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SAM 4 Final Past questions > PQ10 > Flashcards

PQ10 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cause of urine urolithiasis?

Hyperuricosuria

PSS shunt

Chronic liver disease

All 3

A

Hyperuricosuria; PSS; Chronic liver disease

All 3

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2
Q

You can diagnose pyelonephritis by… which answer is wrong?

Hemoculture is case of azotaemia

The histological examination of a renal biopsy

specimen

Visualizing pelvis dilation with imaging methods

and performing urine cultures

The microbiological examination of a renal pelvis

puncture

A

Hemoculture is case of azotaemia

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3
Q

Persistent perineal proteinuria…

Is a typical characteristic of urinary tract

infections

Occurs after heavy physical activity

Bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it

Is a typical characteristic of leptospirosis

A

Bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it

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4
Q

The second most common lower urinary tract disease of dogs?

Prostate diseases

Sterile cystitis

Urolithiasis

Bacterial cystitis

A

Urolithiasis

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5
Q

CKD treatment includes which answer is false?

Renal diet, phosphate binders

ACE-inhibitors, antihypertensive drugs

Erythropoietin inj., potassium supplementation

Diuretics per os

A

Diuretics PO

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6
Q

Which statement is false? In case of subclinical bacteriuria…

Usually, a predisposing factor for UTI is present;

The urine sediment can be active;

Microbiological examination of urine is positive

AB therapy (amoxicillin) will be prescribed

A

AB therapy (amoxicillin) will be prescribed

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7
Q

Which mean urination not at the proper place?

Stranguria

Pollakiuria

Dysuria

Periuria

A

Periuria

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8
Q

What type of proteins are detected with sulfosalicylic acid test?

Albumin and gobulin

Albumin

Globulin

None

A

Albumin; Globulin

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9
Q

Recommended concomitant with erythropoietin/darbepoetin

A)Subcutaneous infusion, because the side effect

of treatment is often dehydration

B)Gastric protection, because the side effect of

treatment is often ulcer formation

C)Mirtazapine because the SE of treatment is often

anorexia

D)Iron and B12

A

Iron & B12

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10
Q

Can be accompanied by crystalluria in cats

Idiopathic cystitis

Urolithiasis

Bacterial cystitis

All 3

A

Idiopathic cystitis; Urolithiasis; Bacterial cystitis

All 3

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11
Q

What is not a contributing factors concerning UTI?

Incontinence

Corticosteroid therapy

FIC

Fanconi syndrome

A

Incontinence

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12
Q

Not an Indication for dialysis treatment?

Anuric acute kidney injury

Polyuric acute kidney injury unresponsive to fluid

therapy

Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis

Removal of toxins in case of acute toxicosis

A

Polyuric acute kidney injury unresponsive to fluid

therapy

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13
Q

When is it recommended to start erythropoietin/darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease?

If cyanosis is already occurring due to hypoxia

When the hematocrit level drops to 18-20%

Only when clinical signs of hypoxia are already

present, not earlier

If the systolic blood pressure is >180mmHg

A

When the haematocrit level drops to 18-20%

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14
Q

Treatment for pyelonephritis. which answer is wrong?

ACE-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids

Puncture and flushing of the renal pelvis

Systemic AB

Fluid therapy

A

ACE inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids

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15
Q

Which procedures are not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts?

Marsupialisation

Omentalisation

Drainage

puncture

A

puncture

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16
Q

Feline interstitial cystitis (FIC)? Not true?

Antibiotics are useless

Affected cats mostly fed by dry food

Affected cats are mostly outdoor animals

Affected cats are mostly neutered animals

A

affected cats are mostly outdoor animals

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17
Q

What is true about the progression of CKD?

Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the

hyperfiltration of the nephrons

Renal fibrosis is primarily caused by the excessive

production of parathormoe

The progression of CKD is generally reversible with

specific therapy

The loss of functional nephrons leads to an increase

in the glomerular filtration rate

A

Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrons

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18
Q

Ectopic ureters. which answer is wrong?

Are usually causing constant urine dripping

Are occuring only in females

Can be diagnosed by x-ray or CT-exam

Can be diagnosed with cystoscopy

A

Are occuring only in females

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19
Q

What is the target organ that isnt damaged by hypertension?

Lungs

Brain

Kidneys

Eyes

A

Lungs

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20
Q

Define polydipsia in SAM

Dog/Cat: drink over 50ml/bwkg/day

Dog water intake over 80-100ml/bwkg/day, cat water

intake over 50mn/bwkg/day

Dog/Cat water intake over 100ml/bwkg/day

Dog water intake over 50ml/bwkg/day, cat water

intake over 100ml/bwkg/day

A

Dog: Water intake >80-100ml/bwkg/day; Cat: Water intake >50ml/bwkg/day

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21
Q

Symptom of renal tubular acidosis?

Metabolic acidosis

Incontinence

Polyuria, polydipsia

Bone development disorders

A

Metabolic acidosis

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22
Q

Most likely diagnosis in dogs with haematuria?

Urolithiasis

Benignus prostate gland hypertrophy

Bacterial cystitis

Neoplasma

A

Bacterial cystitis

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23
Q

High-dose maintenance fluid therapy for acute injury…

● It increases diuresis, thus flushes the kidneys

faster

● May cause interstitial edema in the kidneys,

that decreases GFR and renal blood flow

● Ensures adequate daily fluid intake in

anorexic animals

● In anuria, it ensures that renal function and

urine production are restored quickly

A

May cause interstitial oedema in the kidneys, that decreases GFR & renal blood flow

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24
Q

Renal proteinuria can be decreased by…

Renal diet

Antihypertensive drugs

ACE-inhibitors

All 3

A

Renal diet; Antihypertensives; ACE-inhibitors

All 3

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25
Q

This AB is NOT excreted with the urine thus is NOT

a proper treatment for UTI ?

Amoxicillin

Cephalosporins

Rifampicin

Trimetroprim-szulfonamid

A

Rifampicin

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26
Q

What is most informative for diagnosing ectopic ureters?

Cystoscopy

Double contrast cystography

Intravenous urography pneumocystography

Urinary scintigraphy (TcO4-

A

Cystoscopy

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27
Q

What is V-Y plasty?

A

Tension-relieving plastic procedure

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28
Q

What does W-plasty mean?

A

Scar-correcting plastic procedure

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29
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats

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30
Q

Which of the following has got the widest indication area

A

Reconstructive therapy

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31
Q

What is pathognomic of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Calcinosis cutis

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32
Q

3 Most common causes of PU/PD in cats?

A

CKD; DM; Hyperthyroidism

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33
Q

What may cause hyperglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?

A

Insulin resistance

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34
Q

What is the target blood glucose level in the diabetic patient at max. effect of insulin?

A

4-9mmol/l

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35
Q

What may cause hypoglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?

A

GC; Progestogen tx; DI; Bitch spay

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36
Q

Which is not a possible consequence of obesity?

A

Hypokalemia

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37
Q

Addison’s disease in dogs: Diagnosis

A

Na/K < 27; Cl decrease; ACTH-stim. Test

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38
Q

Causes of insulin resistance

A

Progesterone; Hypercortisolism; Hypersomatotropism

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39
Q

Which is most effective in feline otitis media?

A

Ventral bulla osteotomy

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40
Q

Causes of acromegaly

A

Dog: Progestogen treatment; Pituitary tumour

41
Q

Clinical features of congenital Hyposomatotropism?

a. Yorkshire terrier, pituitary tumor, liver failure, alopecia
b. German shepherd, pituitary cysts, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia
c. Great Dane, enzyme deficiency, kidney failure
d. Beagle, IGF-1 ↓ decreases, disproportionate dwarfism

A

German shepherd; Pituitary cysts Proportionate dwarfism; Alopecia

42
Q

Hypothyroidism in dogs symptoms

A

Activity decrease; Weight gain; Alopecia; Thick skin; Bradycardia; Decreased fertility

43
Q

Hyperthyroidism of cats – Therapeutic options

a. Thyroidectomy, 131I IV, methimazole, low iodine diet
b. Parathyroidectomy, 131I IV, methimazole, low iodine diet

c, Thyroidectomy, 99Tc IV, methimazole, low sodium diet

d. Parathyroidectomy, 131I IV, fenbendazole, low iodine diet

A

Thyroidectomy, 131I IV, methimazole, low iodine diet

44
Q

Which endocrine disorder is there no PU/PD?

A

Hyperthyroidism; Alopecia-X

45
Q

Hyperthyroidism of cats

A

Thyroid adenoma/hyperplasia; Polyphagia; Weight loss; Myocardial hypertrophy

46
Q

Diabetes insipidus. Which is correct?

a. Clinical manifestations: PD/PU, hypersthenuria
b. The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin
c. The ADH production of the kidneys is insufficient in the nephrogenic form
d. Diagnosis: modified water deprivation test, ADH-stimulation test

A

The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin

47
Q

Which factor plays a crucial role in the preoperative determination of surgical

prognosis of adrenalectomy?

A

Tumorous involvement of the caudal vena cava

48
Q

Which breed is not predisposed to obesity?

A

Borzoi

49
Q

Addison’s disease in dogs causes & pathogenesis

A

Primary disease is due to autoimmune inflammation of the adrenals

50
Q

Which statement is true for diabetes insipidus?

A

Partial/complete ADH deficiency

51
Q

Which breed is predisposed for Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Dachshund

52
Q

Breed predisposition for Addison’s disease

A

poodle

53
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs – clinical manifestations

A

Dehydration; K increase; Ca decrease; Weakness; Tremor; Shock

54
Q

Hypothyroidism of dogs

A

Thyroxine decrease; TSH increase; Free thyroxine decrease; TGAA; ACTH-stim.

55
Q

Which statement is false following neutering?

A

appetite

56
Q

. Which of the following is the classic indication of adrenalectomy?

A

Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma caused by peripheral cushin’s disease

57
Q

Which disease does not cause osmotic diuresis?

A

Pyometra

58
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

Thyroid adenocarcinoma without hormone alteration is common in dogs

59
Q

Which of the following techniques is the most tension relieving one?

A

Tubed/stent suture

60
Q

The most important nutritive vessel of the ventral abdominal skin is

A

Cranial superficial epigastric artery & vein

61
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs – Therapy

A

Crisis: 0.9% saline & hydrocortisone; Later: Fludrocortisone, DOCP, prednisolone,

salt

62
Q

How long does the canine sperm survive inside the uterus?

A

10-12 days

63
Q

How many oestrus occurs during one cycle?

A

1

64
Q

Oestrogen effect in the male dog - True

A

It can be caused by testicular Sertoli cell tumour, testicular Leydig cell tumour or

testicular seminoma

65
Q

Oestrogen effect in the male dog – FALSE

A

The hormonal effect reduces the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia

66
Q

Autoimmune orchitis – TRUE

A

It can develop because of blood-testicular barrier injury or autoimmune processes; It

can be treated with corticosteroids

67
Q

Autoimmune orchitis – FALSE

A

It leads to total infertility

68
Q

In which cycle phase is it typical: In the vaginal smear, the rate of cornified cells is

higher than 80-90%

A

oestrous

69
Q

When do secondary morphological abnormalities develop

A

None” (Not during spermatogenesis nor in the ripening process)

70
Q

What does the term “azoospermia” mean?

A

Lack of spermatozoa in the sperm

71
Q

What is the shape of a healthy testicle?

A

Oval with a smooth surface

72
Q

Which statements are true?

A

Adenocarcinoma and transient cell carcinoma are the most common forms of prostate

cancer in dogs; Castration reduces the size of the non-neoplastic prostate but dies not

affect the progression of neoplastic processes; Prostate carcinoma in a dog is not an

androgen-dependent tumour

73
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia predisposes to malignant prostate tumour

74
Q

What type of contamination can/do we expect if the sperm is green coloured?

A

Purulent exudate

75
Q

In which cycle is it typical? : Small vulva, pink, flat mucosa?

A

Anoestrous

76
Q

Which word describes the healthy motion of sperm cells?

A

Straight

77
Q

Which factors are involved in the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Testosterone levels decrease with age; Increasing oestrogen:testosterone ratio;

Increased 5-alpha-reductase activity in prostate cells

78
Q

Which factors aren’t involved in the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Testosterone levels increase with age

79
Q

In which cycle phase does the bitch slow receptivity?

A

oestrous

80
Q

Which test method cannot be used to examine the prostate?

A

Inspection

81
Q

What is typical of epididymitis caused by Brucella canis?

A

Pathogen can be excreted with the ejaculator for up to 2 years; Bacteriaemia can last

intermittently for up to 64 months (5 years); It is zoonotic

82
Q

What is not typical of epididymitis caused by Brucella canis?

A

The pathogen is not present in Europe

83
Q

What causes pseudoherphrodrodism?

A

Androgen effect in the early stages of individual development

84
Q

Mark the correct statement regarding vaginitis

A

The pathogens that cause vaginitis are most often the constituents of the normal vaginal

flora

85
Q

Vestibulovaginal stenosis – TRUE

A

Its formation is characteristic of the area of junction of the Wolffian tube and the

urogenital sinus; This may be formed by an incomplete perforation of the hymen or a

vertical septum; Its formation is characteristic of the area of connection between the

Müllerian tube and the urogenital sinus

86
Q

Vestibulovaginal stenosis – FALSE

A

Mild stenosis is still physiological

87
Q

Where are the following anatomical structures located in the vagina? Ostium urethrae

externum & fossa clitoris

A

On the ventral wall of the vagina

88
Q

At what temperature do we store chilled semen?

A

5 degrees

89
Q

At what temperature do we store frozen semen?

A

-196

90
Q

What is the meaning of “preovulatory luteinisation”?

A

An increase in plasma progesterone level prior to the LH peak can be observed

91
Q

Which factors affect the amount of sperm

A

The size of the dog; Frequency of sperm collection

92
Q

What is the progesterone value during anoestrous?

A

< 1ng/ml

93
Q

Optimally, what is the minimum quantity of spermatozoa in the sperm (in millions)?

A

300

94
Q

In which cycle phase is it typical: Slight swollen vulva, the vaginal mucosa is whitish

“dry” and wrinkled

A

Oestrus

95
Q

Which of these statements indicates testicular tumour?

A

Bilateral symmetrical alopecia; Atrophy of the contralateral testicle; Concurrent benign

prostatic hyperplasia

96
Q

Which of these statements doesn’t indicate testicular tumour?

A

Changes in the dog’s bark or voice

97
Q

In which cycle phase is it typical: Small vulva, red vaginal mucosa, rosette-like

appearance

A

Dioestrous

98
Q

In which cycle phase can we measure the highest levels of progesterone in case of a

healthy cycle?

A

Dioestrous

99
Q

How many fractions does the ejaculation have in dogs?

A

3

SAM 4 Final Past questions (11 decks)

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