constructing a list of differential diagnoses based on anatomical and pathophysiological features of a disease

85
Q

Where could we take a bone marrow sample?

Hip

Humerus

Both

None

A

Both

(Hip; Humerus; Wing of ileum)

86
Q

Why is multifilament suture material not recommended by the surgeries on the GI organs?

A)Expensive

B)High risk of septic consequences because of draining

C)Tensile security properties are worse

D)Knot security properties are worse

A

High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage

87
Q

Which is the final step of a small intestine anastomosis surgery?

A) Omentalisation

B) Suturing of the mesenterium

C) Pressure test over the anastomosis wound

D) ligations of the mesenterials blood vessels

A

Omentalisation (also used for prostatic/paraprostatic cysts)

88
Q

Which drug can be used to stop seizures?

Diazepam

Propofol

Both

None

A

Both

(Diazepam propofol)

89
Q

Which statement is false?

A) The upper motor neuron cell bodies are located in the cerebellum and brainstem

B) The upper motor neuron could stimulate or inhibit the lower motor neuron

C) In case of upper motor neuron dysfunction the clinical findings: Hyporeflexia, muscle hypotonia, abnormal reflexes

D) In case of upper motor neuron dysfunction the clinical findings, Hyperreflexia, muscle hypertonia, abnormal reflexes

A

In case of UMN dysfunction, the clinical findings are: Hyporeflexia; Muscle hypotonia; Abnormal reflexes

90
Q

Incubation period of rabies?

A) Usually 2-3 months, but it can be shorter or longer, depends on which body part was infected

B) Symptoms start 3-7 days after infection

C) Incubation period is very short, symptoms start 1-2 days after infection

D) usually 1-2 weeks, but it can be shorter if the front limbs of the patient had been bitten

A

Usually 2-3 months but can be shorter/longer depending on which body part is affected

91
Q

Which is not the function of the LMN?

Maintenace of muscle tone and support against gravity

Controls voluntary movement

Regurgitation of posture

Initiation of voluntary movement

A

Control of voluntary movement

92
Q

Congenital hydrocephalus in dogs. Which statement is true?

A)Hydrocephalus is common in young dogs (<1 year) of large breeds

B) Ventriculoperitoneal shunt might be applied for palliative, symptomatic treatment

C) Treatment with glucocorticoids and diuretics are contraindicated in cases of high intracranial pressure

D) Hydrocephalus is very rare in young dogs(<1 year) of small breeds

A

Hydrocephalus is common in young big sized breeds under the age of 1 year

93
Q

Which disease is acute?

A) Type 1 discopathy

B) Type 2 discopathy

C) Lumbo sacral instability

D) Tumor

A

Type-I discopathy

94
Q

What is the most characteristic localisation of vertebral body tumours?

A) the Middle third of the vertebra body

B) the end plates

C) Multifidarius processes

D) Articular Processes

A

The middle third of the vertebral body

95
Q

Which step is not recommended when treating animals with refractory heart failure (stage

D)?

A

parenteral administration of an ACE inhibitor

96
Q

Which antiepileptic drug is a primary choice for dog with chroinic treatmen?

Phenobarbital, imepitoin

Ka bromid

Levatireacetam

Diazepan

A

Phenobarbital, imepitoin

97
Q

Suturing of Small intestine anastomosis wound

Monofil, absorable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2 layers

Multifil, absorable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2 layers

Monofil, absorable suture material, simple interrupted/continous suture pattern, in 1 layer

Monofil, non absorable suture material, simple interrupted/ continous suture pattern, in

1 layer (all layers)

A

Monofil, non absorable suture material, simple interrupted/ continous suture pattern, in

1 layer (all layers)

98
Q

Which blood parameters should be examined in anaemic patients?

A) SDMA, cPL, GGT, ALB, P

B) TCa, K, AST, CK, LDH

C) T4, TLI, Crp, ALt, GLDH

D) TP, TBr, APTI, PTL, ACT

A

D) TP, TBr, APTI, PTL, ACT

99
Q

It causes Regenerative Anaemia?

A) Estrogen production of a sertoli cell tumour

B) Ehrlichosis

C) Chronic Kidney diseases

D) Inherited coagulopathy

A

Ehrlichiosis

100
Q

On the basis of modified glasgow coma scale we can evaluate the prognosis of the patient with head trauma according to?

A) Pupil size, motor activity, consciousness

B) Pupil size, motor activity, Brainstem reflexes

C) Motor activity, Brainstem reflexes, consciousness

D) Pupil size, brainstem reflexes, Consciousness

A

C) Motor activity, brainstem reflexes, consciousness

101
Q

Which is an absolute indication for surgical treatment?

A) Acute Hansen type 1. discus prolapsus with paraplegia without deep pain perception

B) Atlantoaxial instability with neck pain

C) Discopondylitis

D) Cauda equina syndrome combined with severe hip dysplasia

A

A) Acute hansen type 1. discus prolapsus with paraplegia without deep pain perception

102
Q

Which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply

a. Left gastric
b. Left gasteoepiploic
c. Short gastric
d. Splenic

A

left gastric

103
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute

abdominal catastrophe? (Peritonitis)

A)The precise diagnosis of particular organ

dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication

B) The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for

surgical indication

C) It definitely requires emergency care

D) It is caused by morphological and/or functional

disorders of abdominal organs

A

B) The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for

surgical indication

104
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma (HSA)?

a. Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as palliative procedure
b. Chemotherapy does not definitely improve the outcome
c. The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor
d. Splenic HSA does not metastasize into the heart

A

c.The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor

SAM 4 Final Past questions (11 decks)

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