PQ 3 Flashcards by Cian Ryan

Atropine is used for treatment? pick the false answer?

Bradycardia caused by opioids;

Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha 2-agonists (high BP);

AV-blocks & SA-blocks

Increased gland secretion and bronchospasm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

ACP effects. Pick the false answer?

Calming;

Vasodilator;

Analgesic

Depression of thermoregulation;

analgesic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Diazepam & Midazolam. Pick the false answer?

For old animals with poor general circulation;

Can be antagonized by atipamezole

Decreases anxiety; Relaxes muscles;

High dose can caused respiratory depression

Can be antagonized by apitamezole

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

alpha 2-agonists. pick the false answer?

Alphaxalone and alphadolone
Detomidine;
Medetomidine and Dexmedetomidine;
Xylazine

alphaxalone and alphadolone

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Medetomidine & xylazine. Pick the false answer?

A) Using a general dose - phases of sedation, induction & maintenance cannot be separated;

B) Not recommended for old, cardiac & diabetic patients;

C) Cause circulatory & respiratory depression

D) Can be antagonized by flumazenil

Can be antagonized by flumazenil

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Opioid drugs. Pick the false answer?

A) Morphine and fentanyl

B) Buprenorphine

C) Tramadol and thiopental

D)Naloxone

tramadol and thiopental

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

. Opioid receptors

μ (Mu);

K (Kappa);

O (Omicron)

δ (Delta)

O omicron

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Fentanyl. Pick the false answer?

Full agonist opioid drug;

15–30-minute duration of effect;

May be redosed

Do not combine with propofol

do not combine with propofol

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Morphine? Pick the false answer?

Full agonist opioid drug;

4-6 hours duration of effect;

Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients;

May be redosed

may be redosed

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Full opioid agonists?

Morphine

Buprenorphine

Butorphanol

Tramadol

Morphine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Short duration of action

A) Morphine

B) Buprenorphine

C) fentanyl

D) Fentanyl patch

Fentanyl

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Partial μ-agonist?

A) Morphine

B) Buprenorphine

C) Butorphanol

D) Fentanyl

Buprenorphine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Partial μ-antagonist & k-agonist

A) morphine

B) Buprenorphine

C) Butorphanol

D) fentanyl

Butorphanol

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Weak μ-agonist?

A) Morphine

B) Buprenorphine

C) Butorphanol

D) Tramadol

Tramadol

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Propofol. Pick the false answer?

Can be used in almost all patient groups;

Hypnotic, Muscle relaxant and analgesic

Short duration of action; Can be redosed;

High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression

Hypnotic, Muscle relaxant and analgesic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Application of propofol. Pick the false answer?

Slowly;

IV;

Only in combination with muscle relaxants

To effect

Only in combination with muscle relaxants

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Ketamine?Pick the false answer?

Moderate analgesic effect;

Benzodiazepines may help avoid catalepsy (muscle rigidity);

Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients

Eyes remain open, therefore the cornea may desiccate

Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Safe inhalant anaesthetics? Pick the false answer?

Isoflurane;

Sevoflurane;

Desflurane

Ether

ether

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Inhalant anaesthetics. Pick the false answer?

1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases;

2 MAC causes muscle relation in 100% of cases;

Short induction and recovery;

Hypnotic; Muscle relaxant; strong analgesic effect

Hypnotic; Muscle relaxant; strong analgesic

effect

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Local anaesthetic. Pick the false answer?

Blocks nerve cells;

surgery in small animals is safe using only local anaesthetics

Local anaesthetic Types - Terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural & spinal;

Possible side effects – Cardiovascular & CNS signs, cell toxicity

Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anaesthetics

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pancuronium; Atracurium; Vecuronium; Rocuronium. Pick the false answer?

Central muscle relaxants;

Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants

Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants;

Local anaesthetics

Peripheral non-depolarising muscle relaxants

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pain. Pick the false answer?

Complex, multidimensional negative experience;

There is No linear correlation between degree

of pathological changes and intensity of pain;

Simultaneous nociceptive effects add up;

Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pathological pain. Pick the false answer?

A. Hyperalgesia: mild noxious stimuli result in intense pain sensation
B. Allodynia: tactile (non-painful) stimuli result in pain sensation
C. Pain impulse may be inhibited by pain-killers
D. Never combine pain-killers

Never combine pain killers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Ascending pathway of nociception?

A. Transmission, transduction, modulation, projection and perception

B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception

C. Transduction, modulation, transmission, projection and perception

D. Modulation, transduction, transmission, projection and perception

Transduction → Transmission → Modulation → Projection → Perception

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Modern concepts of pain management ## Footnote A. Young animals do not need analgesics B. Preemptive (prophylactic) analgesia C. Multimodal (multiple approach) analgesia D. No gap should appear

Young animals do not need analgesics

Intraoperative analgesic effect. pick the false answer? Ketamine CRI; Lidocaine fentanyl CRI ; Local anaesthetic + opioids Inhalants alone

Inhalants alone

Purpose of anaesthesia machines. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Administer appropriate flow of oxygen B. Administer appropriate concentration of inhalants C. Administer constant rate infusions D. Elimination of exhaled CO2

C) administer constant rate infusions

Mixing part of the anaesthesia machine. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Gas source B. Flowmeter C. Vaporizer D. One-way valves

one way valves

Breathing circuit of the anaesthesia machine. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. „Y”-piece B. Reservoir bag C. Oxygen bypass button D. CO2 absorbent canister

Oxygen bypass button

Oxygen-bypass. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Emergency option B. Concentration of inhalational anesthetic in the circuit can be quickly reduced C. Pure O2 can directly enter the circuit D. The bypass rate is controlled by the flowmeter

D) the bypass rate is controlled by the flowmeter

Optimal breathing tubes are. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Ribbed B. Short C. Wide D. Blue

Blue

Optimal size of the reservoir bag are ## Footnote A. The respiratory volume B. 2 times the respiratory volume C. 5 times the respiratory volume D. 10 time the respiratory volume

5 times the respiratory volume

The absorbent canister is part of the… ## Footnote A. Open system B. Semi-open system C. Semi-open and semi-closed systems D. Semi-closed and closed systems

D)Semi - closed and closed systems

CO2 absorption. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. The absorbent canister contains absorbing soda B. The absorbing soda granules have rough surface C. The absorbing soda granules consist of Mg-hydroxide D. Exhaustion of the soda is indicated by discoloration

The absorbing soda granules consist of Mg- hydroxide

The pop-off valve (adjustable pressure limiting valve)…Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Prevents excessive pressure in the circuit and lungs B. Is open during spontaneous breathing C. Is set to 20 cmH2O during manual or mechanical ventilation D. Is set to 40 cmH2O in case of compromised lung

Is set to 40 cmH20 in case of compromised lung

Advantages of semi-open narcosis systems. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Low resistance B. Small mechanical dead space C. Anesthetic concentration can be quickly modified D. Large anesthetic consumption

Large anesthetic consumption

Advantages of closed narcosis systems. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Low source gas consumption B. Low inhalational anesthetic consumption C. Cheap D. Easily controllable depth of anesthesia

easily controllable depth of anesthesia

Narcosis system types. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote Narcosis systems. Pick the false answer A. Open circuit B. Semi-open system C. Semi-closed circuit D. Closed circuit

open circuit

Indications for mechanical ventilation. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Open thorax B. Neuromuscular blockade C. Hypoventilation caused by severe hypothermia D. Decreased etCO2 level

Decreased etCO2 level (says it causes hypercapnia!)

IPPV(intermittent positive pressure ventilation). Pick the false answer ? ## Footnote A. Commonly used type of mechanical ventilation B. Airway pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure during inspiration C. Airway pressure falls to atmospheric pressure during passive expiration D. Can not be used in large dogs

Commonly used type of mechanical ventilation

Physiological dead space? ## Footnote A. Anatomical dead space B. Anatomical + alveolar dead space C. Alveolar dead space D. Anatomical + apparatus dead space

Anatomical + alveolar dead space

Inspiration Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Spontaneous inspiration is caused by decreasing interpleural pressure B. IPPV inspiration is caused by increasing interpleural pressure C. Expiration is spontaneous in both cases D. IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure

D) IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure

CNS effects of IPPV .Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Controlled hyperventilation reduces CO2 level in the blood B. Reduced CO2 level causes arterial vasoconstriction C. Arterial vasoconstriction decreases intracranial pressure D. Severely decreased intracranial pressure supports cerebral oxygenation

D) Severly decreased intracranial pressure supports cerebral oxygenation

Volume-controlled time-cycled mechanical ventilation.Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Common in veterinary anesthesia B. Constant flow during inspiration C. Inspiratory pressure decreases during ispiration to maintain constant flow D. Inspiratory phase ends after preset inspiratory time

C) Inspiratory pressure decreases during inspiration to maintain constant flow

Triggering types (initiation of inspiratory phase) ## Footnote Pick the false answer A. Time B. Pressure C. Flow D. Concentration

Concentration

Parameters of ventilation. Pick the false answer ## Footnote A. Tidal volume: 10–15 ml/bwkg B. Respiratory rate: 80–100/min C. Inhalation / exhalation time ratio: 1:2–1:3 D. Target values: 35–45 mmHg etCO2 and 100% SpO2

B) Respiratory rate: 80-100/min

Blood pressure measuring methods? Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Femoral pulse quality evaluation B. Invasive direct C. Noninvasive doppler D. Noninvasive oscillometric

femoral pulse quality evaluation

Blood pressure measurement at right atrial (RA) height ## Footnote A. Measured lower, the value will be higher B. Measured higher, the value will be lower C. 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 7.36 mmHg D. 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 73.6 mmHg

10cm height difference results in a deviation of 7.36 mmHg

Cuff size for BP measuring Pick the false answer A. Patients of different sizes require different sizes of cuffs B. Optimal cuff’s with is 40% of leg’s circumference C. Optimal cuff’s with is 140% of leg’s circumference D. Wider cuff produces lower BP value and vica versa

C) Optimal cuff's with is 140% of legs circumferance

The MAP (mean arterial pressure) is ## Footnote A. Average of the systolic and diastolic values B. Rarely lower than diastolic pressure C. Closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure D. Closer to systolic pressure than to diastolic pressure

Closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure

Urine production during general anaesthesia? ## Footnote A. 0.1-0.2 ml/bwkg/h B. 1-2 ml/bwkg/h C. 10-20 ml/bwkg/h D. 100-200 ml/bwkg/h

1-2 ml/BWkg/hour

Pulse oximetry? Pick the false answer ## Footnote A. Physiological range of oxygen saturation: 35–45 mmHg B. Sensor can be placed on tongue, ear etc. C. In case of transmission-type sensors one side emits, while the other detects light D. Absorption depends on oxyHb/desoxyHb ratio

A. Physiological range of oxygen saturation: 35–45 mmHg

Correlation between paO2 & SpO2 ## Footnote A. Positive correlation B. Negative correlation C. Can be shown with sigmoid curve D. Small changes in SpO2 are caused by large changes of paO2 (in the physiological range)

Can be shown with a sigmoid curve

Cause of pulse-oximeter malfunction? Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A. Strong pulse B. Total light absorption C. Improper contact D. Interference with electrosurgical devices

Strong pulse

Capnometry. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote Pick the false answer A. Physiological range of etCO2: 35–45 mmHg B. Capnogram may be divided into 4 phases C. In case of hypoventilation etCO2 decreases D. Exhausted CO2 absorbent soda lime increases inhaled CO2 level

In case of hypoventilation etCO2 decreases

Correlation between paCO2 & etCO2 ## Footnote Pick the false answer A. Positive correlation B. Negative correlation C. PaCO2 \> etCO2 D. The difference in small animals is 2-5 mmHg

Negative correlation

Capnograph types? A. Side-flow and main-flow measuring B. Left-sided and right-sided measuring C. Low-flow and high-flow measuring D. Mono-flow and multi-flow measuring

Side-flow & main-flow-measuring

Capnograph phases? ## Footnote A. Phase I (inhalation), Phase II (exhalation begins), Phase III (exhalation ends), Phase IV (inhalation begins) B. Phase I (exhalation begins), Phase II (exhalation ends), Phase III (inhalation begins), Phase IV (inhalation) C. Phase I (exhalation ends), Phase II (inhalation begins), Phase III (inhalation), Phase IV (exhalation begins) D. Phase I (inhalation begins), Phase II (inhalation), Phase III (exhalation begins), Phase IV (exhalation ends)

Inhalation → Exhalation begins → Exhalation ends → Inhalation begins

Causes of decreasing etCO2? ## Footnote Acute respiratory distress (hyperventilation); Acute respiratory distress (hypoventillation) Acute circulatory distress (decreased heart minute-volume); Acute metabolic distress

Acute respiratory distress (hypoventilation)

Causes of zero etCO2 on the capnograph’s display.Pick the false answer? ## Footnote Capnoperitoneum Capnography performs calibration; Cardiac arrest; Respiratory arrest; Tube malposition; Tube disconnection

Capnoperitoneum

Causes of rebreathed CO2. Pick the false answer? Exhausted soda lime; Suck one-way valve; High flow in semi-open non rebreathing system Large dead space

High flow in semi-open non rebreathing system

Core temperature can be measured with... Pick the false answer? Pharyngeal probes; Thermocamera Oesophageal probes; Rectal probes

Thermocamera

Warming the hypothermic patient. Pick the false answer? Heating pads; Infrared lamps; Covers & head mirrors Hot IV infuson

Hot IV infuson

Close control of blood glucose is needed in… pick the false answer ## Footnote A) very small or young patients B) acute trauma or shock patients C) cachexic or weak patients D) Diabetic or insulinoma

acute trauma or shock patients

Monitoring of anaesthetized patients involves assessment of… pick the false answer A) stage of narcosis B) pain markers C)Patients parameters D) owners consent

owners consent

Which statement is false? ## Footnote a. The generator determines the capacity of the x-ray machine. b. Greater capacity allows shorter exposure time. c. Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion unsharpness d. The most common reason for motion unsharpness is panting.

Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion unsharpness

What is the role of the collimator? ## Footnote a. Filtration of the scattered beams b. Setting the size of the x-ray beam c. Setting the strength of the x-ray beam d. Reduction of x-ray radiation

Setting the size of the x-ray beam

## Footnote Which statement is false? a. The kVp describes the strength (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam. b. The mA describes the number of x-ray photons c. To maintaine the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too. d. The same mAs can be created from different time components.

To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs, you must elevate kVp too

What is the normal range of tube voltage in small animal radiography? ## Footnote a. 0,1-2 kVp b. 1000-2000 kVp c. 40-100 kVp d. 4-10 kVp

40-100 kVp

The use of the grid ## Footnote a. reduces the radiation exposure b. improves the image contrast c. improves the image sharpness d. reduces the exposure time

Improves the image contrast; Filters the scattered beam

What is not a normal component of an indirect digital system (CR)? ## Footnote a. x-ray tube b. x-ray film c. collimator d. PSP plate

X-ray film

Which statement is false? ## Footnote a. The x-ray radiation is electromagnetic radiation. b. X-ray beams cannot be deflected by a magnetic field. c. Particles with higher energy have a higher penetrating power. d. The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron.

The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron

Which statement is true? ## Footnote a. Some digital technologies use x-ray films. b. Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog. c. DR systems can be digital or analog. d. The picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic.

Fluoroscopy can be digital or analogue

Which statement is true? ## Footnote a. Fluoroscopy causes very low radiation exposure. b. Fluoroscopy is mainly used for static examinations. c. During fluoroscopy the x-ray tube is generally above the animal. d. Fluoroscope is also called ³C-arm´.

The fluoroscope is also called “C-arm”

The negatively charged particle of an atom is the ## Footnote a. proton. b. neutron. c. electron. d. nucleus.

electron

As x-rays pass through materials, they have the ability to? ## Footnote a. cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light). b. completely remove an electron from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged. c. cause chemical changes that can kill cells. d. all of the above.

Cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light); Completely remove an electron from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged; Cause chemical changes that can kill cells D) ALL of the above

Which statements is true? ## Footnote a. X-rays can be deflected by magnetic fields. b. X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate farther than rays with shorter wavelengths. c. Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter. d. Gamma rays are required for the production of a radiograph.

C) Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter

Electrons travel ## Footnote a. Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube b. Away from the anode in an x-ray tube c. Toward the anode in an x-ray tube d. None of them is true

Toward the anode in a x-ray tube

X-ray photons travel ## Footnote a. toward the cathode in an x-ray tube. b. away from the anode in an x-ray tube. c. toward the anode in an x-ray tube. d. None of them is true.

Away from the anode in an x-ray tube

Way to increase penetrating power of x-rays:? ## Footnote a. increasing kVp. b. increasing the time setting. c. increasing thermionic emission. d. increasing mAs.

Increasing kVp

The milliamperage-seconds (mAs) for 100mA and 1/10sec is: ## Footnote a. 10 mAs b. 10000 mAs c. 100 mAs d. 1 mAs

10mAs

According to Sante’s rule, if a cat’s abdomen measures 8cm & FFD is 100cm, kVp is: ## Footnote a. 72 b. 56 c. 66 d. 52

Increasing the film-object distance ## Footnote a. The resulting image will be larger. b. The resulting image will be sharper. c. The resulting image will be distorted. d. Both a and b is correct.

The resulting image will be larger

One percent of the energy produced at the anode is in the form of ## Footnote a. heat b. x-rays c. light d. none of the above

x-rays

The temperature of the filament withing the cathode is controlled by ## Footnote a. time setting. b. the source-image distance. c. kVp setting. d. mA setting.

the time setting

## Footnote Which is a characteristic of x-rays? a. Their total number produced is determined by kV b. Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power. c. Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases. d. They diverge from a light source.

Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases

The potential difference between the anode & cathode is measured in… ## Footnote a. kilovolts b. kilowatts c. milliamperes d. centimeters

Kilovolts

Higher kVp settings allows for a ___ mAs and \_\_\_exposure time. a. higher, higher b. higher, lower c. lower, lower d. higher, higher

Higher kVp settings allow for lower mAs and lower exposure time Lower and lower

Which of the following increases radiographic density? ## Footnote a. thinner body parts b. increased mAs c. increased density of the bodypart being radiographed d. decreased kVp

Thinner body parts

Which of the following radiographs should have the shortest scale of contrast? a. abdomen b. thorax c. femur d. all are approximately equal

The abdomen, thorax and femur all have equal scale of contrast D) all equal

Which one is not an exposure factor? a. kV b. mA c. kW d. s

Alpha 2 agonists. Pick the false answer? ## Footnote A)Sedative B) Analgesic C) emetic D) not antagonisable

Not antagonisable

Opoids.pick the false answer? A) Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect B) Major analgesics C) Side effects are bradycardia and respiratory depression D) can be antagonized by naloxone

A) despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect

Full opoid agonist? A) Naloxon B) Buprenorphine C) Butorphanol D) Fentanyl

Fentanyl

Inhalant anaesthetics. Pick the false answer? Hypnotic Muscle relaxant No analgesic effect Sedative

Sedative

Local anaesthetics side effects. Pick the false answer? Cardiovascular CNS Cell toxicity Respiratory

Respiratory

Characteristics of pain. Pick the false answer? A. Function: physiological or pathological B. Origin: organic or psychogenic C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional D. Duration: acute or chronic

C) Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional

Most pulse oximeters display A. Signal strength B. Saturation and pulse frequency C. Plethysmogram D. Ratio of abnormal/normal hemoglobin types

Saturation and pulse frequency for false answer its C!