PQ10 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cause of urine urolithiasis?

Hyperuricosuria

PSS shunt

Chronic liver disease

All 3

A

Hyperuricosuria; PSS; Chronic liver disease

All 3

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2
Q

You can diagnose pyelonephritis by… which answer is wrong?

Hemoculture is case of azotaemia

The histological examination of a renal biopsy

specimen

Visualizing pelvis dilation with imaging methods

and performing urine cultures

The microbiological examination of a renal pelvis

puncture

A

Hemoculture is case of azotaemia

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3
Q

Persistent perineal proteinuria…

Is a typical characteristic of urinary tract

infections

Occurs after heavy physical activity

Bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it

Is a typical characteristic of leptospirosis

A

Bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it

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4
Q

The second most common lower urinary tract disease of dogs?

Prostate diseases

Sterile cystitis

Urolithiasis

Bacterial cystitis

A

Urolithiasis

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5
Q

CKD treatment includes which answer is false?

Renal diet, phosphate binders

ACE-inhibitors, antihypertensive drugs

Erythropoietin inj., potassium supplementation

Diuretics per os

A

Diuretics PO

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6
Q

Which statement is false? In case of subclinical bacteriuria…

Usually, a predisposing factor for UTI is present;

The urine sediment can be active;

Microbiological examination of urine is positive

AB therapy (amoxicillin) will be prescribed

A

AB therapy (amoxicillin) will be prescribed

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7
Q

Which mean urination not at the proper place?

Stranguria

Pollakiuria

Dysuria

Periuria

A

Periuria

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8
Q

What type of proteins are detected with sulfosalicylic acid test?

Albumin and gobulin

Albumin

Globulin

None

A

Albumin; Globulin

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9
Q

Recommended concomitant with erythropoietin/darbepoetin

A)Subcutaneous infusion, because the side effect

of treatment is often dehydration

B)Gastric protection, because the side effect of

treatment is often ulcer formation

C)Mirtazapine because the SE of treatment is often

anorexia

D)Iron and B12

A

Iron & B12

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10
Q

Can be accompanied by crystalluria in cats

Idiopathic cystitis

Urolithiasis

Bacterial cystitis

All 3

A

Idiopathic cystitis; Urolithiasis; Bacterial cystitis

All 3

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11
Q

What is not a contributing factors concerning UTI?

Incontinence

Corticosteroid therapy

FIC

Fanconi syndrome

A

Incontinence

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12
Q

Not an Indication for dialysis treatment?

Anuric acute kidney injury

Polyuric acute kidney injury unresponsive to fluid

therapy

Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis

Removal of toxins in case of acute toxicosis

A

Polyuric acute kidney injury unresponsive to fluid

therapy

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13
Q

When is it recommended to start erythropoietin/darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease?

If cyanosis is already occurring due to hypoxia

When the hematocrit level drops to 18-20%

Only when clinical signs of hypoxia are already

present, not earlier

If the systolic blood pressure is >180mmHg

A

When the haematocrit level drops to 18-20%

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14
Q

Treatment for pyelonephritis. which answer is wrong?

ACE-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids

Puncture and flushing of the renal pelvis

Systemic AB

Fluid therapy

A

ACE inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids

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15
Q

Which procedures are not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts?

Marsupialisation

Omentalisation

Drainage

puncture

A

puncture

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16
Q

Feline interstitial cystitis (FIC)? Not true?

Antibiotics are useless

Affected cats mostly fed by dry food

Affected cats are mostly outdoor animals

Affected cats are mostly neutered animals

A

affected cats are mostly outdoor animals

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17
Q

What is true about the progression of CKD?

Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the

hyperfiltration of the nephrons

Renal fibrosis is primarily caused by the excessive

production of parathormoe

The progression of CKD is generally reversible with

specific therapy

The loss of functional nephrons leads to an increase

in the glomerular filtration rate

A

Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrons

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18
Q

Ectopic ureters. which answer is wrong?

Are usually causing constant urine dripping

Are occuring only in females

Can be diagnosed by x-ray or CT-exam

Can be diagnosed with cystoscopy

A

Are occuring only in females

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19
Q

What is the target organ that isnt damaged by hypertension?

Lungs

Brain

Kidneys

Eyes

A

Lungs

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20
Q

Define polydipsia in SAM

Dog/Cat: drink over 50ml/bwkg/day

Dog water intake over 80-100ml/bwkg/day, cat water

intake over 50mn/bwkg/day

Dog/Cat water intake over 100ml/bwkg/day

Dog water intake over 50ml/bwkg/day, cat water

intake over 100ml/bwkg/day

A

Dog: Water intake >80-100ml/bwkg/day; Cat: Water intake >50ml/bwkg/day

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21
Q

Symptom of renal tubular acidosis?

Metabolic acidosis

Incontinence

Polyuria, polydipsia

Bone development disorders

A

Metabolic acidosis

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22
Q

Most likely diagnosis in dogs with haematuria?

Urolithiasis

Benignus prostate gland hypertrophy

Bacterial cystitis

Neoplasma

A

Bacterial cystitis

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23
Q

High-dose maintenance fluid therapy for acute injury…

● It increases diuresis, thus flushes the kidneys

faster

● May cause interstitial edema in the kidneys,

that decreases GFR and renal blood flow

● Ensures adequate daily fluid intake in

anorexic animals

● In anuria, it ensures that renal function and

urine production are restored quickly

A

May cause interstitial oedema in the kidneys, that decreases GFR & renal blood flow

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24
Q

Renal proteinuria can be decreased by…

Renal diet

Antihypertensive drugs

ACE-inhibitors

All 3

A

Renal diet; Antihypertensives; ACE-inhibitors

All 3

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25
This AB is NOT excreted with the urine thus is NOT a proper treatment for UTI ? Amoxicillin Cephalosporins Rifampicin Trimetroprim-szulfonamid
Rifampicin
26
What is most informative for diagnosing ectopic ureters? ## Footnote Cystoscopy Double contrast cystography Intravenous urography pneumocystography Urinary scintigraphy (TcO4-
Cystoscopy
27
What is V-Y plasty?
Tension-relieving plastic procedure
28
What does W-plasty mean?
Scar-correcting plastic procedure
29
Which statement is correct?
Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats
30
Which of the following has got the widest indication area
Reconstructive therapy
31
What is pathognomic of Cushing’s syndrome?
Calcinosis cutis
32
3 Most common causes of PU/PD in cats?
CKD; DM; Hyperthyroidism
33
What may cause hyperglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?
Insulin resistance
34
What is the target blood glucose level in the diabetic patient at max. effect of insulin?
4-9mmol/l
35
What may cause hypoglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?
GC; Progestogen tx; DI; Bitch spay
36
Which is not a possible consequence of obesity?
Hypokalemia
37
Addison’s disease in dogs: Diagnosis
Na/K \< 27; Cl decrease; ACTH-stim. Test
38
Causes of insulin resistance
Progesterone; Hypercortisolism; Hypersomatotropism
39
Which is most effective in feline otitis media?
Ventral bulla osteotomy
40
Causes of acromegaly
Dog: Progestogen treatment; Pituitary tumour
41
Clinical features of congenital Hyposomatotropism? ## Footnote a. Yorkshire terrier, pituitary tumor, liver failure, alopecia b. German shepherd, pituitary cysts, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia c. Great Dane, enzyme deficiency, kidney failure d. Beagle, IGF-1 ↓ decreases, disproportionate dwarfism
German shepherd; Pituitary cysts Proportionate dwarfism; Alopecia
42
Hypothyroidism in dogs symptoms
Activity decrease; Weight gain; Alopecia; Thick skin; Bradycardia; Decreased fertility
43
Hyperthyroidism of cats – Therapeutic options ## Footnote a. Thyroidectomy, 131I IV, methimazole, low iodine diet b. Parathyroidectomy, 131I IV, methimazole, low iodine diet c, Thyroidectomy, 99Tc IV, methimazole, low sodium diet d. Parathyroidectomy, 131I IV, fenbendazole, low iodine diet
Thyroidectomy, 131I IV, methimazole, low iodine diet
44
Which endocrine disorder is there no PU/PD?
Hyperthyroidism; Alopecia-X
45
Hyperthyroidism of cats
Thyroid adenoma/hyperplasia; Polyphagia; Weight loss; Myocardial hypertrophy
46
Diabetes insipidus. Which is correct? ## Footnote a. Clinical manifestations: PD/PU, hypersthenuria b. The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin c. The ADH production of the kidneys is insufficient in the nephrogenic form d. Diagnosis: modified water deprivation test, ADH-stimulation test
The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin
47
Which factor plays a crucial role in the preoperative determination of surgical prognosis of adrenalectomy?
Tumorous involvement of the caudal vena cava
48
Which breed is not predisposed to obesity?
Borzoi
49
Addison’s disease in dogs causes & pathogenesis
Primary disease is due to autoimmune inflammation of the adrenals
50
Which statement is true for diabetes insipidus?
Partial/complete ADH deficiency
51
Which breed is predisposed for Cushing’s syndrome?
Dachshund
52
Breed predisposition for Addison’s disease
poodle
53
Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs – clinical manifestations
Dehydration; K increase; Ca decrease; Weakness; Tremor; Shock
54
Hypothyroidism of dogs
Thyroxine decrease; TSH increase; Free thyroxine decrease; TGAA; ACTH-stim.
55
Which statement is false following neutering?
appetite
56
. Which of the following is the classic indication of adrenalectomy?
Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma caused by peripheral cushin’s disease
57
Which disease does not cause osmotic diuresis?
Pyometra
58
Which statement is correct?
Thyroid adenocarcinoma without hormone alteration is common in dogs
59
Which of the following techniques is the most tension relieving one?
Tubed/stent suture
60
The most important nutritive vessel of the ventral abdominal skin is
Cranial superficial epigastric artery & vein
61
Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs – Therapy
Crisis: 0.9% saline & hydrocortisone; Later: Fludrocortisone, DOCP, prednisolone, salt
62
How long does the canine sperm survive inside the uterus?
10-12 days
63
How many oestrus occurs during one cycle?
1
64
Oestrogen effect in the male dog - True
It can be caused by testicular Sertoli cell tumour, testicular Leydig cell tumour or testicular seminoma
65
Oestrogen effect in the male dog – FALSE
The hormonal effect reduces the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia
66
Autoimmune orchitis – TRUE
It can develop because of blood-testicular barrier injury or autoimmune processes; It can be treated with corticosteroids
67
Autoimmune orchitis – FALSE
It leads to total infertility
68
In which cycle phase is it typical: In the vaginal smear, the rate of cornified cells is higher than 80-90%
oestrous
69
When do secondary morphological abnormalities develop
None” (Not during spermatogenesis nor in the ripening process)
70
What does the term “azoospermia” mean?
Lack of spermatozoa in the sperm
71
What is the shape of a healthy testicle?
Oval with a smooth surface
72
Which statements are true?
Adenocarcinoma and transient cell carcinoma are the most common forms of prostate cancer in dogs; Castration reduces the size of the non-neoplastic prostate but dies not affect the progression of neoplastic processes; Prostate carcinoma in a dog is not an androgen-dependent tumour
73
Which statement is false?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia predisposes to malignant prostate tumour
74
What type of contamination can/do we expect if the sperm is green coloured?
Purulent exudate
75
In which cycle is it typical? : Small vulva, pink, flat mucosa?
Anoestrous
76
Which word describes the healthy motion of sperm cells?
Straight
77
Which factors are involved in the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia
Testosterone levels decrease with age; Increasing oestrogen:testosterone ratio; Increased 5-alpha-reductase activity in prostate cells
78
Which factors aren’t involved in the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Testosterone levels increase with age
79
In which cycle phase does the bitch slow receptivity?
oestrous
80
Which test method cannot be used to examine the prostate?
Inspection
81
What is typical of epididymitis caused by Brucella canis?
Pathogen can be excreted with the ejaculator for up to 2 years; Bacteriaemia can last intermittently for up to 64 months (5 years); It is zoonotic
82
What is not typical of epididymitis caused by Brucella canis?
The pathogen is not present in Europe
83
What causes pseudoherphrodrodism?
Androgen effect in the early stages of individual development
84
Mark the correct statement regarding vaginitis
The pathogens that cause vaginitis are most often the constituents of the normal vaginal flora
85
Vestibulovaginal stenosis – TRUE
Its formation is characteristic of the area of junction of the Wolffian tube and the urogenital sinus; This may be formed by an incomplete perforation of the hymen or a vertical septum; Its formation is characteristic of the area of connection between the Müllerian tube and the urogenital sinus
86
Vestibulovaginal stenosis – FALSE
Mild stenosis is still physiological
87
Where are the following anatomical structures located in the vagina? Ostium urethrae externum & fossa clitoris
On the ventral wall of the vagina
88
At what temperature do we store chilled semen?
5 degrees
89
At what temperature do we store frozen semen?
-196
90
What is the meaning of “preovulatory luteinisation”?
An increase in plasma progesterone level prior to the LH peak can be observed
91
Which factors affect the amount of sperm
The size of the dog; Frequency of sperm collection
92
What is the progesterone value during anoestrous?
\< 1ng/ml
93
Optimally, what is the minimum quantity of spermatozoa in the sperm (in millions)?
300
94
In which cycle phase is it typical: Slight swollen vulva, the vaginal mucosa is whitish “dry” and wrinkled
Oestrus
95
Which of these statements indicates testicular tumour?
Bilateral symmetrical alopecia; Atrophy of the contralateral testicle; Concurrent benign prostatic hyperplasia
96
Which of these statements doesn’t indicate testicular tumour?
Changes in the dog’s bark or voice
97
In which cycle phase is it typical: Small vulva, red vaginal mucosa, rosette-like appearance
Dioestrous
98
In which cycle phase can we measure the highest levels of progesterone in case of a healthy cycle?
Dioestrous
99
How many fractions does the ejaculation have in dogs?
3