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SAM 4 Final Past questions > PQ 3 > Flashcards

PQ 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Atropine is used for treatment? pick the false answer?

Bradycardia caused by opioids;

Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha 2-agonists (high BP);

AV-blocks & SA-blocks

Increased gland secretion and bronchospasm

A

Increased gland secretion and bronchospasm

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2
Q

ACP effects. Pick the false answer?

Calming;

Vasodilator;

Analgesic

Depression of thermoregulation;

A

analgesic

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3
Q

Diazepam & Midazolam. Pick the false answer?

For old animals with poor general circulation;

Can be antagonized by atipamezole

Decreases anxiety; Relaxes muscles;

High dose can caused respiratory depression

A

Can be antagonized by apitamezole

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4
Q

alpha 2-agonists. pick the false answer?

  • Alphaxalone and alphadolone
  • Detomidine;
  • Medetomidine and Dexmedetomidine;
  • Xylazine
A

alphaxalone and alphadolone

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5
Q

Medetomidine & xylazine. Pick the false answer?

A) Using a general dose - phases of sedation, induction & maintenance cannot be separated;

B) Not recommended for old, cardiac & diabetic patients;

C) Cause circulatory & respiratory depression

D) Can be antagonized by flumazenil

A

Can be antagonized by flumazenil

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6
Q

Opioid drugs. Pick the false answer?

A) Morphine and fentanyl

B) Buprenorphine

C) Tramadol and thiopental

D)Naloxone

A

tramadol and thiopental

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7
Q

. Opioid receptors

μ (Mu);

K (Kappa);

O (Omicron)

δ (Delta)

A

O omicron

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8
Q

Fentanyl. Pick the false answer?

Full agonist opioid drug;

15–30-minute duration of effect;

May be redosed

Do not combine with propofol

A

do not combine with propofol

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9
Q

Morphine? Pick the false answer?

Full agonist opioid drug;

4-6 hours duration of effect;

Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients;

May be redosed

A

may be redosed

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10
Q

Full opioid agonists?

Morphine

Buprenorphine

Butorphanol

Tramadol

A

Morphine

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11
Q

Short duration of action

A) Morphine

B) Buprenorphine

C) fentanyl

D) Fentanyl patch

A

Fentanyl

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12
Q

Partial μ-agonist?

A) Morphine

B) Buprenorphine

C) Butorphanol

D) Fentanyl

A

Buprenorphine

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13
Q

Partial μ-antagonist & k-agonist

A) morphine

B) Buprenorphine

C) Butorphanol

D) fentanyl

A

Butorphanol

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14
Q

Weak μ-agonist?

A) Morphine

B) Buprenorphine

C) Butorphanol

D) Tramadol

A

Tramadol

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15
Q

Propofol. Pick the false answer?

Can be used in almost all patient groups;

Hypnotic, Muscle relaxant and analgesic

Short duration of action; Can be redosed;

High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression

A

Hypnotic, Muscle relaxant and analgesic

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16
Q

Application of propofol. Pick the false answer?

Slowly;

IV;

Only in combination with muscle relaxants

To effect

A

Only in combination with muscle relaxants

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17
Q

Ketamine?Pick the false answer?

Moderate analgesic effect;

Benzodiazepines may help avoid catalepsy (muscle rigidity);

Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients

Eyes remain open, therefore the cornea may desiccate

A

Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients

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18
Q

Safe inhalant anaesthetics? Pick the false answer?

Isoflurane;

Sevoflurane;

Desflurane

Ether

A

ether

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19
Q

Inhalant anaesthetics. Pick the false answer?

1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases;

2 MAC causes muscle relation in 100% of cases;

Short induction and recovery;

Hypnotic; Muscle relaxant; strong analgesic effect

A

Hypnotic; Muscle relaxant; strong analgesic

effect

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20
Q

Local anaesthetic. Pick the false answer?

Blocks nerve cells;

surgery in small animals is safe using only local anaesthetics

Local anaesthetic Types - Terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural & spinal;

Possible side effects – Cardiovascular & CNS signs, cell toxicity

A

Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anaesthetics

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21
Q

Pancuronium; Atracurium; Vecuronium; Rocuronium. Pick the false answer?

Central muscle relaxants;

Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants

Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants;

Local anaesthetics

A

Peripheral non-depolarising muscle relaxants

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22
Q

Pain. Pick the false answer?

Complex, multidimensional negative experience;

There is No linear correlation between degree

of pathological changes and intensity of pain;

Simultaneous nociceptive effects add up;

Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress

A

Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress

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23
Q

Pathological pain. Pick the false answer?

A. Hyperalgesia: mild noxious stimuli result in intense pain sensation
B. Allodynia: tactile (non-painful) stimuli result in pain sensation
C. Pain impulse may be inhibited by pain-killers
D. Never combine pain-killers

A

Never combine pain killers

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24
Q

Ascending pathway of nociception?

A. Transmission, transduction, modulation, projection and perception

B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception

C. Transduction, modulation, transmission, projection and perception

D. Modulation, transduction, transmission, projection and perception

A

Transduction → Transmission → Modulation → Projection → Perception

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25
Q

Modern concepts of pain management

A. Young animals do not need analgesics

B. Preemptive (prophylactic) analgesia

C. Multimodal (multiple approach) analgesia

D. No gap should appear

A

Young animals do not need analgesics

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26
Q

Intraoperative analgesic effect. pick the false answer?

Ketamine CRI; Lidocaine

fentanyl CRI

; Local anaesthetic + opioids

Inhalants alone

A

Inhalants alone

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27
Q

Purpose of anaesthesia machines. Pick the false answer?

A. Administer appropriate flow of oxygen

B. Administer appropriate concentration of inhalants

C. Administer constant rate infusions

D. Elimination of exhaled CO2

A

C) administer constant rate infusions

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28
Q

Mixing part of the anaesthesia machine. Pick the false answer?

A. Gas source

B. Flowmeter

C. Vaporizer

D. One-way valves

A

one way valves

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29
Q

Breathing circuit of the anaesthesia machine. Pick the false answer?

A. „Y”-piece

B. Reservoir bag

C. Oxygen bypass button

D. CO2 absorbent canister

A

Oxygen bypass button

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30
Q

Oxygen-bypass. Pick the false answer?

A. Emergency option

B. Concentration of inhalational anesthetic in the circuit can be quickly reduced

C. Pure O2 can directly enter the circuit

D. The bypass rate is controlled by the flowmeter

A

D) the bypass rate is controlled by the flowmeter

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31
Q

Optimal breathing tubes are. Pick the false answer?

A. Ribbed

B. Short

C. Wide

D. Blue

A

Blue

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32
Q

Optimal size of the reservoir bag are

A. The respiratory volume

B. 2 times the respiratory volume

C. 5 times the respiratory volume

D. 10 time the respiratory volume

A

5 times the respiratory volume

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33
Q

The absorbent canister is part of the…

A. Open system

B. Semi-open system

C. Semi-open and semi-closed systems

D. Semi-closed and closed systems

A

D)Semi - closed and closed systems

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34
Q

CO2 absorption. Pick the false answer?

A. The absorbent canister contains absorbing soda

B. The absorbing soda granules have rough surface

C. The absorbing soda granules consist of Mg-hydroxide

D. Exhaustion of the soda is indicated by discoloration

A

The absorbing soda granules consist of Mg- hydroxide

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35
Q

The pop-off valve (adjustable pressure limiting valve)…Pick the false answer?

A. Prevents excessive pressure in the circuit and lungs

B. Is open during spontaneous breathing

C. Is set to 20 cmH2O during manual or mechanical ventilation

D. Is set to 40 cmH2O in case of compromised lung

A

Is set to 40 cmH20 in case of compromised lung

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36
Q

Advantages of semi-open narcosis systems. Pick the false answer?

A. Low resistance

B. Small mechanical dead space

C. Anesthetic concentration can be quickly modified

D. Large anesthetic consumption

A

Large anesthetic consumption

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37
Q

Advantages of closed narcosis systems. Pick the false answer?

A. Low source gas consumption

B. Low inhalational anesthetic consumption

C. Cheap

D. Easily controllable depth of anesthesia

A

easily controllable depth of anesthesia

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38
Q

Narcosis system types. Pick the false answer?

Narcosis systems. Pick the false answer

A. Open circuit

B. Semi-open system

C. Semi-closed circuit

D. Closed circuit

A

open circuit

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39
Q

Indications for mechanical ventilation. Pick the false answer?

A. Open thorax

B. Neuromuscular blockade

C. Hypoventilation caused by severe hypothermia

D. Decreased etCO2 level

A

Decreased etCO2 level

(says it causes hypercapnia!)

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40
Q

IPPV(intermittent positive pressure ventilation). Pick the false answer ?

A. Commonly used type of mechanical ventilation

B. Airway pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure during inspiration

C. Airway pressure falls to atmospheric pressure during passive expiration

D. Can not be used in large dogs

A

Commonly used type of mechanical ventilation

41
Q

Physiological dead space?

A. Anatomical dead space

B. Anatomical + alveolar dead space

C. Alveolar dead space

D. Anatomical + apparatus dead space

A

Anatomical + alveolar dead space

42
Q

Inspiration Pick the false answer?

A. Spontaneous inspiration is caused by decreasing interpleural pressure

B. IPPV inspiration is caused by increasing interpleural pressure

C. Expiration is spontaneous in both cases

D. IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure

A

D) IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure

43
Q

CNS effects of IPPV .Pick the false answer?

A. Controlled hyperventilation reduces CO2 level in the blood

B. Reduced CO2 level causes arterial vasoconstriction

C. Arterial vasoconstriction decreases intracranial pressure

D. Severely decreased intracranial pressure supports cerebral oxygenation

A

D) Severly decreased intracranial pressure supports cerebral oxygenation

44
Q

Volume-controlled time-cycled mechanical ventilation.Pick the false answer?

A. Common in veterinary anesthesia

B. Constant flow during inspiration

C. Inspiratory pressure decreases during ispiration to maintain constant flow

D. Inspiratory phase ends after preset inspiratory time

A

C) Inspiratory pressure decreases during inspiration to maintain constant flow

45
Q

Triggering types (initiation of inspiratory phase)

Pick the false answer

A. Time

B. Pressure

C. Flow

D. Concentration

A

Concentration

46
Q

Parameters of ventilation. Pick the false answer

A. Tidal volume: 10–15 ml/bwkg

B. Respiratory rate: 80–100/min

C. Inhalation / exhalation time ratio: 1:2–1:3

D. Target values: 35–45 mmHg etCO2 and 100% SpO2

A

B) Respiratory rate: 80-100/min

47
Q

Blood pressure measuring methods? Pick the false answer?

A. Femoral pulse quality evaluation

B. Invasive direct

C. Noninvasive doppler

D. Noninvasive oscillometric

A

femoral pulse quality evaluation

48
Q

Blood pressure measurement at right atrial (RA) height

A. Measured lower, the value will be higher

B. Measured higher, the value will be lower

C. 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 7.36 mmHg

D. 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 73.6 mmHg

A

10cm height difference results in a deviation of 7.36 mmHg

49
Q

Cuff size for BP measuring
Pick the false answer

A. Patients of different sizes require different sizes of cuffs

B. Optimal cuff’s with is 40% of leg’s circumference

C. Optimal cuff’s with is 140% of leg’s circumference

D. Wider cuff produces lower BP value and vica versa

A

C) Optimal cuff’s with is 140% of legs circumferance

50
Q

The MAP (mean arterial pressure) is

A. Average of the systolic and diastolic values

B. Rarely lower than diastolic pressure

C. Closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure

D. Closer to systolic pressure than to diastolic pressure

A

Closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure

51
Q

Urine production during general anaesthesia?

A. 0.1-0.2 ml/bwkg/h

B. 1-2 ml/bwkg/h

C. 10-20 ml/bwkg/h

D. 100-200 ml/bwkg/h

A

1-2 ml/BWkg/hour

52
Q

Pulse oximetry? Pick the false answer

A. Physiological range of oxygen saturation: 35–45 mmHg

B. Sensor can be placed on tongue, ear etc.

C. In case of transmission-type sensors one side emits, while the other detects light

D. Absorption depends on oxyHb/desoxyHb ratio

A

A. Physiological range of oxygen saturation: 35–45 mmHg

53
Q

Correlation between paO2 & SpO2

A. Positive correlation

B. Negative correlation

C. Can be shown with sigmoid curve

D. Small changes in SpO2 are caused by large changes of paO2 (in the physiological range)

A

Can be shown with a sigmoid curve

54
Q

Cause of pulse-oximeter malfunction? Pick the false answer?

A. Strong pulse

B. Total light absorption

C. Improper contact

D. Interference with electrosurgical devices

A

Strong pulse

55
Q

Capnometry. Pick the false answer?

Pick the false answer

A. Physiological range of etCO2: 35–45 mmHg

B. Capnogram may be divided into 4 phases

C. In case of hypoventilation etCO2 decreases

D. Exhausted CO2 absorbent soda lime increases inhaled CO2 level

A

In case of hypoventilation etCO2 decreases

56
Q

Correlation between paCO2 & etCO2

Pick the false answer

A. Positive correlation

B. Negative correlation

C. PaCO2 > etCO2

D. The difference in small animals is 2-5 mmHg

A

Negative correlation

57
Q

Capnograph types?

A. Side-flow and main-flow measuring

B. Left-sided and right-sided measuring

C. Low-flow and high-flow measuring

D. Mono-flow and multi-flow measuring

A

Side-flow & main-flow-measuring

58
Q

Capnograph phases?

A. Phase I (inhalation), Phase II (exhalation begins), Phase III (exhalation ends), Phase IV (inhalation

begins)

B. Phase I (exhalation begins), Phase II (exhalation ends), Phase III (inhalation begins), Phase IV

(inhalation)

C. Phase I (exhalation ends), Phase II (inhalation begins), Phase III (inhalation), Phase IV (exhalation

begins)

D. Phase I (inhalation begins), Phase II (inhalation), Phase III (exhalation begins), Phase IV (exhalation

ends)

A

Inhalation → Exhalation begins → Exhalation ends → Inhalation begins

59
Q

Causes of decreasing etCO2?

Acute respiratory distress (hyperventilation);

Acute respiratory distress (hypoventillation)

Acute circulatory distress (decreased

heart minute-volume); Acute metabolic distress

A

Acute respiratory distress (hypoventilation)

60
Q

Causes of zero etCO2 on the capnograph’s display.Pick the false answer?

Capnoperitoneum

Capnography performs calibration;

Cardiac arrest; Respiratory arrest;

Tube malposition; Tube disconnection

A

Capnoperitoneum

61
Q

Causes of rebreathed CO2. Pick the false answer?

Exhausted soda lime;

Suck one-way valve;

High flow in semi-open non rebreathing system

Large dead space

A

High flow in semi-open non rebreathing system

62
Q

Core temperature can be measured with… Pick the false answer?

Pharyngeal probes;

Thermocamera

Oesophageal probes;

Rectal probes

A

Thermocamera

63
Q

Warming the hypothermic patient. Pick the false answer?

Heating pads;

Infrared lamps;

Covers & head mirrors

Hot IV infuson

A

Hot IV infuson

64
Q

Close control of blood glucose is needed in… pick the false answer

A) very small or young patients

B) acute trauma or shock patients

C) cachexic or weak patients

D) Diabetic or insulinoma

A

acute trauma or shock patients

65
Q

Monitoring of anaesthetized patients involves assessment of… pick the false answer

A) stage of narcosis

B) pain markers

C)Patients parameters

D) owners consent

A

owners consent

66
Q

Which statement is false?

a. The generator determines the capacity of the x-ray machine.
b. Greater capacity allows shorter exposure time.
c. Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion unsharpness
d. The most common reason for motion unsharpness is panting.

A

Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion unsharpness

67
Q

What is the role of the collimator?

a. Filtration of the scattered beams
b. Setting the size of the x-ray beam
c. Setting the strength of the x-ray beam
d. Reduction of x-ray radiation

A

Setting the size of the x-ray beam

68
Q

Which statement is false?

a. The kVp describes the strength (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam.
b. The mA describes the number of x-ray photons
c. To maintaine the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too.
d. The same mAs can be created from different time components.

A

To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs, you must elevate kVp too

69
Q

What is the normal range of tube voltage in small animal radiography?

a. 0,1-2 kVp
b. 1000-2000 kVp
c. 40-100 kVp
d. 4-10 kVp

A

40-100 kVp

70
Q

The use of the grid

a. reduces the radiation exposure
b. improves the image contrast
c. improves the image sharpness
d. reduces the exposure time

A

Improves the image contrast; Filters the scattered beam

71
Q

What is not a normal component of an indirect digital system (CR)?

a. x-ray tube
b. x-ray film
c. collimator
d. PSP plate

A

X-ray film

72
Q

Which statement is false?

a. The x-ray radiation is electromagnetic radiation.
b. X-ray beams cannot be deflected by a magnetic field.
c. Particles with higher energy have a higher penetrating power.
d. The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron.

A

The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron

73
Q

Which statement is true?

a. Some digital technologies use x-ray films.
b. Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog.
c. DR systems can be digital or analog.
d. The picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic.

A

Fluoroscopy can be digital or analogue

74
Q

Which statement is true?

a. Fluoroscopy causes very low radiation exposure.
b. Fluoroscopy is mainly used for static examinations.
c. During fluoroscopy the x-ray tube is generally above the animal.
d. Fluoroscope is also called ³C-arm´.

A

The fluoroscope is also called “C-arm”

75
Q

The negatively charged particle of an atom is the

a. proton.
b. neutron.
c. electron.
d. nucleus.

A

electron

76
Q

As x-rays pass through materials, they have the ability to?

a. cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light).
b. completely remove an electron from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged.
c. cause chemical changes that can kill cells.
d. all of the above.

A

Cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light); Completely remove an electron

from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged; Cause chemical changes that can

kill cells

D) ALL of the above

77
Q

Which statements is true?

a. X-rays can be deflected by magnetic fields.
b. X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate farther than rays with shorter wavelengths.
c. Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter.
d. Gamma rays are required for the production of a radiograph.

A

C) Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter

78
Q

Electrons travel

a. Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube
b. Away from the anode in an x-ray tube
c. Toward the anode in an x-ray tube
d. None of them is true

A

Toward the anode in a x-ray tube

79
Q

X-ray photons travel

a. toward the cathode in an x-ray tube.
b. away from the anode in an x-ray tube.
c. toward the anode in an x-ray tube.
d. None of them is true.

A

Away from the anode in an x-ray tube

80
Q

Way to increase penetrating power of x-rays:?

a. increasing kVp.
b. increasing the time setting.
c. increasing thermionic emission.
d. increasing mAs.

A

Increasing kVp

81
Q

The milliamperage-seconds (mAs) for 100mA and 1/10sec is:

a. 10 mAs
b. 10000 mAs
c. 100 mAs
d. 1 mAs

A

10mAs

82
Q

According to Sante’s rule, if a cat’s abdomen measures 8cm & FFD is 100cm, kVp is:

a. 72
b. 56
c. 66
d. 52

A

56

83
Q

Increasing the film-object distance

a. The resulting image will be larger.
b. The resulting image will be sharper.
c. The resulting image will be distorted.
d. Both a and b is correct.

A

The resulting image will be larger

84
Q

One percent of the energy produced at the anode is in the form of

a. heat
b. x-rays
c. light
d. none of the above

A

x-rays

85
Q

The temperature of the filament withing the cathode is controlled by

a. time setting.
b. the source-image distance.
c. kVp setting.
d. mA setting.

A

the time setting

86
Q

Which is a characteristic of x-rays?

a. Their total number produced is determined by kV
b. Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power.
c. Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases.
d. They diverge from a light source.

A

Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases

87
Q

The potential difference between the anode & cathode is measured in…

a. kilovolts
b. kilowatts
c. milliamperes
d. centimeters

A

Kilovolts

88
Q

Higher kVp settings allows for a ___ mAs and ___exposure time.

a. higher, higher
b. higher, lower
c. lower, lower
d. higher, higher

A

Higher kVp settings allow for lower mAs and lower exposure time

Lower and lower

89
Q

Which of the following increases radiographic density?

a. thinner body parts
b. increased mAs
c. increased density of the bodypart being radiographed
d. decreased kVp

A

Thinner body parts

90
Q

Which of the following radiographs should have the shortest scale of contrast?

a. abdomen
b. thorax
c. femur
d. all are approximately equal

A

The abdomen, thorax and femur all have equal scale of contrast

D) all equal

91
Q

Which one is not an exposure factor?

a. kV
b. mA
c. kW
d. s

A

KW

92
Q

Alpha 2 agonists. Pick the false answer?

A)Sedative

B) Analgesic

C) emetic

D) not antagonisable

A

Not antagonisable

93
Q

Opoids.pick the false answer?

A) Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect

B) Major analgesics

C) Side effects are bradycardia and respiratory depression

D) can be antagonized by naloxone

A

A) despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect

94
Q

Full opoid agonist?

A) Naloxon

B) Buprenorphine

C) Butorphanol

D) Fentanyl

A

Fentanyl

95
Q

Inhalant anaesthetics. Pick the false answer?

Hypnotic

Muscle relaxant

No analgesic effect

Sedative

A

Sedative

96
Q

Local anaesthetics side effects. Pick the false answer?

Cardiovascular

CNS

Cell toxicity

Respiratory

A

Respiratory

97
Q

Characteristics of pain. Pick the false answer?

A. Function: physiological or pathological

B. Origin: organic or psychogenic

C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional

D. Duration: acute or chronic

A

C) Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional

98
Q

Most pulse oximeters display

A. Signal strength

B. Saturation and pulse frequency

C. Plethysmogram

D. Ratio of abnormal/normal hemoglobin types

A

Saturation and pulse frequency

for false answer its C!

SAM 4 Final Past questions (11 decks)

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