PQ 2 Flashcards
Which of the following is the permanent data of the animal?
Species;
Breed;
Sex;
Colour;
Colour pattern;
Nose/muzzle impression;
Blood group;
Marks – Whorls, blemishes or defects
What colour is the mucosa in case of hypovolaemic shock?
- Cyanotic
- Yellow
- Pale
- Dirty red
Dirty red
. What to check when you inspect the testes?
Location; Size; Shape; Structure; Surface; Painfulness; Symmetry; Movability;
Consistency; Cryptorchidism (should descend by 6 months of age → sertoli cell tumour
LMN lesion signs
Diminished or absent reflexes; Decreased or absent tone
Physical exam of the kidney
Enlarged kidney size is always associated with renal disease in cats; Painful kidney may
indicate acute disease, renal stone, or tumour.
Common causes of kidney shrinkage?
Congenital renal dysplasia; End-stage kidney disease; Chronic pyelonephritis
What can B-mode echocardiography show?
DCM & HCM
What is a pathognomic symptom?
Specific. Characteristic for a particular disease. Sign whose presence means that the
disease is present without any doubt
Instruments needed for a neurological exam
Reflex hammer; Penlight; Arterial clamp; Needle
What is anisocoria?
Unequal pupil size
What can be examined by inspection of joints?
Skin; Angle; Swelling; Deformities; Symmetry
What are the methods of neurological examination?
X-ray; EEG; CT; MRI; Blood count; Pathogen detection; CSF analysis
Type of exam commonly carried out together with an ECG
Phonocardiography (PCG) (heart sounds)
Choose the correct statement?
• CT is an X-ray tube that rotates around the patient to obtain multiple images that are then relayed to a computer that
reconstruct the image.
- MRI uses X-ray imaging
- MRI uses the properties of hydrogen atoms when warmed up
CT is an X-ray tube that rotates around the patient to obtain multiple images that are
then replayed to a computer that reconstructs the image
What is an election of the skin with fluid and volume under 1 cm without epithelial
surrounding?
- Bulla
- Vesicle
- Cyst
Vesicle
What is not part of status praesens?
- Nutritional status
- History
- General impression
History
Indications of tracheoscopy or bronchoscopy?
Acute cough in cases of suspected foreign body; Chronic cough if the cause is unknown
or the patient doesn’t respond to therapy; Unexplained abnormal breathing pattern;
Tracheal collapse → Confirmation & staging; Chronic bronchitis → Staging & sample
collection; Stridor; Removal of mucoid obstruction in atelectatic lung lobes; Suspected
narrowing of the airway; Suspected metastatic pulmonary neoplasia; Haemoptoe
Signs of conscious pain perception in the dog
Leg withdrawal
- Leg extension
- Crying
- Biting towards the examiner
- Lifting the head up
Crying; Biting towards the examiner
Indications for colonoscopy
Large bowel diarrhoea; Haematochezia; Blood in faeces; Increased faecal mucous;
Tenesmus; Dyschezia; Palpable rectal masses
Where does the basic clinical value belong to?
Status praesens
What could cause a cardiac beat dislocation?
Pneumothorax; Hydrothorax; Abscess; Tumour
What is not transient data?
Type of coat; Cropped/docked tail
What is transient data?
Age; Body weight; Brand marks; Tattoos; Micro-chips
What are the reduced mental statuses?
- Dementia
- Stupor
- Indolentia
- Somnolentia
- Delirium
- Coma
- Furor
- Aggressive
- excitatio
Dementia; Stupor; Indolentia (freedom from pain); Somnolentia (sleepy/drowsy);
Delerium; Coma
. In dogs, LSHF can lead to…
- Ascites
- Dyspnoea
- Coughing
- tachypnoe
Dyspnoea; Coughing; Tachypnoea
(FALSE – consequence of right sided heart failure)
When is RDW (red cell distribution width) elevated?
Regenerative anaemia
A papule is…
Small; Solid elevation <1cm
Acoustic impedance
Density of product x Acoustic velocity
In case of hepatopathy, AST is…
Sometimes increased; Not liver specific; Only used together with ALT; “Useless” is
apparently the correct answer?
In what conditions would you hear a stronger heartbeat?
Thin thoracic wall
. What is ataxia?
Incoordination of movement
What is true about angioedema and urticaria
- Due to corticosteroids
- Appear within 15-20h
- Usually due to vaccination, blood transfusion, bee stings (high allergic reaction)
- Not recommended to give antihistamins or calcium
- Always strong pruritus
Usually due to vaccination, blood transfusion or bee stings (allergic reaction)
How can you categorise the heart sounds by auscultation?
Frequency
Intensity
Size of the cardiac dullness
Amplitude of the hearts sounds
Rhythm
Demarcation of the heart sounds
Adventitious murmur
Turbulency of the heart sounds
Tone of the heart sounds
Resonancy of the heart sound
FRIDA: Frequency; Rhythm; Intensity; Demarcation of heart sounds; Adventitious
murmur
Which of the following findings indicate that your patient might have lower urinary
tract disease?(MCQ)
Polyuria, polydipsia
Pollakiuria
Dysuria, stranguria
Thrombosis
Sudden blindness
Central nervous signs
Periuria
Ascites
Haematuria
Pollakiuria; Dysuria; Stranguria; Periuria; Haematuria
Regarding its origin, a seizure can be
Focal
Bipol
Generalized
Lateral
Extracerebral
Extracerebellar
Generalised; Extracerebral
Which are most specific symptoms to heart disease/failure?
respiratory arrhythmia, cough
porcelain white mucous membranes, dyspnoe
murmur, arrhythmia, dyspnoe
ascites, subcutaneous edema
Murmur; Arrhythmia; Dyspnoea
What are not indications for rhinoscopy?
Sneezing, reverse sneezing
Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
Salivation
Vomitus
Facial swelling or distorsion
Suspicion of foreign body inhalation (suspicion/knowledge?!)
salivation
Vomitus
Which is a directly audible respiratory sound?
Expiratory stridor in laryngeal paralysis
Tooting/honking sound in tracheal collapse
Snoring sound in case of tracheal obstruction
Sniffing sound in case of pharyngeal stridor
Tooting/honking sound in tracheal collapse; Snoring sound in case of tracheal
obstruction
What is not classed as an additional exam?
Biopsy
Cystocentesis
Percussion
Fine needle aspiration
Percussion
Basic clinical values?
Temperature, pulse, blood pressure, respiratory rate, capillary
refilling time
Temperature, pulse, respiratory rate
Temperature, pulse, capillary refilling time, coagulation time
Pulse, heart rate, respiratory rate, rumen contraction, buccal
bleeding time
Temperature; Pulse; Respiratory rate (TPR)
The main characteristics of endoscopy(MCQ)
It is a complementary diagnostic procedure
It is a semiinvasive procedure
Cheap
Therapeutic application is not possible
Mostly performed on awake patients
Has a minimal instrumental requirement ?? What does that mean?(Endoscope=Instrumental
method)
Sample collection is not possible
Complementary diagnostic procedure; Semi-invasive procedure
Characteristic of the normal cardiac dullness during percussion on the left side
Dog: absolute
Cat: absolute
Dog: relative
Cat: relative
Dog: Absolute dullness; Cat: Relative dullness
Normal HR of cats in the clinic
60-70
120-130
140-180
220-250
140-180 bpm
Normal HR of dogs in the clinic
60-140m
The bronchial respiratory sound can be heard under normal conditions…
Only above the lung
Above the larynx and trachea
Only above the larynx
Only above the trachea
Above the larynx & trachea
Which sentence is false?
The cough originated in the larynx is retching/gagging like, has a tendency to vomit
The cough in tracheitis is loud, explosive, barking like
The cough in trachea collapse is goose honking like
The cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive, barking like
In dogs, the cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive &
barking-like
Alopecia is…MCQ
is the loss of hair and may vary from partial to complete
is a primary skin lesion in endocrine disorders and follicular dysplasias
is a secondary skin lesion to trauma or inflammation
occurs always with erythema
means increased shedding
traumatic (=secondary alopecia) is a physiologic phenomenon
is never moth eaten, or symmetrical or asymmetrical patchy
The loss of hair and may vary from partial to complete; A primary skin lesion in
endocrine disorders & follicular dysplasia; A secondary skin lesion to trauma or
inflammation; Physiologic in the case of trauma
Which sentence is not true?
Held inspiration can be due to narrowed upper airway’s
Held inspiration van be due to increased abdominal pressure
Held expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity
The narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration
The narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration
Which sentences are true?
Held expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity & micro-bronchitis
Which sentences are true?
Asymmetric breathing can be due to one main bronchus obstruction & pain in one side
of the chest
Which sentences are true?
Intermittent inspiration can be due to excitement, long exhausting work or during a
painful chest disorder
Which statement is false?
A)regurgitation is passive and consequence of disorder of oesophagus or pharynx
B)vomiting is characterized by active abdominal movement and preceded by nausea
C)the vomited content is always digested and the pH is always acidic
D)the pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic
The pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic
Which parameters cannot be examined by palpation? (MC)
Painfulness
Colour
Consistency
Movability
Smell /odour
Percussion sound
Size
Colour; Smell/odour; Percussion sound
Which parameters can be examined by palpation?(Mc)
Painfulness
Colour
Consistency
Movability
Smell /odour
Percussion sound
Size
Painfulness; Consistency; Movability; Size
What are appropriate tests to examine the endocrine function of the pancreas?
Blood glucose
TLI (tripsine-like immunorectivity) (exocrine!)
Fructosamine
Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test
Insulin
ACTH-stimulation test
Fructosamine; Insulin
Method of the hepatojugular reflux test?
A)Compress the epigastrium and observe the v. jugularis
B)compress the jugular vene and observeits refilling
C)compress the v. jugularis on one side and observe the other side
D)compare the jugular vein to the vena cava
Compress the epigastrium and observe the v. jugularis
Part of the brain responsible for mental status?
Medulla oblongata
Thalamocortex
Chiazma
Limbic system
Thalamocortex
Premedication
A) Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthetia
B) Pharmacological intervention prior to recovery of general anaesthetia
C) Pharmacological intervention after induction of general anaesthetia
D) Pharmacological intervention after recovery of general anaesthetia
Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anaesthesia
Calming
A) Analgesia
B)Anxiolysis
C) sedation
D)Anaesthetia
Sedation
Reduction of fear?
A) Analgesia
B) Anxiolysis
C) Sedation
D) Anaesthetia
Anxiolysis
Pain relief?
A) analgesia
B) anxiolysis
C) sedation
D) catalepsy
Analgesia
Catalepsy may be caused by?
A) Ketamine
B) Propofol
C) Fentanyl
D) xylazine
Ketamine
Neuroleptanalgesia. Pick the false answer?
Superficial “sleeping”;
Analgesia;
Caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination
Caused by benzodiazepine + opoid combination
Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination
Types of anaesthesia. Pick the false answer?
Local;
Regional;
General;
Subtotal
subtotal
General anaesthesia criteria. Pick the false answer?
Hypnosis;
Analgesia;
Muscles relaxant
Inhalational
Inhalational
Balanced anaesthesia. Pick the false answer?
- Acheivable with a single monoanaesthetic drug
- Consciousness may be steered with anaesthetics;
- Pain may be controlled by analgesics;
- Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants
Acheivable with a single Monoanaesthetic drug
Dissociative anaesthesia. Pick the false answer?
Thalamocortical dissociation;
Limbic depression
Peripheral analgesia;
Alteration of consciousness
Limbic depression
Phenothiazines may cause life-threatening hypotension in…
A) Dobermans
B) Boxers
C) Staffordshire terriers
D) greyhounds
Boxers
Brachycephalic breeds need. Pick the false answer?
- Pre-oxygenation;
- Short induction;
- Fast intubation
- Early extubation
early extubation
MDR-1 gene defect is detected in. Pick the false answer?
- Australian shepherd;
- English shepherd;
- German shepherd
- Pug
Pug
Preanesthetic circulatory examination. Pick the false answer?
Mucous membranes;
Spleen size
CRT;
Pulse frequency & quality
Spleen size
Preanesthetic heart function examination. Pick the false answer?
Heart muscle biopsy
Auscultation;
ECG;
US
heart muscle biopsy
Preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam? Pick the false answer?
WBC count; Haematocrit;
Parasitological examination of faeces
TPP;( total plasma protein)
Urea; Creatinine; ALT
Parasitological examination of faeces
ASA 1?
A) Healthy state
B) Symptom free state
C)low anaesthetia risk
D) age 0 day- 8 years
age 0 day- 8 years
ASA 2. pick the false answer?
A) Mild systemic disease
B) No apparent functional disorders
C)High aneaesthetia risk(in exam they had low anaesthetia risk)
D) Age 6 weeks-5 years
age 6 weeks- 5 years
ASA 3. Pick the false answer?
A) severe systemic disease
B) Visible functional impairment
C) age 6 weeks- 5 years
D) not life threatening status
C) age 6 weeks- 5 years
ASA 4. Pick the false answer?
A) severe systemic disease
B) constant threat to life
C)Age 0-3 days or over 10 years
D) age 6-16 years
D) age 6-16 years
CEPOD classification. Pick the false answer?
CEPOD I -Immediate, life-saving intervention;
CEPOD II – Urgent intervention;
CEPOD III – Intervention planned for near future;
CEPOD IV – no time for classifiation
CEPOD IV- no time for classification
Pre-anaesthetic fasting. Pick the false answer?
Usually 6 hours;
Less than 6 hours in very young patients;
Only 2 hours in emergency patients
More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs
More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs
Advantages of premedication. pick the false answer?
Decreases stress, fear & aggression;
Lowers anaesthetic demand;
Decreases drug expenditure;
Increases the excitation phase
Increases the excitation phase
Steps of general anaesthesia. Pick the false answer?
- Premedication;
- Induction;
- Recovery
- Stadium analgesia
Stadium analgesia
Effects of premedication.Pick the false answer?
Increased O2 demand
Decreases pain, stress, fear & aggression;
Decreases anaesthetic dosage, side-effects & costs;
Eliminated the excitation
Increased O2 demand
Reasons of vein cannulation. choose the wrong answer?
Drug administration;
Fluid therapy;
Emergency access
Monitoring core temperature
Monitoring core temperature
Preferred drugs for induction. Pick the false answer?
Anaesthetics with moderate (or no) side effects;
Long duration
Rapid onset of action;
Short duration or counteractable
Long duration
Maintenance of general anaesthesia. pick the false answer?
Epidural
Intramuscular;
Intravenous;
Inhalational
Epidural
Role of the anaesthesiologist. pick the false answer?
Control the depth of anaesthesia;
Reduce surgical time
Patient monitoring;
Maintain homeostasis
Reduce surgical time
Stages of narcosis (I-IV) pick the false answer?
A– Stadium analgesiae (induction phase);
B – Stadium excitationis (excitatory phase);
C – Stadium tolerantiae (surgical narcosis);
D – Stadium asphyxiae deep surgical narcosis
D stadium asphyxiae (deep surgical narcosis)
Characteristics of general anaesthesia. pick the false answer?
Unconsciousness;
Lack of perception;
Analgesia
Muscle rigidity
Muscle rigidity
