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SAM 4 Final Past questions > PQ 5 > Flashcards

PQ 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Which is not a type of periosteal reaction?

a. Lamellar
b. Columnar
c. Sunburst-like
d. Medullar

A

Medullar

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2
Q

Which location is not typical of OCD in dogs?

a. Tarsus
b. Carpus
c. Shoulder
d. Stifle

A

Carpus

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3
Q

Which instrument is not a member of the abdominal instrumentation set?

a. Balfour self retraining retractor
b. Doyen clamp
c. Finochietto self retaining retractor
d. Atraumatic tissue forceps

A

Fianchietto self-retaining retractor

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4
Q

Which of the following instruments is a member of the thoracic instrumentation set?

A

Fianchietto self-retaining retractor

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5
Q

Which of the following instruments is not a member of the thoracic instrumentation

set?

Finochietto retractor

atraumatic instruments

staplers

De Bakey / Satinsky vascular clamp

A

De bakey/satinsky vascular clamp

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6
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesiologic considerations of

hypothyroidism?

a. Due to thermoregulatory imbalance hyperthermia occurs
b. The overall metabolic rate is decreased, drug metabolism is slower, therefore

the “vulnerability” of the patient to anesthesia is lower

c. Myocardial contractibility is decreased, tachycardia is present
d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

A

Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

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7
Q

Which local anaesthetic technique is the safest from the patient’s aspect?

a. Infiltrational
b. Epidural
c. Intrathecal
d. Paravertebral

A

Infiltrational

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8
Q

Which colour is typical for compensatory stage of shock?

a. Pale
b. Cyanotic
c. Dirty red
d. Bright red

A

Bright red

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9
Q

Which procedure is a definite indication for preoperative administration of an

antibiotic?

a. Splenectomy
b. Small intestine biopsy
c. Ovariectomy
d. Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament replacement material

A

Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating filament replacement material

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10
Q

Which of the following factors doesn’t affect the success of feline perineal

urethrostomy?

a. Mucocutaneous approximation of the stroma
b. Transection of bulbospongious muscle
c. Transection of ischiocavernous muscle
d. Type of the suture material

A

Transection of ischiocavernous muscle

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11
Q

Which of the following tools/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of

urinary bladder tumours?

a. Double contrast cystography
b. Ultrasonography
c. Urine sediment analysis/cytology
d. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

A

Therapy-irresponsive haematuria

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12
Q

. Which of the following clinical findings is not a member of the diagnostic triad

defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?

a. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
b. Status of the thoracic wall
c. Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
d. ARD

A

Status of the thoracic wall

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13
Q

Which is the appropriate diagnostic/therapeutic protocol in GDV?

A) Stabilization orogastric tubation and gastric lavage gastrocentesis adequate narcosis surgery

B) stabilization and gasstrocentesis adequate narcosis orogastric tubation and gastric lavage surgery

C)stabilization gastric lavage gastrocentesis surgery

D) stabilizatzion gastrocentesis adequate narcosis surgery orogastric tubation and gastric lavage

A

A) Stabilisation orogastric tubation - Gastric lavage gastrocentesis – Adequate narcosis Surgery

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14
Q

According to Shamir et al, which of the following features is incorrect concerning the

typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?

a. Male
b. Bite wound
c. Bodyweight is less than 10kg
d. Bodyweight is less than 20kg

A

Body weight <10kg

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15
Q

What is the sequester?

a. Connective tissue surrounded cavity filled with pus
b. Natural body cavity filled with pus
c. Necrotized, demarcated area in the bone
d. Vital, demarcated area in the bone

A

Necrotised, demarcated area in the bone

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16
Q

Which is necessary for bone healing?

a. Antibiotic treatment
b. NSAID treatment
c. Good bloody supply
d. Fluid therapy

A

Good blood supply

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17
Q

Which method is chosen as first case of foreign body-caused caudal thoracic

(prediaphragmatic) oesophageal obstruction
a. Pushing down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation
b. Endoscopic removal
c. Laparotomy + gastrotomy + transluminal foreign body removal
d. Thoracotomy + esophagotomy

A

Endoscopic removal

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18
Q

Which statement is correct? In case of renal traumatic bleeding.

a. The abdominocentesis is always positive (blood)
b. The plain abdominal radiography is usually pathognomonic
c. Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination
d. Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually does not lead to life threatening circulatory changes

A

retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually

does not lead to life-threatening circulatory changes

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19
Q

Which statement is correct regarding extracapsular fixation method in cranial cruciate

ligament repair?

a. The suture material is non-absorbable
b. The fixation of Vesalius bones is essential
c. Precise tibial osteotomy is done
d. The suture material is placed outside the joint

A

The suture material is non-absorbable

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20
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding linear foreign body-caused small intestinal

obstruction?

a. It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy
b. It usually requires multiple GI incisors
c. Iatrogenic perforation might be caused
d. Multiple GI incisions do not increase septic risk compared to single GI opening

A

It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy

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21
Q

Which is typical of cauda equine compression?

A

Hansen type-II disc protrusion

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22
Q

Which of the following causes is not primary in the aetiology of external otitis in

dogs?

a. Bacteria
b. Paracite
c. Grass awn
d. Atopia

A

Bacteria

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23
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of

scrotal hernia

a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Uterus
d. Urinary bladder

A

Small intestine

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24
Q

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate in feline

otitis media?

A

Ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO)

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25
Q

Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most reliable one to assess bone

involvement of oral tumours?

a. Radiography
b. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
c. Computed tomography
d. Ultrasonography

A

Radiography

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26
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in the case of fundus necrosis during

GDV surgery?

a. Billroth 1 gastroduodenostomy
b. Partial gastrectomy
c. Euthanasia
d. Resorption and gastroplexy

A

Partial gastrectomy

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27
Q

Which is the most effective and appropriate procedure in canine otitis externa & media?

A

TECA + LBO

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28
Q

Which is correct regarding intervertebral disc disease?

A

It is generally acute in chondrodystrophic dogs (short legs, long back)

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29
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding incisional hernia?

a. It is an atrogenic complication
b. It might be suppurative
c. It can be prevented by Elisabethan collar in all cases
d. It may be caused by surgical technical error

A

It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases

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30
Q

Which conditions indicate liver lobectomy?

a. Liver abscess
b. Superficial liver rupture
c. Cholelithiasis
d. Diffuse hepatomegaly

A

Liver abscess

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31
Q

Synovial fluid is determined as septic if…

A

The WBC count is >40g/L; With mostly neutrophils

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32
Q

Which statements are correct?

a. Mepivicain is less irritant than lidocaine
b. Bupivacain har longer duration than mepivacaine
c. Bupivacain has approx. 4 hours of duration
d. All of them are correct

A

Mepivicaine is less irritating than lidocaine; Bupivicaine has a longer duration than

mepivacaine; Bupivicaine has approximately 4 hours of duration

All are correct

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33
Q

Which statement is correct regarding patellar luxation in dogs

a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line
b. It is always lateral in large breeds
c. It is always traumatic
d. It is mostly caudal

A

Regarding patellar luxation in dogs, the anatomical & functional axis of the leg is not in

the same line

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34
Q

Which layers need to be closed first during a midline laparotomy?

a. Rectus sheet
b. Falciform ligament
c. Peritoneum
d. Peritoneum + rectus abdominis muscle

A

External rectus sheet (the internal rectus sheet & peritoneum are not to be sutured as

this leads to adhesion formation)

35
Q

Which statement is correct concerning syringe pumps

a. Syringe pumps are less accurate than infusion pumps regarding continuous

drug dosage

b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h)

are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of

the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h)

c. Conventional infusion lines are suitable for as accurate dosing of drugs as

syringe pumps, by counting drop numbers

d. In case of a power-cut, even modern syringe pumps stops, just like anesthesia

machines

A

Parameters required for adequate calculation of infusion rate (ml/hr) are body weight,

drug conc. and the dose of the drug to be administered

36
Q

Which statement is correct regarding recovery from anesthesia

a. Extubation is done prior to the return of swallowing and coughing reflexes
b. If aspiration is not a concern, the cuff of the endotracheal tube is better left

inflated on extubation

c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued

or antagonists are administered

d. The close observation of the patient is no longer necessary after extubation

A

Recovery from anaesthesia takes place when the administration of the anaesthetics are

discontinued or antagonists are administered

37
Q

Which statement is correct regarding acepromazine used in small animals

a. Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia

invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine

b. High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action
c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good

general condition

d. It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive

A

ACP is recommended for young, anxious or aggressive patients of a good general

condition

38
Q

Optional drug for preoperative analgesia are?

a. Phenotiazines and butyrophenone-derivates
b. Alpha2-antagonist and NMDA-agonist
c. Local anesthetics and muscle relaxants
d. Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist

A

alpha 2 agonists (medetomidine) & NMDA-antagonists (ketamine/gabapentin)

39
Q

Which activity is done first in case of pneumothorax?

a. Thoracocentesis
b. Percutaneous chest drainage
c. Oxygenisation
d. Thoracotomy/sternotomy/lobectomy

A

Thoracocentesis

40
Q

Which procedure can be used to demonstrate urethral rupture?

a. Double contrast cystography
b. Intravenous urography
c. Excretory urethrography
d. Retrograde urethrography

A

Retrograde urethrography

41
Q

Increasing sequence of capacity of vein catheter

a. Yellow, blue, pink, green
b. Blue, pink, grey, yellow
c. Yellow, pink, blue grey
d. Green, pink, blue, yellow

A

Yellow, blue, pink green

42
Q

Stadium analgesia

a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness
b. Pupils are dilated to the maximum, and the cornea has lost its turgor
c. Coughing reflex is still present, but endotracheal intubation is possible
d. Gradually decreasing level of immobilisation

A

Transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness

43
Q

Barium sulphate can be used for which procedure?

a. Myelography
b. Gastric emptying study
c. Retrograde cystography
d. Arthrography

A

Gastric emptying study

44
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesia of patients with renal dysfunction?

a. The prevention of intraoperative hypertonia is the primary goal
b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function
c. Ketamine is contraindicated in dogs with kidney dysfunction
d. Fentanyl and NSAID´s are recommended for intraoperative analgesia (not)

A

alpha 2 agonists decrease renal function

45
Q

GGE (guaipgenesine)

a. It has good analgesic effect
b. It is available for induction alone
c. It doesn’t cause ataxia
d. It is a muscle relaxant

A

Muscle relaxant

46
Q

General infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs & cats?

a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h
b. 10ml/kg/h e.g. 1700-2000 drops/10kg/h
c. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/10kg/h
d. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/kg/min

A

1ml/kg/hr e.g 17-20 drops/kg/hr

47
Q

During nephrotomy?

a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein
b. Renal vein is to to be occluded so that the arterial supply remains intact
c. Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact
d. The ureter is also occluded

A

The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery & vein

48
Q

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obturation in the male dog?

a. Urethrohydropropulsio
b. Prescrotal urethrostomy
c. Scrotal urethrostomy
d. Perineal urethrostomy

A

Urethrohydropropulsion

49
Q

Which ligament repair is required in case of patellar luxation?

a. Cranial cruciate ligament
b. Patellar straight ligament
c. Both of them
d. None of them

A

Patellar straight ligament

50
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Compressive spinal injury needs emergency treatment
b. Spinal cord injury has no effect for visceral functions
c. The treatment of patients with spinal cord injury is hopeless
d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal

injury

A

Corticosteroid & NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal injury

51
Q

Which diagnostic step/sign is pathognomic in case of cranial cruciate ligament

rupture?

a. Radiology
b. Cranial drawer test
c. Gait analysis
d. Historical date

A

Cranial drawer test

52
Q

Which examination is not enough alone for diagnosing cauda equine myelography?

a. MRI
b. Plain X-ray
c. CT
d. CT myelography

A

CT myelography

53
Q

Which statement is false?

a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain
b. Haematoma can be the consequence of a contusion
c. The urinary bladder injury can cause bloody urine
d. In case of severe pneumothorax, emergency thoracocentesis is necessary

A

The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain

54
Q

Which of the following breeds is congenital cleft palate common?

a. French bulldog
b. German shepherd
c. Yorkshire terrier
d. Hungarian vizsla

A

French bulldog

55
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma

(HSA)?

a. Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as palliative procedure
b. Chemotherapy does not definitely improve the outcome
c. The ruptured status of the tumor at surgery is not a negative prognostic

factor

d. Splenic HSA does not metastatise into the heart

A

The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor

56
Q

Which of the following is least effective in German Shepherd’s perineal fistulation?

a. Fistulectomy
b. Cyclosporine
c. Prednisolone
d. Conservative management

A

Conservative management

57
Q

Which oral region is mostly affected by oral tumours?

a. Soft palate
b. Hard palate
c. Gingiva
d. Tongue

A

Gingiva

58
Q

Which statement is correct concerning pulse oximetry?

a. The status of the peripheral circulation has no effect on pulse oxymetry

values

b. Low environmental temperature has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
c. Bilirubinaemia has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values

A

Hypertension has no effect on pulse-oximetry values (but hypotension does)

59
Q

Reversible drugs and their antagonists

A

Diazepam & flumazenil; Fentanyl & Naloxone; Medetomidine & atipamezole

60
Q

Which statement is correct concerning preanaesthetic assessment?

a. Sedation is always recommended, regardless of the general condition of the

patient, in order to reduce further anesthetic doses

b. Following the physical examination of the respiratory, circulatory, renal and

hepatic function, complementary diagnostic measures are taken

c. Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea,

Urea, ALT and AST

d. The enhanced preanesthetic blood test protocol includes complete

hematology panel, coagulation tests, blood gas analysis, electrolyte balance,

blood glucose and urinalysis

A

C) Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Creatinine,

Urea, ALT & AST

61
Q

Which of the following sterilisation methods operate at the highest temperature?

a. Autoclave (steam)
b. Gamma-beam radiation
c. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
d. Isopropyl-alcoholic sterolisation

A

Autoclave (steam)

62
Q

Which of the following can happen if alpha 2 agonists are injected intraarterially?

a. Collapse
b. Oxytocin-like effect
c. Awakening
d. Ileus

A

Collapse

63
Q

Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the geriatric patients?

a. Lung capacity and compliance as well as respiratory rate and volume are

increased

b. The reserve capacity of the cardiopulmonary system in unchanged
c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased
d. GFR and renal urine concentrating capacity are increased

A

Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased

64
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds
b. The movement of the edges of the incised wound can help the healing
c. Both
d. None

A

The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds

65
Q

Which belong to signs of arthrosis on the radiograph?

a. Perichondral osteophyte formation
b. Irregular subchondral bone
c. Widened joint space
d. Cortical osteolysis

A

Perichondral osteophyte formation; Irregular subchondral bone; Cortical osteolysis

66
Q

The columnar periosteal reaction is typical of which disorder?

a. Hypertrophic osteopathy
b. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
c. Nonunion
d. Osteochondrosis dissecans

A

Hypertrophic osteopathy

67
Q

Which of the following breeds is mostly predisposed to wobbler syndrome?

a. Dobermann
b. German shepherd
c. Dachshound
d. Labrador retriever

A

Doberman; Great Dane

68
Q

Which isn’t a postural reaction?

a. Hopping
b. Placing
c. Wheelbarrowing
d. Panniculus reflex

A

Panniculus reflex

69
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding perianal adenoma?

a. It is uncommon in females
b. It mostly occurs in males
c. It mainly originates from circumanal glands
d. It originates from the anal sac in females

A

It originates from the anal sac in females; It mostly occurs in males

70
Q

What is the major difference between midline & incisional gastropexy?

a. Midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst incisional operates with penetrating sutures
b. The technique fix different areas of the stomach
c. In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa

is done, unlike midline gastropexy

d. Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy

A

The technique fixes different areas of the stomach

71
Q

Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureter?

a. It may cause dysuria
b. In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring
c. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition

episodes

d. The urinary incontinence is always constant

A

The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

72
Q

Which tissue is least sensitive to ionizing radiation?

a. Adrenal gland
b. Skin
c. Brain
d. Bone marrow

A

Brain

73
Q

Which solution has the most alkalising effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis?

a. NaCl solution
b. NaHCO3 solution
c. Lactated Ringer´s
d. Acetated Ringer´s

A

NaHCO3 solution

74
Q

Which statement is correct concerning capnometry?

a. The end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) equals to the arterial partial CO2 pressure (PaCO2)
b. PaCO2 is less than EtCO2
c. The physical principle of measurement is HPLC (measurement of absorption)
d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture

A

It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled & exhaled gas mixture

75
Q

Which statements are correct?

a. Vulnus ruptum is an incised wound
b. The vulnus ruptum is usually a lobed wound
c. Both
d. None

A

none

76
Q

Which of the following doesn’t contraindicate the use of NSAIDs?

a. Shock
b. Prolonged mucous membrane bleeding time
c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system
d. Active gastro-intestinal ulceration

A

Immaturity of the skeletal system

77
Q

Which statement is correct in dental nomenclature?

a. Medial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch
b. Medial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch
c. Distal surface faces to the apex
d. Distal surface faces to the crown

A

Medial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch

78
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

The formation of bullae are typical of II-degree burns

79
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is tension-relieving?

A

Interrupted horizontal mattress

80
Q

Which disorder resembles the malignant bone tumours in a dog?

a. Osteochondrosis dissecans
b. Osteomyelitis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Osteomalacia

A

Osteomyelitis

81
Q

Which is not correct regarding balance anaesthesia?

a. recovery is better than at the inhalational anesthesia
b. mortality rate is reduced than at inhalational anesthesia
c. MAC is lower than at inhalational anesthesia
d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

A

Drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

82
Q

Which structure can be seen in a radiograph of a healthy dog?

a. joint cartilage
b. subchondral bone
c. periosteum
d. adrenal gland

A

Subchondral bone

83
Q

The recommended fluid to lavage a joint is

a. Sterile, isotonic infusion solution
b. Sterile, hypertonic infusion solution
c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution
d. Sterile, hypertonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution

A

c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution

SAM 4 Final Past questions (11 decks)

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