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SAM 4 Final Past questions > PQ7 > Flashcards

PQ7 Flashcards

1
Q

Which contrast is injected in to the sub-arachnoid space in myelography?

A

Iodine

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2
Q

Where can myelography be performed?

A

Lumbar region & atlanto-occipital joint

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3
Q

What types of intensifying screens are known?

A

CaWo4 and rare-earth screen (blue or green)

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4
Q

Characteristics of laryngeal paralysis

A

Old; Large breed; Idiopathic background

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5
Q

Characteristics of feline asthma

A

Cytological & microbiological examination of BAL is highly important

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6
Q

Which sign reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2 < 60mmHg)?

a. Dyspnoe
b. Cyanosis
c. Hyperventilation
d. Labial breathing

A

Cyanosis

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7
Q

Colloid infusions. Choose the correct answer?

A) Contain small molecule weight compounds

B) In a dosage less than 20 ml/kg/day they may induce coagulopathy

C) are used to treat dehydration

D) Can be used in hypovolaemia combined with crystalloids

A

Are used in hypovolaemia combined with crystalloids

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8
Q

Canine chronic bronchitis?

A)Bronchial pattern on x ray

B) mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during

bronchoscopy

C) cytology and microbiology of BAL are required

D) All correct

A

Bronchial pattern on x-ray; Mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during

bronchoscopy; Cytology & microbiology of BAL are required

D) all correct

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9
Q

What does “atypical operation” mean?

a. One sort of life-saving surgeries
b. One sort of tumour removal procedures
c. Specific plastic surgical intervention
d. An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition of the surgeon

A

An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience & intuition of the

surgeon

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10
Q

Which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL?

A

Processus muscularis, Processus cuneifomis, Processus corniculatus

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11
Q

Characteristics of aspiration pneumonia

A

Prognosis can be influenced by pH, volume & quality of the aspirated content;

Megaoesophagus or laryngeal dysfunction

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12
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding cervical tracheal resection/ anastomosis?

A

Either interrupted or continuous stitches are applied

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13
Q

Characteristics of canine/feline bacterial pneumonia

A

Its background is usually viral, foreign body or food inspiration

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14
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding midline sternotomy?

A

Finochietto rib retractor or gelpi retractor is applicable

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15
Q

Which of the following can you not give subcutaneously

A

Injections containing glucose

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16
Q

The peripheral venous catheter…

A

Has a valve in the upper (coloured cap) connection part

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17
Q

How long can a nasogastric tube stay for?

A

5-10 days

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18
Q

After perivenous injection

A

A swelling develops at the injection site

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19
Q

According to the WSAVA vaccination guidelines issued in 2016, the last injection of

a puppy series is at the age of…

A

16 weeks

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20
Q

Which of the following statement is correct? A passive drain

a. Is always a single exit drain?
b. Can only be used as double exit drain
c. Is mostly used for flushing
d. Is more effective with a compression bandage on it

A

D) Is more effective with a compression bandage on it

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21
Q

Which breed is congenital laryngeal paralysis common?

A

Husky

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22
Q

Which of the following conditions is the rhinotomy not the primarily indicated therapy?

A

adenocarcinoma

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23
Q

Where do we measure blood glucose in cats?

A

Ear vein or paw pad

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24
Q

Which answer is wrong? Benefits of a 3-way stopcock

A

It is harder for the animal to pull out the catheter from the vein

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25
Q

Which parameter is most specific for DIC?

a. fibrinogen
b. APTT
c. PTT
d. FDP

A

Fibrinogen

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26
Q

What are not typical symptom for a riding thrombus in cats?

a. paralysis of the hindlimbs
b. loud (painful) vocalization
c. dyspnoe
d. loss of femoral pulse

A

Dyspnoea

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27
Q

What is the most reliable method of diagnosis for pneumothorax?

a. x-rays
b. physical exam
c. ultrasound
d. thoracoscopy

A

Thorascopy

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28
Q

Electrosurgery. Choose the incorrect statement:

a. In monopolar systems, a large surface return electrode should be placed on the
patient’s body;

b. In monopolar systems the return electrode can cause burn wounds in the patient in case of

small contact area.

c. In forceps-like bipolar systems there is no need for a large sized recurrent electrode.
d. The efficiency and safety of monopolar systems is better.

A

d. The efficiency and safety of monopolar systems is better.

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29
Q

In case of PPDH, the dislocation of which abdominal organ is NOT common?

a. spleen
b. omentum
c. liver
d. small intestines

A

spleen

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30
Q

What can we conclude from the speed of flow during Doppler echocardiography?

a. the MAP
b. the direction of flow
c. the pressure difference between the heart chambers
d. the character of flow (laminal or turbulent)

A

The pressure difference between the heart chambers

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31
Q

Which part of the stomach is usually dislocated in case of sliding (axial) hiatal hernia?

a. cardia
b. fundus
c. corpus
d. antrum pylori

A

cardia

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32
Q

What lesions are expected in severe endocardiosis?

a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

left heart distension

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33
Q

What lesions are expected in severe dilated cardiomyopathy?

a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

Left heart distension/dilation

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34
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe mitral valve diseases (MMVD)?

A

Left ventricular dilation

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35
Q

What lesion is expected in severe pulmonary stenosis?

a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

RV concentric hypertrophy

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36
Q

What lesions are expected in severe aortic stenosis?

a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

LV hypertrophy

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37
Q

Which one is a congenital pericardial disease?

a. PPDH
b. PPHD
c. PHPD
d. PDHP

A

PPDH (Peritoneopericardial hernia )

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38
Q

Which step is incorrect in a patient suffering from ventricular arrhythmia after ECG:

a. blood analysis, abdominal US
b. c-troponin-I measurement
c. digoxin administration
d. echocardiography

A

Digoxin administration

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39
Q

Which organ is the source of MDF?

a. liver
b. lung
c. GI tract
d. pancreas

A

pancreas

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40
Q

What is MDF

A

Myocardia depressant factor; Mediator during shock that reduced the heart

contractility, constricting splanchnic arteries & impairing phagocytosis. Survival can

be improved by blocking this by using glucocorticoids, lidocaine or prostaglandins

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41
Q

What treatment should be given to a dog with B1 level mitral endocardiosis?

A

ACE inhibitor (enalapril); Reduce salt in diet; Regular BP measurement

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42
Q

What treatment should be given to a dog with B2 level mitral endocardiosis?

a. ACE-I
b. pimobendan
c. furosemide
d. none of the above

A

Pimobendan

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43
Q

What treatment should be given to a dog with C/D level mitral endocardiosis?

A

Supplemental oxygen; Furosemide; Pimobendan; Amlodipine

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44
Q

Choose the incorrect answer:

a. during surgical scrubbing, the hands should be higher than the elbow.
b. during autoclave all pathogen microbes are destroyed, but non-pathogenic microbes can

remain on the surface of instruments.

c. the sterile instruments of which the packages are soaked should not be used.
d. in the surgery room, a sterile person should not let their hand hang lower than the operating

table.

A

B) during autoclave all pathogen microbes are destroyed, but non pathogenic microbes can remain on the surface of the instruments

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45
Q

Which are parts of the pathological remodelling of the heart?

Which is not part of the pathological remodeling of the heart?

a. MHC receptor formation on the membranes of myocardial cells
b. the macroscopic transformation of the heart (dilation, hypertrophy)
c. change of the myocardial cell function (contractility, arrhythmias)
d. change in the myocardial cell connections

A

d. change in the myocardial cell connections

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46
Q

Which condition leads to the shift of cardiac dullness?

a. pulmonary oedema
b. pulmonary fibrosis
c. space occupying structure in the mediastinum
d. pleural effusion

A

c. space occupying structure in the mediastinum

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47
Q

After physical & auxiliary examination, we diagnose mitral endocardiosis, but the

typical symptoms are not present yet. Which stage can we put the patient in?

a. AHA-A
b. AHA-B
c. AHA-C
d. AHA-D

A

AHA- B

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48
Q

Pimobendan is…

a. an ACE-inhibitor
b. Ca channel sensitizer and phosphodiesterase inhibitor
c. bipyridine-derivate
d. Ca channel sensitizer and alpha-adrenergic blocker

A

Ca channel sensitiser & phosphodiesterase inhibitor (decreases the preload;

Vasodilator; Venodilator)

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49
Q

Basic therapy for endocardiosis with typical symptoms present

a. furosemide, potassium, pimobendan
b. furosemide, spironolactone, digoxin
c. ACE-I, bronchodilators
d. furosemide, ACE-

A

(treat for MMVD-C &-D)Furosemide; Potassium; Pimobendan; Supplemental oxygen

50
Q

Which corticosteroid is recommended in shock?

Which corticosteroid is recommended in shock?

a. methylprednisolone sodium succinate
b. prednisolone sodium succinate
c. dexamethasone
d. corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

A

D) Corticosteroids are not reccomended in shock

51
Q

Which type (localisation) is typical for perineal hernia in female dogs?

a. lateral
b. dorsal
c. ventral
d. perineal hernia does not happen in females

A

Perineal hernia does not happen in females

52
Q

The herniation/strangulation of which organ causes acute symptoms in case of

perineal hernia?

a. small intestine
b. large intestine
c. uterus
d. bladder

A

Bladder

53
Q

Which macrocyclic lactone do we use in our university clinic in complex therapy for

dogs with HWD?

a. selamectin
b. ivermectin
c. moxidectin
d. milbemycin-oxime

A

Moxidectin

54
Q

Typical for PRAA

a. abnormal development of ductus Botalli
b. the permeable aspect of ductus Botalli
c. abnormal development of the aortic arch
d. abnormal development of the subclavicular artery

A

Abnormal development of the aortic arch;

Regurgitation; Coughing; Dyspnoea; WL

55
Q

Which congenital heart disease is more common in female dogs?

a. pulmonic stenosis
b. ventricular septal defect
c. Fallot-tetralogy
d. PDA

A

PDA

56
Q

In which stage of HWD can ascites occur?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 2 and 3
d. in none

A

Stage 3

57
Q

If we increase the preload…

a. it increases the contractility of the heart
b. we can induce stagnancy
c. the heart dilates
d. the cardiac performance will decrease

A

induce stagnancy ???

58
Q

In the progression of cardiac failure, a role is attributed to…

Choose the wrong answer: in the progression of cardiac failure, a role is attributed to:

a. chronic activation of the RAAS and the sympathic nervous system
b. cardiac acetylcholine receptor numbers and function altered
c. inflammatory mediators and free radicals
d. insufficient oxygen and energy supply of the cardiomyocytes despite of the increased

demand

A

b) Cardiac acetylcholine receptor numbers and function altered (down regulation)

59
Q

Which mode can be used for real time 2d visualisation of the myocardial structure?

a. B-mode
b. color Doppler
c. M-mode
d. spectral Doppler

A

M-mode (forms a trace)

60
Q

What diagnostic tests are needed for HWD screening?

a. only modified Knott test
b. only antigen test
c. both
d. neither

A

Modified knott test

61
Q

Suture techniques

Suture techniques. Choose the incorrect answer!

a. according to the number of layers can be single layer or multiple layer
b. according to apposition can be “layer to layer” inward turning and relaxing
c. something about interrupted and continuous
d. regardless of the suture type, the knots need to be placed on the suture line

A

d. regardless of the suture type, the knots need to be placed on the suture line

62
Q

Knot tying techniques. Choose the wrong answers! (multiple options)

a. in surgery a knot is considered to be at least two opposite direction half-knots positioned on

one another (first should be double and the second simple, so idk)

b. in case of synthetic monofilament suture materials less knots (3-4), in case of multifilament

more knots (5-6) are needed for a safe tie

c. we can do a one-handed, a two-handed or an instrument tie
d. for larger vessel and tissue pack ties using an instrument tie is safer.

A

b. in case of synthetic monofilament suture materials less knots (3-4), in case of multifilament

more knots (5-6) are needed for a safe tie

63
Q

A typical symptom of haemopericardium in dogs?

a. strong pulse
b. systolic murmur
c. reddened mucosas
d. distant heart sounds

A

Distant heart sounds

64
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. during scrubbing in, in the skin of the forearm some bullshit about the number of cells
b. the back of the surgical gown is considered sterile after putting it on
c. if the sterile gloves break, it is always necessary to redo the scrubbing
d. the efficiency of the scrubbing is primarily determined by the contact time, not the

strength of scrubbing.

A

The efficiency of scrubbing is primarily determined by the contact time, not the strength

of scrubbing

65
Q

Which drugs have no afterload decreasing effects?

a. amlodipine
b. pimobendan
c. digoxin
d. hydralazine

A

digoxin

66
Q

Most common heart disease in dogs…

a. mitral endocardosis
b. dilated cardiomyopathy
c. subvalvular aorta stenosis (SAS)
d. PDA

A

Mitral endocardiosis

67
Q

The most common heart disease in cats is…

a. mitral endocardosis
b. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. subvalvular aorta stenosis (SAS)
d. PDA

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

68
Q

Which surgical method is the most recommended for diaphragmatic hernia

correction?

a. laparotomy
b. lateral thoracotomy
c. laparatomy + lateral thoracotomy
d. sternotomy

A

Laparotomy

69
Q

Which drug does not have significant diuretic effect in small animals?

a. furosemide
b. torasemide
c. spironolactone
d. chlorothiazide

A

Spironolactone

70
Q

Spironolactone is an…

A

ACE-I inhibitor (which prevents Angiotensin II production which would normally

narrow blood vessels) Decreases BP

71
Q

Can diaphragmatic hernia be diagnosed by ultrasound?

a. yes
b. no
c. maybe
d. never

A

yes

72
Q

Which is not needed for a standard echocardiographic examination?

a) phased array transducer
b) Right lateral recumbency
c) Using standard planes
d) Linear transducer

A

Linear transducer

73
Q

What is not typical of the PRAA surgery?

a,Left sided 4th intercostal thoracotomy

b. Ligature and bisection of the Botallo duct
c. High risk of intraoperative complication
d. Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

A

Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

74
Q

Which plane is used to measure the left atrium to aortic root ratio?

a) short axis at heart base from right side
b) Long axis at right side
c) Apical view
d) Subcostal view

A

Short axis at heart base from right side

75
Q

The most important medications to treat congestive heart failure?

A) ACE inhibitors (enalapril, benazepril)

B) Beta receptor blockers (atelonol, carvedilol)

C) Loop diuretics (Furosemide, torsemide)

D) Pimobendan, Levosimendan

A

Pimobendan, Levosimendan

76
Q

Which statement is true regarding feline heart worm disease?

a) cats are occasionally infected
b) Cats are ofen infected
c) Cats are never infected
d) None of the statements are true

A

Cats are occasionally infected

77
Q

After ECG examination of a spaniel with a 3rd degree AV block?

a) determination of the potassium level
b) Administration of atropine
c) Administration of diltiazem
d) Administration of prednisolone, doxycycline

A

d) Administration of prednisolone, doxycycline

78
Q

During an echocardiograph, we can use…

a) short axis view
b) Longitudinal views
c) Both of them
d) None of them

A

Short axis view; Longitudinal view

Both

79
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular extrasystole from a supraventricular

one on the ECG?

a) a ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause
b) The supraventricular extrasystole is always of normal width
c) In front of the QRS complex, a p-wave is always seen in a supraventricular beat
d) A p-wave is never seen before the QRS complex in a supraventricular beat

A

The supraventricular extrasystole is always of normal width

80
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular supraventricular arrhythmia on the ECG?

a) the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias
b) The QRS complex is always of normal width in the case of supraventricular arrhythmia
c) P-wave is always visible in front of the QRS complex in supraventricular arrhythmias
d) P-wave never seen in supraventricular arrhythmias before QRS complex

A

The QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias

81
Q

Which is the wrong answer? May play a role in the progression of heart failure:

a) chronic activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and the sympathetic nervous

system

b) Decrease number and function of cardiac acetylcholine receptors
c) The production of inflammatory mediators and free radicals
d) Poor blood supply to the heart muscle despite increased oxygen and energy demands

A

B) Decrease number and function of cardiac acetylcholine receptors (downregulation)

82
Q

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of a dog with supraventricular tachyarrhythmia?

a) to perform a vagus manoeuvre
b) Administration of atropine
c) Administration of diltiazem
d) Echocardiography, blood test

A

Administration of atropine

83
Q

Which answer is not good? The hemodynamic parameters that determine heart rate include:

a) ventricular preload and afterload
b) contractibility, distensibility
c) Heart rate and synchronisation of contractions
d) The relative ratio of the amount of blood pumped by the two sides of the heart

A

d) The relative ratio of the amount of blood pumped by the two sides of the heart

84
Q

What is not needed for a standard echocardiographic examination?

a) phased array transducer
b) Right lateral recumbency
c) Using standard planes
d) Linear transducer

A

Linear transducer

85
Q

The cranial border of the Diernhofer triangle?

A) the scapula

B) The cranial part of the heart

C) The descendent aorta

D) The caudal part of the heart

A

the scapula

86
Q

How can you determine the left atria-aortic ratio (LA/Ao.) during an

echocardiograph?

a) measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same long axis view
b) Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same short axis

view

c) Measure the diameter of the aorta in short axis and measure the diameter of the left atrium in

long axis view

d) Measure the diameter of the left atrium in short axis and measure the diameter of the aorta in

long axis view

A

Measure the diameter of the aorta and the LA in the same short axis view

87
Q

Which of the following types of shock is SIRS rated in?

a) Hypovolemic
b) cardiogenic/obstructive
c) Distributive
d) Hypoxic

A

Distributive shock

88
Q

Consequence of heart failure?

a) pulmonary oedema
b) Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs
c) Congestive liver
d) Ascites

A

Pulmonary oedema

89
Q

Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic x-ray during canine heart

worm disease?

a) pulmonary arteries
b) Pulmonary veins
c) Both can altered
d) None of them

A

Pulmonary arteries

90
Q

Which statement is not characteristic for the radiograph finding of pneumothorax?

a) elevation of the heart from the sternum
b) Obvious demarcation of the intrathoracic organs
c) Compression of the lung lobes
d) Dorsal dislocation of the trachea

A

Dorsal dislocation of the trachea

91
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe pulmonic stenosis?

a) left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
b) Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
c) Left ventricular dilatation
d) Right ventricular dilatation

A

Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy

92
Q

ECG characteristic of atrial fibrillation

a) The R-R distance varies and the ventricular complexes are greatly deformed
b) There are no P-waves and R-R distances are regular
c) There are no P-waves and the R-R distance varies
d) The atria and the ventricles operate separately with different P-wave and QRS frequencies

A

There are no P-waves; The R-R distance varies

93
Q

What is the typical finding during the FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation?

a) honey-like, viscous exudate during puncture
b) thin, water-like flu during puncture
c) Bloody fluid during puncture
d) None of them

A

Honey-like, viscous exudate during puncture

94
Q

What are the three major components of the complex treatment of canine heartworm

disease?

a) doxycycline, selamectin, melarsomine
b) fenbendazole, doramectine, clopidrogel
c) doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine
d) doxycycline, milbemycin-oxime, melarsomine

A

Doxycycline, Moxidectin, Melarsomine

95
Q

The upper border of the dullness during percussion of pleural effusion is…

a) Concave
b) Convey
c) Horizontal
d) Changing in direc3on but never horizontal

A

Horizontal

96
Q

Reducing ventricular afterload during HF

a) always beneficial
b) Should only be used in mild heart failure
c) Should only be used in severe heart failure
d) Extremely risky

A

Is extremely risky

97
Q

Which diagnostic tool is chosen next in cases of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia?

a) Thoracocentesis
b) Abdominocentesis
c) Ultrasonography
d) Respiratory endoscopy

A

ultrasonography

98
Q

The administration of digoxin may be justified to treat…

a) III-degree AV block
b) Ventricular tachycardia
c) Atrial fibrillation
d) Sinus tachycardia

A

Atrial fibrillation

99
Q

Why can we boldly reduce the preload in heart failure?

a) because reducing preload during heart failure does not lead to arrhythmia
b) Because in heart failure reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output
c) Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear
d) Because the afterlod will offset the reduction of the preload anyway

A

Because the afterload will offset the reduction of the preload anyway

100
Q

Which answer is false?

a) During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile
b) The outer surface of the surgical glove is considered sterile when it is put on
c) the open gloving method is used for minor interventions (e.g. catheterization)
d) when performing the open gloving method, the folded-back inner surface of the glove cuff can be

found with your bare hands

A

During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile

101
Q

Which congenital heart disease has a specific continous “machinery” heart murmur as a symptom

a. pulmonic stenosis
b. ventricular septal defect
c. tetralogy of fallot
d. PDA

A

PDA

102
Q

The most common color code meaning in color Doppler echocardiography:

a. red: bloodflow towards the transducer; blue: bloodflow away from the transducer
b. blue: bloodflow towards the transducer; red: bloodflow away from the transducer
c. blue: venous bloodflow; red: arterial bloodflow
d. blue: decreasing speed bloodflow; red: increasing speed bloodflow

A

a) red bloodflow towards the transducer blue bloodflow away from the transducer

103
Q

What drug should be given for a B1 stage mitral endocardosis canine patient?

a. ACE-I
b. pimobendan
c. furosemide
d. none of the above

A

Furosemide

104
Q

What CANNOT be determined by color Doppler ultrasound?

a. the presence of bloodflow
b. the direction of bloodflow
c. the speed of bloodflow
d. the character of bloodflow (laminal or turbulent)

A

the character of bloodflow ( Laminal or turbulent)

105
Q

ECG is mostly recommended when:

a. a dog brought in for vaccines has a 200 bpm heart rate
b. a dog that suffered an accident has a 200 bpm heart rate
c. a dog brought in with 40,8 C temperature has a 180 bpm heart rate
d. a dog brought in for chip placement has a 160 bpm heart rate

A

When the heart rate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm

106
Q

ECG is mostly recommended when:

a. a cat brought in for vaccines has a 150 bpm heart rate
b. a cat that suffered an accident has a 200 bpm heart rate
c. a cat brought in with 40,2 C temperature has a 190 bpm heart rate
d. a cat brought in for flea treatment has a 120 bpm heart rate

A

d. a cat brought in for flea treatment has a 120 bpm heart rate - (bradycardia!?)

107
Q

Suture materials. Choose the incorrect answer!

a. the size of the suture material is given either in metric unit (e.g. 1 ʹ European

Pharmacopoea) or in USP unit (5-0, United States Pharmacopoea)

b. catgut is a natural resorbable suture material
c. polyglicolic acid, polyglactin and polidioxanone are synthetic and absorbable
d. polyester, polyamide and polypropylene are synthetic and nonabsorbable

A

The size is indicated on the package either in metric units (eg 1; European

Pharmacopoeia) or in USP units (eg 5-0; United States Pharmacopoea) Metric measures

strength, not size

108
Q

How can you differentiate a ventricular extrasystole from a supraventricular one on ECG?

a. ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause
b. a supraventricular extrasystole is always normal width
c. the p wave is always visible before the QRS complex in supraventricular extrasystole
d. the p wave is never visible before the QRS complex supraventricular extrasystole

A

b. a supraventricular extrasystole is always normal width

109
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning congenital diaphragmaic hernias?

A) they take 5 to 10% of diaphragmaic hernias

B) Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms: axial and para—oesophageal

C) The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited

D) The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of septum transversum

A

C) The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited

110
Q

Suture types. Pick the false answer!

a) one or more tissue layers may be used according to the tissue type
b) For wound closure, ‘layer to layer’, inverting and relaxing techniques may be used
c) The pattern may be interrupted or continuous
d) Regardless of the suture type, the knots should be places on the wound line

A

d) Regardless of the suture type, the knots should be places on the wound line

111
Q

Which can be a congenital pericardial disease?

a) PPDH
b) PHDP
c) PHPD
d) PDHP

A

PPDH

112
Q

Electrosurgery. Pick the false answer!

a) in monopolar systems, a large-surface return electrode must be placed on the patient’s body
b) In monopolar systems, if the contact surface between the return electrode and body is small,

burns may occur

c) Forceps-like bipolar systems do not require large-surface return electrode
d) The efficient and patient safety of the monopolar system in better

A

d) The efficient and patient safety of the monopolar system in better

113
Q

Typical for PRAA:

a. abnormal development of ductus Botalli
b. the permeable aspect of ductus Botalli
c. abnormal development of the aortic arch
d. abnormal development of the subclavicular artery

A

c) Abnormal development of the aortic arch

114
Q

Which modality is used to measure linear chamber sizes and display their alteration as a function of

3me in echocardiography?

a) Color Doppler
b) Pulsed wave Doppler
c) B-mode
d) M-mode

A

M-mode

115
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding incisional hernia?

A) it is a iatrogenic complication

B) It might be suppurative

C) It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases

D) It may be cause by surgical technical error

A

It can be prevented by elizabethan collar in all cases

116
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of scrotal hernia?

A) small intestine

B) Large intestine

C) Uterus

D) Urinary bladder

A

Small intestine

117
Q

When can a horizontal dullness occur during thoracic percussion?

a) in pleural effusion
b) During pneumonia
c) In pulmonary neoplastic diseases
d) During cardiac enlargement

A

In pleural effusion

118
Q

Which has the highest microbial number at the beginning surgery?

a) surgical glove
b) Artery clamp
c) The skin of patient
d) Gauze sponges

A

The skin of the patient

119
Q

Which step is incorrect afer ECG examination of an animal with ventricular arrhythmia:

a) blood test, abdominal ultrasound
b) cTroponon-I measurement
c) Administration of digoxin
d) Echocardiography

A

C)

120
Q

Tying surgical knots. Pick the false answer (more than one is possible)

A) in surgery, at least two-half knots with opposite direction are considered to be knot

B) Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for multifilament materials

are needed for secure fastening

C) two-handed, one-handed and instrumental knoting may be performed

D) Instrumental knoting is safer for ligating large vessels and bundle of tissues

A

(A + B)

SAM 4 Final Past questions (11 decks)

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