PQ 3 Flashcards
Atropine is used for treatment? pick the false answer?
Bradycardia caused by opioids;
Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha 2-agonists (high BP);
AV-blocks & SA-blocks
Increased gland secretion and bronchospasm
Increased gland secretion and bronchospasm
ACP effects. Pick the false answer?
Calming;
Vasodilator;
Analgesic
Depression of thermoregulation;
analgesic
Diazepam & Midazolam. Pick the false answer?
For old animals with poor general circulation;
Can be antagonized by atipamezole
Decreases anxiety; Relaxes muscles;
High dose can caused respiratory depression
Can be antagonized by apitamezole
alpha 2-agonists. pick the false answer?
- Alphaxalone and alphadolone
- Detomidine;
- Medetomidine and Dexmedetomidine;
- Xylazine
alphaxalone and alphadolone
Medetomidine & xylazine. Pick the false answer?
A) Using a general dose - phases of sedation, induction & maintenance cannot be separated;
B) Not recommended for old, cardiac & diabetic patients;
C) Cause circulatory & respiratory depression
D) Can be antagonized by flumazenil
Can be antagonized by flumazenil
Opioid drugs. Pick the false answer?
A) Morphine and fentanyl
B) Buprenorphine
C) Tramadol and thiopental
D)Naloxone
tramadol and thiopental
. Opioid receptors
μ (Mu);
K (Kappa);
O (Omicron)
δ (Delta)
O omicron
Fentanyl. Pick the false answer?
Full agonist opioid drug;
15–30-minute duration of effect;
May be redosed
Do not combine with propofol
do not combine with propofol
Morphine? Pick the false answer?
Full agonist opioid drug;
4-6 hours duration of effect;
Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients;
May be redosed
may be redosed
Full opioid agonists?
Morphine
Buprenorphine
Butorphanol
Tramadol
Morphine
Short duration of action
A) Morphine
B) Buprenorphine
C) fentanyl
D) Fentanyl patch
Fentanyl
Partial μ-agonist?
A) Morphine
B) Buprenorphine
C) Butorphanol
D) Fentanyl
Buprenorphine
Partial μ-antagonist & k-agonist
A) morphine
B) Buprenorphine
C) Butorphanol
D) fentanyl
Butorphanol
Weak μ-agonist?
A) Morphine
B) Buprenorphine
C) Butorphanol
D) Tramadol
Tramadol
Propofol. Pick the false answer?
Can be used in almost all patient groups;
Hypnotic, Muscle relaxant and analgesic
Short duration of action; Can be redosed;
High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression
Hypnotic, Muscle relaxant and analgesic
Application of propofol. Pick the false answer?
Slowly;
IV;
Only in combination with muscle relaxants
To effect
Only in combination with muscle relaxants
Ketamine?Pick the false answer?
Moderate analgesic effect;
Benzodiazepines may help avoid catalepsy (muscle rigidity);
Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients
Eyes remain open, therefore the cornea may desiccate
Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients
Safe inhalant anaesthetics? Pick the false answer?
Isoflurane;
Sevoflurane;
Desflurane
Ether
ether
Inhalant anaesthetics. Pick the false answer?
1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases;
2 MAC causes muscle relation in 100% of cases;
Short induction and recovery;
Hypnotic; Muscle relaxant; strong analgesic effect
Hypnotic; Muscle relaxant; strong analgesic
effect
Local anaesthetic. Pick the false answer?
Blocks nerve cells;
surgery in small animals is safe using only local anaesthetics
Local anaesthetic Types - Terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural & spinal;
Possible side effects – Cardiovascular & CNS signs, cell toxicity
Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anaesthetics
Pancuronium; Atracurium; Vecuronium; Rocuronium. Pick the false answer?
Central muscle relaxants;
Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants
Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants;
Local anaesthetics
Peripheral non-depolarising muscle relaxants
Pain. Pick the false answer?
Complex, multidimensional negative experience;
There is No linear correlation between degree
of pathological changes and intensity of pain;
Simultaneous nociceptive effects add up;
Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress
Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress
Pathological pain. Pick the false answer?
A. Hyperalgesia: mild noxious stimuli result in intense pain sensation
B. Allodynia: tactile (non-painful) stimuli result in pain sensation
C. Pain impulse may be inhibited by pain-killers
D. Never combine pain-killers
Never combine pain killers
Ascending pathway of nociception?
A. Transmission, transduction, modulation, projection and perception
B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception
C. Transduction, modulation, transmission, projection and perception
D. Modulation, transduction, transmission, projection and perception
Transduction → Transmission → Modulation → Projection → Perception
Modern concepts of pain management
A. Young animals do not need analgesics
B. Preemptive (prophylactic) analgesia
C. Multimodal (multiple approach) analgesia
D. No gap should appear
Young animals do not need analgesics
Intraoperative analgesic effect. pick the false answer?
Ketamine CRI; Lidocaine
fentanyl CRI
; Local anaesthetic + opioids
Inhalants alone
Inhalants alone
Purpose of anaesthesia machines. Pick the false answer?
A. Administer appropriate flow of oxygen
B. Administer appropriate concentration of inhalants
C. Administer constant rate infusions
D. Elimination of exhaled CO2
C) administer constant rate infusions
Mixing part of the anaesthesia machine. Pick the false answer?
A. Gas source
B. Flowmeter
C. Vaporizer
D. One-way valves
one way valves
Breathing circuit of the anaesthesia machine. Pick the false answer?
A. „Y”-piece
B. Reservoir bag
C. Oxygen bypass button
D. CO2 absorbent canister
Oxygen bypass button
Oxygen-bypass. Pick the false answer?
A. Emergency option
B. Concentration of inhalational anesthetic in the circuit can be quickly reduced
C. Pure O2 can directly enter the circuit
D. The bypass rate is controlled by the flowmeter
D) the bypass rate is controlled by the flowmeter
Optimal breathing tubes are. Pick the false answer?
A. Ribbed
B. Short
C. Wide
D. Blue
Blue
Optimal size of the reservoir bag are
A. The respiratory volume
B. 2 times the respiratory volume
C. 5 times the respiratory volume
D. 10 time the respiratory volume
5 times the respiratory volume
The absorbent canister is part of the…
A. Open system
B. Semi-open system
C. Semi-open and semi-closed systems
D. Semi-closed and closed systems
D)Semi - closed and closed systems
CO2 absorption. Pick the false answer?
A. The absorbent canister contains absorbing soda
B. The absorbing soda granules have rough surface
C. The absorbing soda granules consist of Mg-hydroxide
D. Exhaustion of the soda is indicated by discoloration
The absorbing soda granules consist of Mg- hydroxide
The pop-off valve (adjustable pressure limiting valve)…Pick the false answer?
A. Prevents excessive pressure in the circuit and lungs
B. Is open during spontaneous breathing
C. Is set to 20 cmH2O during manual or mechanical ventilation
D. Is set to 40 cmH2O in case of compromised lung
Is set to 40 cmH20 in case of compromised lung
Advantages of semi-open narcosis systems. Pick the false answer?
A. Low resistance
B. Small mechanical dead space
C. Anesthetic concentration can be quickly modified
D. Large anesthetic consumption
Large anesthetic consumption
Advantages of closed narcosis systems. Pick the false answer?
A. Low source gas consumption
B. Low inhalational anesthetic consumption
C. Cheap
D. Easily controllable depth of anesthesia
easily controllable depth of anesthesia
Narcosis system types. Pick the false answer?
Narcosis systems. Pick the false answer
A. Open circuit
B. Semi-open system
C. Semi-closed circuit
D. Closed circuit
open circuit
Indications for mechanical ventilation. Pick the false answer?
A. Open thorax
B. Neuromuscular blockade
C. Hypoventilation caused by severe hypothermia
D. Decreased etCO2 level
Decreased etCO2 level
(says it causes hypercapnia!)
IPPV(intermittent positive pressure ventilation). Pick the false answer ?
A. Commonly used type of mechanical ventilation
B. Airway pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure during inspiration
C. Airway pressure falls to atmospheric pressure during passive expiration
D. Can not be used in large dogs
Commonly used type of mechanical ventilation
Physiological dead space?
A. Anatomical dead space
B. Anatomical + alveolar dead space
C. Alveolar dead space
D. Anatomical + apparatus dead space
Anatomical + alveolar dead space
Inspiration Pick the false answer?
A. Spontaneous inspiration is caused by decreasing interpleural pressure
B. IPPV inspiration is caused by increasing interpleural pressure
C. Expiration is spontaneous in both cases
D. IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure
D) IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure
CNS effects of IPPV .Pick the false answer?
A. Controlled hyperventilation reduces CO2 level in the blood
B. Reduced CO2 level causes arterial vasoconstriction
C. Arterial vasoconstriction decreases intracranial pressure
D. Severely decreased intracranial pressure supports cerebral oxygenation
D) Severly decreased intracranial pressure supports cerebral oxygenation
Volume-controlled time-cycled mechanical ventilation.Pick the false answer?
A. Common in veterinary anesthesia
B. Constant flow during inspiration
C. Inspiratory pressure decreases during ispiration to maintain constant flow
D. Inspiratory phase ends after preset inspiratory time
C) Inspiratory pressure decreases during inspiration to maintain constant flow
Triggering types (initiation of inspiratory phase)
Pick the false answer
A. Time
B. Pressure
C. Flow
D. Concentration
Concentration
Parameters of ventilation. Pick the false answer
A. Tidal volume: 10–15 ml/bwkg
B. Respiratory rate: 80–100/min
C. Inhalation / exhalation time ratio: 1:2–1:3
D. Target values: 35–45 mmHg etCO2 and 100% SpO2
B) Respiratory rate: 80-100/min
Blood pressure measuring methods? Pick the false answer?
A. Femoral pulse quality evaluation
B. Invasive direct
C. Noninvasive doppler
D. Noninvasive oscillometric
femoral pulse quality evaluation
Blood pressure measurement at right atrial (RA) height
A. Measured lower, the value will be higher
B. Measured higher, the value will be lower
C. 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 7.36 mmHg
D. 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 73.6 mmHg
10cm height difference results in a deviation of 7.36 mmHg
Cuff size for BP measuring
Pick the false answer
A. Patients of different sizes require different sizes of cuffs
B. Optimal cuff’s with is 40% of leg’s circumference
C. Optimal cuff’s with is 140% of leg’s circumference
D. Wider cuff produces lower BP value and vica versa
C) Optimal cuff’s with is 140% of legs circumferance
The MAP (mean arterial pressure) is
A. Average of the systolic and diastolic values
B. Rarely lower than diastolic pressure
C. Closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure
D. Closer to systolic pressure than to diastolic pressure
Closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure
Urine production during general anaesthesia?
A. 0.1-0.2 ml/bwkg/h
B. 1-2 ml/bwkg/h
C. 10-20 ml/bwkg/h
D. 100-200 ml/bwkg/h
1-2 ml/BWkg/hour
Pulse oximetry? Pick the false answer
A. Physiological range of oxygen saturation: 35–45 mmHg
B. Sensor can be placed on tongue, ear etc.
C. In case of transmission-type sensors one side emits, while the other detects light
D. Absorption depends on oxyHb/desoxyHb ratio
A. Physiological range of oxygen saturation: 35–45 mmHg
Correlation between paO2 & SpO2
A. Positive correlation
B. Negative correlation
C. Can be shown with sigmoid curve
D. Small changes in SpO2 are caused by large changes of paO2 (in the physiological range)
Can be shown with a sigmoid curve
Cause of pulse-oximeter malfunction? Pick the false answer?
A. Strong pulse
B. Total light absorption
C. Improper contact
D. Interference with electrosurgical devices
Strong pulse
Capnometry. Pick the false answer?
Pick the false answer
A. Physiological range of etCO2: 35–45 mmHg
B. Capnogram may be divided into 4 phases
C. In case of hypoventilation etCO2 decreases
D. Exhausted CO2 absorbent soda lime increases inhaled CO2 level
In case of hypoventilation etCO2 decreases
Correlation between paCO2 & etCO2
Pick the false answer
A. Positive correlation
B. Negative correlation
C. PaCO2 > etCO2
D. The difference in small animals is 2-5 mmHg
Negative correlation
Capnograph types?
A. Side-flow and main-flow measuring
B. Left-sided and right-sided measuring
C. Low-flow and high-flow measuring
D. Mono-flow and multi-flow measuring
Side-flow & main-flow-measuring
Capnograph phases?
A. Phase I (inhalation), Phase II (exhalation begins), Phase III (exhalation ends), Phase IV (inhalation
begins)
B. Phase I (exhalation begins), Phase II (exhalation ends), Phase III (inhalation begins), Phase IV
(inhalation)
C. Phase I (exhalation ends), Phase II (inhalation begins), Phase III (inhalation), Phase IV (exhalation
begins)
D. Phase I (inhalation begins), Phase II (inhalation), Phase III (exhalation begins), Phase IV (exhalation
ends)
Inhalation → Exhalation begins → Exhalation ends → Inhalation begins
Causes of decreasing etCO2?
Acute respiratory distress (hyperventilation);
Acute respiratory distress (hypoventillation)
Acute circulatory distress (decreased
heart minute-volume); Acute metabolic distress
Acute respiratory distress (hypoventilation)
Causes of zero etCO2 on the capnograph’s display.Pick the false answer?
Capnoperitoneum
Capnography performs calibration;
Cardiac arrest; Respiratory arrest;
Tube malposition; Tube disconnection
Capnoperitoneum
Causes of rebreathed CO2. Pick the false answer?
Exhausted soda lime;
Suck one-way valve;
High flow in semi-open non rebreathing system
Large dead space
High flow in semi-open non rebreathing system
Core temperature can be measured with… Pick the false answer?
Pharyngeal probes;
Thermocamera
Oesophageal probes;
Rectal probes
Thermocamera
Warming the hypothermic patient. Pick the false answer?
Heating pads;
Infrared lamps;
Covers & head mirrors
Hot IV infuson
Hot IV infuson
Close control of blood glucose is needed in… pick the false answer
A) very small or young patients
B) acute trauma or shock patients
C) cachexic or weak patients
D) Diabetic or insulinoma
acute trauma or shock patients
Monitoring of anaesthetized patients involves assessment of… pick the false answer
A) stage of narcosis
B) pain markers
C)Patients parameters
D) owners consent
owners consent
Which statement is false?
a. The generator determines the capacity of the x-ray machine.
b. Greater capacity allows shorter exposure time.
c. Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion unsharpness
d. The most common reason for motion unsharpness is panting.
Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion unsharpness
What is the role of the collimator?
a. Filtration of the scattered beams
b. Setting the size of the x-ray beam
c. Setting the strength of the x-ray beam
d. Reduction of x-ray radiation
Setting the size of the x-ray beam
Which statement is false?
a. The kVp describes the strength (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam.
b. The mA describes the number of x-ray photons
c. To maintaine the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too.
d. The same mAs can be created from different time components.
To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs, you must elevate kVp too
What is the normal range of tube voltage in small animal radiography?
a. 0,1-2 kVp
b. 1000-2000 kVp
c. 40-100 kVp
d. 4-10 kVp
40-100 kVp
The use of the grid
a. reduces the radiation exposure
b. improves the image contrast
c. improves the image sharpness
d. reduces the exposure time
Improves the image contrast; Filters the scattered beam
What is not a normal component of an indirect digital system (CR)?
a. x-ray tube
b. x-ray film
c. collimator
d. PSP plate
X-ray film
Which statement is false?
a. The x-ray radiation is electromagnetic radiation.
b. X-ray beams cannot be deflected by a magnetic field.
c. Particles with higher energy have a higher penetrating power.
d. The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron.
The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron
Which statement is true?
a. Some digital technologies use x-ray films.
b. Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog.
c. DR systems can be digital or analog.
d. The picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic.
Fluoroscopy can be digital or analogue
Which statement is true?
a. Fluoroscopy causes very low radiation exposure.
b. Fluoroscopy is mainly used for static examinations.
c. During fluoroscopy the x-ray tube is generally above the animal.
d. Fluoroscope is also called ³C-arm´.
The fluoroscope is also called “C-arm”
The negatively charged particle of an atom is the
a. proton.
b. neutron.
c. electron.
d. nucleus.
electron
As x-rays pass through materials, they have the ability to?
a. cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light).
b. completely remove an electron from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged.
c. cause chemical changes that can kill cells.
d. all of the above.
Cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light); Completely remove an electron
from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged; Cause chemical changes that can
kill cells
D) ALL of the above
Which statements is true?
a. X-rays can be deflected by magnetic fields.
b. X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate farther than rays with shorter wavelengths.
c. Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter.
d. Gamma rays are required for the production of a radiograph.
C) Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter
Electrons travel
a. Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube
b. Away from the anode in an x-ray tube
c. Toward the anode in an x-ray tube
d. None of them is true
Toward the anode in a x-ray tube
X-ray photons travel
a. toward the cathode in an x-ray tube.
b. away from the anode in an x-ray tube.
c. toward the anode in an x-ray tube.
d. None of them is true.
Away from the anode in an x-ray tube
Way to increase penetrating power of x-rays:?
a. increasing kVp.
b. increasing the time setting.
c. increasing thermionic emission.
d. increasing mAs.
Increasing kVp
The milliamperage-seconds (mAs) for 100mA and 1/10sec is:
a. 10 mAs
b. 10000 mAs
c. 100 mAs
d. 1 mAs
10mAs
According to Sante’s rule, if a cat’s abdomen measures 8cm & FFD is 100cm, kVp is:
a. 72
b. 56
c. 66
d. 52
56
Increasing the film-object distance
a. The resulting image will be larger.
b. The resulting image will be sharper.
c. The resulting image will be distorted.
d. Both a and b is correct.
The resulting image will be larger
One percent of the energy produced at the anode is in the form of
a. heat
b. x-rays
c. light
d. none of the above
x-rays
The temperature of the filament withing the cathode is controlled by
a. time setting.
b. the source-image distance.
c. kVp setting.
d. mA setting.
the time setting
Which is a characteristic of x-rays?
a. Their total number produced is determined by kV
b. Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power.
c. Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases.
d. They diverge from a light source.
Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases
The potential difference between the anode & cathode is measured in…
a. kilovolts
b. kilowatts
c. milliamperes
d. centimeters
Kilovolts
Higher kVp settings allows for a ___ mAs and ___exposure time.
a. higher, higher
b. higher, lower
c. lower, lower
d. higher, higher
Higher kVp settings allow for lower mAs and lower exposure time
Lower and lower
Which of the following increases radiographic density?
a. thinner body parts
b. increased mAs
c. increased density of the bodypart being radiographed
d. decreased kVp
Thinner body parts
Which of the following radiographs should have the shortest scale of contrast?
a. abdomen
b. thorax
c. femur
d. all are approximately equal
The abdomen, thorax and femur all have equal scale of contrast
D) all equal
Which one is not an exposure factor?
a. kV
b. mA
c. kW
d. s
KW
Alpha 2 agonists. Pick the false answer?
A)Sedative
B) Analgesic
C) emetic
D) not antagonisable
Not antagonisable
Opoids.pick the false answer?
A) Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect
B) Major analgesics
C) Side effects are bradycardia and respiratory depression
D) can be antagonized by naloxone
A) despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect
Full opoid agonist?
A) Naloxon
B) Buprenorphine
C) Butorphanol
D) Fentanyl
Fentanyl
Inhalant anaesthetics. Pick the false answer?
Hypnotic
Muscle relaxant
No analgesic effect
Sedative
Sedative
Local anaesthetics side effects. Pick the false answer?
Cardiovascular
CNS
Cell toxicity
Respiratory
Respiratory
Characteristics of pain. Pick the false answer?
A. Function: physiological or pathological
B. Origin: organic or psychogenic
C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional
D. Duration: acute or chronic
C) Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional
Most pulse oximeters display
A. Signal strength
B. Saturation and pulse frequency
C. Plethysmogram
D. Ratio of abnormal/normal hemoglobin types
Saturation and pulse frequency
for false answer its C!
