PQ 5 Flashcards
Which is not a type of periosteal reaction?
a. Lamellar
b. Columnar
c. Sunburst-like
d. Medullar
Medullar
Which location is not typical of OCD in dogs?
a. Tarsus
b. Carpus
c. Shoulder
d. Stifle
Carpus
Which instrument is not a member of the abdominal instrumentation set?
a. Balfour self retraining retractor
b. Doyen clamp
c. Finochietto self retaining retractor
d. Atraumatic tissue forceps
Fianchietto self-retaining retractor
Which of the following instruments is a member of the thoracic instrumentation set?
Fianchietto self-retaining retractor
Which of the following instruments is not a member of the thoracic instrumentation
set?
Finochietto retractor
atraumatic instruments
staplers
De Bakey / Satinsky vascular clamp
De bakey/satinsky vascular clamp
Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesiologic considerations of
hypothyroidism?
a. Due to thermoregulatory imbalance hyperthermia occurs
b. The overall metabolic rate is decreased, drug metabolism is slower, therefore
the “vulnerability” of the patient to anesthesia is lower
c. Myocardial contractibility is decreased, tachycardia is present
d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm
Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm
Which local anaesthetic technique is the safest from the patient’s aspect?
a. Infiltrational
b. Epidural
c. Intrathecal
d. Paravertebral
Infiltrational
Which colour is typical for compensatory stage of shock?
a. Pale
b. Cyanotic
c. Dirty red
d. Bright red
Bright red
Which procedure is a definite indication for preoperative administration of an
antibiotic?
a. Splenectomy
b. Small intestine biopsy
c. Ovariectomy
d. Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament replacement material
Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating filament replacement material
Which of the following factors doesn’t affect the success of feline perineal
urethrostomy?
a. Mucocutaneous approximation of the stroma
b. Transection of bulbospongious muscle
c. Transection of ischiocavernous muscle
d. Type of the suture material
Transection of ischiocavernous muscle
Which of the following tools/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of
urinary bladder tumours?
a. Double contrast cystography
b. Ultrasonography
c. Urine sediment analysis/cytology
d. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria
Therapy-irresponsive haematuria
. Which of the following clinical findings is not a member of the diagnostic triad
defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?
a. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
b. Status of the thoracic wall
c. Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
d. ARD
Status of the thoracic wall
Which is the appropriate diagnostic/therapeutic protocol in GDV?
A) Stabilization orogastric tubation and gastric lavage gastrocentesis adequate narcosis surgery
B) stabilization and gasstrocentesis adequate narcosis orogastric tubation and gastric lavage surgery
C)stabilization gastric lavage gastrocentesis surgery
D) stabilizatzion gastrocentesis adequate narcosis surgery orogastric tubation and gastric lavage
A) Stabilisation orogastric tubation - Gastric lavage gastrocentesis – Adequate narcosis Surgery
According to Shamir et al, which of the following features is incorrect concerning the
typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?
a. Male
b. Bite wound
c. Bodyweight is less than 10kg
d. Bodyweight is less than 20kg
Body weight <10kg
What is the sequester?
a. Connective tissue surrounded cavity filled with pus
b. Natural body cavity filled with pus
c. Necrotized, demarcated area in the bone
d. Vital, demarcated area in the bone
Necrotised, demarcated area in the bone
Which is necessary for bone healing?
a. Antibiotic treatment
b. NSAID treatment
c. Good bloody supply
d. Fluid therapy
Good blood supply
Which method is chosen as first case of foreign body-caused caudal thoracic
(prediaphragmatic) oesophageal obstruction
a. Pushing down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation
b. Endoscopic removal
c. Laparotomy + gastrotomy + transluminal foreign body removal
d. Thoracotomy + esophagotomy
Endoscopic removal
Which statement is correct? In case of renal traumatic bleeding.
a. The abdominocentesis is always positive (blood)
b. The plain abdominal radiography is usually pathognomonic
c. Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination
d. Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually does not lead to life threatening circulatory changes
retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually
does not lead to life-threatening circulatory changes
Which statement is correct regarding extracapsular fixation method in cranial cruciate
ligament repair?
a. The suture material is non-absorbable
b. The fixation of Vesalius bones is essential
c. Precise tibial osteotomy is done
d. The suture material is placed outside the joint
The suture material is non-absorbable
Which statement is incorrect regarding linear foreign body-caused small intestinal
obstruction?
a. It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy
b. It usually requires multiple GI incisors
c. Iatrogenic perforation might be caused
d. Multiple GI incisions do not increase septic risk compared to single GI opening
It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy
Which is typical of cauda equine compression?
Hansen type-II disc protrusion
Which of the following causes is not primary in the aetiology of external otitis in
dogs?
a. Bacteria
b. Paracite
c. Grass awn
d. Atopia
Bacteria
Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of
scrotal hernia
a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Uterus
d. Urinary bladder
Small intestine
Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate in feline
otitis media?
Ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO)
Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most reliable one to assess bone
involvement of oral tumours?
a. Radiography
b. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
c. Computed tomography
d. Ultrasonography
Radiography
Which of the following decisions is correct in the case of fundus necrosis during
GDV surgery?
a. Billroth 1 gastroduodenostomy
b. Partial gastrectomy
c. Euthanasia
d. Resorption and gastroplexy
Partial gastrectomy
Which is the most effective and appropriate procedure in canine otitis externa & media?
TECA + LBO
Which is correct regarding intervertebral disc disease?
It is generally acute in chondrodystrophic dogs (short legs, long back)
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding incisional hernia?
a. It is an atrogenic complication
b. It might be suppurative
c. It can be prevented by Elisabethan collar in all cases
d. It may be caused by surgical technical error
It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases
Which conditions indicate liver lobectomy?
a. Liver abscess
b. Superficial liver rupture
c. Cholelithiasis
d. Diffuse hepatomegaly
Liver abscess
Synovial fluid is determined as septic if…
The WBC count is >40g/L; With mostly neutrophils
Which statements are correct?
a. Mepivicain is less irritant than lidocaine
b. Bupivacain har longer duration than mepivacaine
c. Bupivacain has approx. 4 hours of duration
d. All of them are correct
Mepivicaine is less irritating than lidocaine; Bupivicaine has a longer duration than
mepivacaine; Bupivicaine has approximately 4 hours of duration
All are correct
Which statement is correct regarding patellar luxation in dogs
a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line
b. It is always lateral in large breeds
c. It is always traumatic
d. It is mostly caudal
Regarding patellar luxation in dogs, the anatomical & functional axis of the leg is not in
the same line
Which layers need to be closed first during a midline laparotomy?
a. Rectus sheet
b. Falciform ligament
c. Peritoneum
d. Peritoneum + rectus abdominis muscle
External rectus sheet (the internal rectus sheet & peritoneum are not to be sutured as
this leads to adhesion formation)
Which statement is correct concerning syringe pumps
a. Syringe pumps are less accurate than infusion pumps regarding continuous
drug dosage
b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h)
are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of
the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h)
c. Conventional infusion lines are suitable for as accurate dosing of drugs as
syringe pumps, by counting drop numbers
d. In case of a power-cut, even modern syringe pumps stops, just like anesthesia
machines
Parameters required for adequate calculation of infusion rate (ml/hr) are body weight,
drug conc. and the dose of the drug to be administered
Which statement is correct regarding recovery from anesthesia
a. Extubation is done prior to the return of swallowing and coughing reflexes
b. If aspiration is not a concern, the cuff of the endotracheal tube is better left
inflated on extubation
c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued
or antagonists are administered
d. The close observation of the patient is no longer necessary after extubation
Recovery from anaesthesia takes place when the administration of the anaesthetics are
discontinued or antagonists are administered
Which statement is correct regarding acepromazine used in small animals
a. Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia
invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine
b. High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action
c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good
general condition
d. It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive
ACP is recommended for young, anxious or aggressive patients of a good general
condition
Optional drug for preoperative analgesia are?
a. Phenotiazines and butyrophenone-derivates
b. Alpha2-antagonist and NMDA-agonist
c. Local anesthetics and muscle relaxants
d. Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist
alpha 2 agonists (medetomidine) & NMDA-antagonists (ketamine/gabapentin)
Which activity is done first in case of pneumothorax?
a. Thoracocentesis
b. Percutaneous chest drainage
c. Oxygenisation
d. Thoracotomy/sternotomy/lobectomy
Thoracocentesis
Which procedure can be used to demonstrate urethral rupture?
a. Double contrast cystography
b. Intravenous urography
c. Excretory urethrography
d. Retrograde urethrography
Retrograde urethrography
Increasing sequence of capacity of vein catheter
a. Yellow, blue, pink, green
b. Blue, pink, grey, yellow
c. Yellow, pink, blue grey
d. Green, pink, blue, yellow
Yellow, blue, pink green
Stadium analgesia
a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness
b. Pupils are dilated to the maximum, and the cornea has lost its turgor
c. Coughing reflex is still present, but endotracheal intubation is possible
d. Gradually decreasing level of immobilisation
Transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness
Barium sulphate can be used for which procedure?
a. Myelography
b. Gastric emptying study
c. Retrograde cystography
d. Arthrography
Gastric emptying study
Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesia of patients with renal dysfunction?
a. The prevention of intraoperative hypertonia is the primary goal
b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function
c. Ketamine is contraindicated in dogs with kidney dysfunction
d. Fentanyl and NSAID´s are recommended for intraoperative analgesia (not)
alpha 2 agonists decrease renal function
GGE (guaipgenesine)
a. It has good analgesic effect
b. It is available for induction alone
c. It doesn’t cause ataxia
d. It is a muscle relaxant
Muscle relaxant
General infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs & cats?
a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h
b. 10ml/kg/h e.g. 1700-2000 drops/10kg/h
c. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/10kg/h
d. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/kg/min
1ml/kg/hr e.g 17-20 drops/kg/hr
During nephrotomy?
a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein
b. Renal vein is to to be occluded so that the arterial supply remains intact
c. Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact
d. The ureter is also occluded
The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery & vein
Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obturation in the male dog?
a. Urethrohydropropulsio
b. Prescrotal urethrostomy
c. Scrotal urethrostomy
d. Perineal urethrostomy
Urethrohydropropulsion
Which ligament repair is required in case of patellar luxation?
a. Cranial cruciate ligament
b. Patellar straight ligament
c. Both of them
d. None of them
Patellar straight ligament
Which statement is correct?
a. Compressive spinal injury needs emergency treatment
b. Spinal cord injury has no effect for visceral functions
c. The treatment of patients with spinal cord injury is hopeless
d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal
injury
Corticosteroid & NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal injury
Which diagnostic step/sign is pathognomic in case of cranial cruciate ligament
rupture?
a. Radiology
b. Cranial drawer test
c. Gait analysis
d. Historical date
Cranial drawer test
Which examination is not enough alone for diagnosing cauda equine myelography?
a. MRI
b. Plain X-ray
c. CT
d. CT myelography
CT myelography
Which statement is false?
a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain
b. Haematoma can be the consequence of a contusion
c. The urinary bladder injury can cause bloody urine
d. In case of severe pneumothorax, emergency thoracocentesis is necessary
The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain
Which of the following breeds is congenital cleft palate common?
a. French bulldog
b. German shepherd
c. Yorkshire terrier
d. Hungarian vizsla
French bulldog
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma
(HSA)?
a. Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as palliative procedure
b. Chemotherapy does not definitely improve the outcome
c. The ruptured status of the tumor at surgery is not a negative prognostic
factor
d. Splenic HSA does not metastatise into the heart
The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor
Which of the following is least effective in German Shepherd’s perineal fistulation?
a. Fistulectomy
b. Cyclosporine
c. Prednisolone
d. Conservative management
Conservative management
Which oral region is mostly affected by oral tumours?
a. Soft palate
b. Hard palate
c. Gingiva
d. Tongue
Gingiva
Which statement is correct concerning pulse oximetry?
a. The status of the peripheral circulation has no effect on pulse oxymetry
values
b. Low environmental temperature has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
c. Bilirubinaemia has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
Hypertension has no effect on pulse-oximetry values (but hypotension does)
Reversible drugs and their antagonists
Diazepam & flumazenil; Fentanyl & Naloxone; Medetomidine & atipamezole
Which statement is correct concerning preanaesthetic assessment?
a. Sedation is always recommended, regardless of the general condition of the
patient, in order to reduce further anesthetic doses
b. Following the physical examination of the respiratory, circulatory, renal and
hepatic function, complementary diagnostic measures are taken
c. Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea,
Urea, ALT and AST
d. The enhanced preanesthetic blood test protocol includes complete
hematology panel, coagulation tests, blood gas analysis, electrolyte balance,
blood glucose and urinalysis
C) Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Creatinine,
Urea, ALT & AST
Which of the following sterilisation methods operate at the highest temperature?
a. Autoclave (steam)
b. Gamma-beam radiation
c. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
d. Isopropyl-alcoholic sterolisation
Autoclave (steam)
Which of the following can happen if alpha 2 agonists are injected intraarterially?
a. Collapse
b. Oxytocin-like effect
c. Awakening
d. Ileus
Collapse
Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the geriatric patients?
a. Lung capacity and compliance as well as respiratory rate and volume are
increased
b. The reserve capacity of the cardiopulmonary system in unchanged
c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased
d. GFR and renal urine concentrating capacity are increased
Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased
Which statement is correct?
a. The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds
b. The movement of the edges of the incised wound can help the healing
c. Both
d. None
The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds
Which belong to signs of arthrosis on the radiograph?
a. Perichondral osteophyte formation
b. Irregular subchondral bone
c. Widened joint space
d. Cortical osteolysis
Perichondral osteophyte formation; Irregular subchondral bone; Cortical osteolysis
The columnar periosteal reaction is typical of which disorder?
a. Hypertrophic osteopathy
b. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
c. Nonunion
d. Osteochondrosis dissecans
Hypertrophic osteopathy
Which of the following breeds is mostly predisposed to wobbler syndrome?
a. Dobermann
b. German shepherd
c. Dachshound
d. Labrador retriever
Doberman; Great Dane
Which isn’t a postural reaction?
a. Hopping
b. Placing
c. Wheelbarrowing
d. Panniculus reflex
Panniculus reflex
Which statement is incorrect regarding perianal adenoma?
a. It is uncommon in females
b. It mostly occurs in males
c. It mainly originates from circumanal glands
d. It originates from the anal sac in females
It originates from the anal sac in females; It mostly occurs in males
What is the major difference between midline & incisional gastropexy?
a. Midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst incisional operates with penetrating sutures
b. The technique fix different areas of the stomach
c. In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa
is done, unlike midline gastropexy
d. Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy
The technique fixes different areas of the stomach
Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureter?
a. It may cause dysuria
b. In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring
c. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition
episodes
d. The urinary incontinence is always constant
The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes
Which tissue is least sensitive to ionizing radiation?
a. Adrenal gland
b. Skin
c. Brain
d. Bone marrow
Brain
Which solution has the most alkalising effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis?
a. NaCl solution
b. NaHCO3 solution
c. Lactated Ringer´s
d. Acetated Ringer´s
NaHCO3 solution
Which statement is correct concerning capnometry?
a. The end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) equals to the arterial partial CO2 pressure (PaCO2)
b. PaCO2 is less than EtCO2
c. The physical principle of measurement is HPLC (measurement of absorption)
d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture
It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled & exhaled gas mixture
Which statements are correct?
a. Vulnus ruptum is an incised wound
b. The vulnus ruptum is usually a lobed wound
c. Both
d. None
none
Which of the following doesn’t contraindicate the use of NSAIDs?
a. Shock
b. Prolonged mucous membrane bleeding time
c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system
d. Active gastro-intestinal ulceration
Immaturity of the skeletal system
Which statement is correct in dental nomenclature?
a. Medial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch
b. Medial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch
c. Distal surface faces to the apex
d. Distal surface faces to the crown
Medial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch
Which statement is correct?
The formation of bullae are typical of II-degree burns
Which of the following suture patterns is tension-relieving?
Interrupted horizontal mattress
Which disorder resembles the malignant bone tumours in a dog?
a. Osteochondrosis dissecans
b. Osteomyelitis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Osteomalacia
Osteomyelitis
Which is not correct regarding balance anaesthesia?
a. recovery is better than at the inhalational anesthesia
b. mortality rate is reduced than at inhalational anesthesia
c. MAC is lower than at inhalational anesthesia
d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery
Drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery
Which structure can be seen in a radiograph of a healthy dog?
a. joint cartilage
b. subchondral bone
c. periosteum
d. adrenal gland
Subchondral bone
The recommended fluid to lavage a joint is
a. Sterile, isotonic infusion solution
b. Sterile, hypertonic infusion solution
c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution
d. Sterile, hypertonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution
c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution
