PQ6 Flashcards
Which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism?
a. the choice of anesthetic is substantially influenced by the underlying
endocrine changes
b. the actual risk factors are multiorgan changes that result from the primary
condition ( ie hyperadrenocorticism )
c. pathological changes associated with the disease result in safer anaesthesia
d. limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation
necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia
Limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation necessary in the
maintenance phase of anaesthesia
Which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics?
a. they are flammable and explosive agents
b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp
c. in low doses , they are no threat to the health of the surgical personnel in the
long run (occupational risk)
d. as isoflurane is highly irritative as inhalation , halothane is preferred for mask
induction
Most inhalant anaesthetics are liquid at room temperature
Where are the scrotal incisions made for castration?
a. along the line of raphe scroti
b. parallel with raphe scroti -1cm from the midline, 1 incision
c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions
d. parallel with raphe scroti- 5cm from the midline ,2 incisions
Parallel with raphe scroti, 1 cm from the midline; 2 incisions
Which belong to the core vaccines in dogs?
Leptospira; Parvoviral enteritis; Distemper; Rubarth disease; Rabies; Canine hepatitis
Which muscles can be used for IM drug application?
M. semitendinosus/semimembranosus
To perform a complete blood count exam, you need…
EDTA blood sampling tube
In case of hypovolaemia, the first-choice infusion is…
Lactated ringer solution
In case of epistaxis…
As soon as possible haemostasis & coagulation profile test are required
The point of maintenance infusion therapy is to…
Treat dehydration
Characteristics of feline herpes viral rhinitis
Bilateral mucopurulent nasal & ocular discharge
The concept of moist wound therapy does not include…
A wet to dry dressing
Primary assessment of the circulation, which is incorrect?
a. Detection of bleeding
b. Perform ECG and heart US examination
c. Check mucous membranes and CRT
d. Check pulse rate and quality
Perform ECG and heart US
What does “3-metric” mean on a suture material pack
Material is 0.3mm in diameter
Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis
Crackles & wheezes with auscultation
What is the golden period in treatment of fresh traumatic wounds?
6-8 hours from injury
During the early healing phase, what are the most essential WBCs in the wound?
a. the neutrophyl granulocyte
b. the monocyte
c. the T-Lymphocyte
d. the eosinophyl granulocyte
Monocytes( macrophages)
What characterises the proliferative phase of wound healing?
angiogenesis
Granulation tissue is especially sensitive to…
Dessication
Primary wound closure should be avoided in…
gunshot and bite wounds
Delayed primary closure
Is usually performed 2-5 days after injury
Which statement is false?
Wounds are rinsed with large volumes of hydrogen peroxide
Preferred method of debridement in a fresh lacerated wound is
Surgical
In case of wound infection presumable caused by a multi-resistance organism
The patient should be treated in isolation wearing protective clothing
First aid key points
Haemostasis & prevention of further contamination
The concept of moist wound treatment is
Based on the idea of preserving wound exudate in contact with the wound surface
Which statement is false?
A good bandage reduced blood flow to the wound
Which contact layer is most suitable for heavily exudating wounds?
Calcium alginate
Used as a topical wound medication, the mechanism of action is based on
hyperosmolarity
Sugar & honey
Surgical site infection
Often results in wound b breakdown and dehiscence (rupture)
A layer of the Robert-jones bandage
Secondary absorbent layer – Cotton wool
. Not a risk factor for wound infection
obesity
Which statement is correct?
Sugar wound therapy enhances granulation
Pseudomonas spp. grows from a sample from the surface of a wound with healthy
granulation tissue. This is most likely due to…
contamination
What is the most dangerous complication of bandaging?
distal limb oedema
Which does not require emergency care?
Tracheal hypoplasia; Heartworm disease; Gastric ulcer; Hydrocephalus; Cystitis;
Patellar luxation; Subcutaneous/skin autoimmune disease
Which statement is false?
All critical care patients require intensive ward care
Which statement is false?
Primary survey is used to determine all organic disorders
Which statement is false?
Primary assessment of the circulation. Mark the incorrect answer!
a. Detection of bleeding
b. Perform ECG and heart US examination
c. Check mucous membranes and CRT
d. Check pulse rate and quality
b) Perform ECG and heart Us examination
When can you see the foetal skeleton on the x-ray?
After the 45th day
When can HD (hip dysplasia) be seen on the x-ray?
After 6 months
If you see decreased radiopacity of the femoral head & neck on an x-ray of a spitz,
what do you suspect?
Perthe’s disease
How early do you x-ray a dog with ileus once fed with contrast medium
12 hours
What is the principle of ALARA
To keep the radiation As Low As Reasonably Achievable
When can an osteophyte be detected?
after 3 weeks
Which part of the carpus is the most affected in OCD?
cartilage
“Hansen I” can also be described as…
An extrusion; Typical in chondrodystrophic breeds, calcification of the nucleus
pulposis, anulus fibrosis rupture and rapid deterioration
Statement of bone tumour; Age and type
5-6 years: Middle/large breeds; Fibrosarcoma, malignant melanoma, squamous cell
carcinoma
Predisposed for Perthe’s disease
Young, small toy breeds
Bilateral forelimb periosteal reaction, what should be x-rayed next?
Thoracic cavity; Lung for metastasis
What bone disease leads to fracture?
Renal osteodystrophy
What is seen on x-ray in case of intestinal linear foreign body?
Intestines appear pleated
Hansen type-II
Large breeds; Aged > 8 years; Nuleus pulposis fibrinisation; Annulus fibrosus intact;
Protrusion; Chronic process
Fusion time of anconeus process?
4-5 months
Security around x-rays?
Radiation of vet > Radiation of patient; People are not allowed to restrain the animal;
ALARA; Immobilise by sedation; Lead apron; Thyroid gland protection; Lead gloves;
Rotate restrainer; Distance; Personal monitoring device
Tissue radiodensity in order
Metal/stone (Radiopaque) > Bone > Fluid/soft tissue > Fat > Gas (Radiolucent)
Position of malignant bone tumours?
Stifle near; Elbow far
Which beam emits the most UV radiation?
UV beams
Common disease in Westie?
Craniomandibular osteopathy
Developmental disease of the spine in small animals
Spina bifida; Block vertebrae; Hemivertebrae; Transient vertebrae
Which contrast media would you choose for the urinary tract?
Hyperosmotic; Ionic iodine
Where do we do the epidural injection?
Sacro-coccygeal junction; C1 – C2
Tracheal collapse of the cervical trachea is seen during
inspiration
Tracheal collapse of the thoracic trachea is seen during
expiration
What does kV mean?
Kilovolt – Unit of electrical potential
What does mAs mean?
Miliampere – Unit used for electric current
What types of x-ray generators are used today?
Single-phase with low capacity; 3-phase which needs 3 phase electric current; Highfrequency, largest and most stable capacity
Which disorder is mostly diagnosed on a plain abdominal radiograph?
Intestinal obstruction
Which statement is not true? In a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen
On the left in DV view
Which statement is true? In a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen
Ventrally in left lateral recumbency; Ventrally in the right lateral recumbency; On the
right in VD view
Which statement is false?
If there is no dangerous amount of fluid in the oral cavity, remove the tube with the cuff
inflated
Which statement is false?
Stadium analgesiae – Max. pupil dilation; Ø Corneal tension
Which statement is false?
a. Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia
invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine
b. High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action
c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good
general condition
d. It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive
Acepromazine should have a higher does because lower doses notably elongate the
duration of action
Which statement is false?
Propofol general dose: 0.5 ml/bwkg IV
Which statement is true?
Propofol general dose: 5 mg/bwkg IV
Which statement is false?Mixing system of the anaesthetic machine?
a. Y-piece
b. Absorbed canister with soda lime
c. Flowmeter
d. Breathing tubes
Mixing system of the anaesthetic machine – Absorbed canister with soda lime
Which statement is false?
Parameters of ventilation – Inhalation:Exhalation time ratio = 1:2-8:1
Which statement is true?
Parameters of ventilation – Inhalation:Exhalation time ratio = 1:2 – 1:3
Which statement is false?
Capnometry – paCO2 < etCO2
. Which statement is false?
Pain sensation is not influenced by fear & stress
Which statement is false?
Pain management is not very important in young animals, but it is in adults
Which statement is false?
Preoperative analgesics – Phenothiazine but butyrophenone derivates
Which statement is false?
Antagonists – Propofol: Dantrolene
Which statement is false?
Physical characteristics of young patients – BBB is less permeable, so puppies until 4
weeks of age require higher doses
Which statement is false?
Old patients have increased vital capacity, respiratory frequency & compliance
Which statement is false?
Opioids cannot be administered intraoperatively
Which statement is false?
Epidural anaesthesia – 10% lidocaine is most frequently used
Which statement is true?
Epidural anaesthesia – 2% lidocaine is most frequently used
Which statement is false?
Most postoperative complications can be manifested using balance anaesthesia (PIVA)
Which statement is true?
Greyhounds should not be given thiopental
Which statement is true?
Boxers should not be given phenothiazines
Which statement is true?
Large breeds & individuals are sensitive to hypoxia
Which statement is true?
Premedication – ACP + Butorphanol
Which statement is true?
Premedication – Medetomidine + Butorphanol
Which statement is true?
Premedication – Midazolam + Butorphanol
Which statement is true?
Premedication – Medetomidine + Butorphanol + Butorphanol
Which statement is true?
Premedication – Diazepam + Butorphanol
Which statement is true?
Premedication – Fentanyl
Which statement is true?
Pre-operative antibiotics are indicated in orthopaedic surgery – 30 mins prior and a second dose lasting for 3 hours
When should antibiotics be used?
If surgery >90 mins; Implantation; Infection; Orthopaedics; Oesophageal; Dirty
surgery – Faecal/urine contamination
Which drugs are contraindicated in liver patients?
Ketamine; Diazepam; Methoxyflurane; Halothane – Fentanyl is recommended
Which drug is given in cases of spinal injury?
Methylprednisolone
Which statement is true?
Propofol has no antagonists
In patients with decreased kidney perfusion, we can give…
Propofol & Inhalational anaesthetic (but not alpha 2-agonists)
Which statement is false?
General anaesthesia causes rigid muscles
You don’t give ketamine to patients with…
Heart problems; Glaucoma; Head trauma patients; Hyperthyroidism patients
Which statement is false?
X-ray beams are generated in the generator (X-ray tube is correct)
Which statement is false?
The anode is the negatively charged in the x-ray tube
Which statement is true?
The intensifying screen and the image receptor in the fluoroscope are made of the same material
Which statement is false?
DR systems use laser scanners to read the phosphor plate
Which statement is true?
Intensifying screens with larger crystal size require a smaller dose of radiation
Which statement is true?
Decreasing the film-object distance results in sharper image
Which statement is true?
Yellow discolouration of the image is a result of insufficient film rinsing
Which statement is true?
Too light images can be corrected by increasing the exposure values
Which statement is true?
Green sensitive films are pink
Which statement is true?
Dosimeters need to be sent to a lab to analyse radiation exposure
The lead apron should contain…
0.5mm Pb equivalent of lead-rubber
Which statement is false?
Barium sulphate can be used for urography
The dose of BaSO4 for gastric emptying studies is…
10-15 ml//kg
Rupture of the ureter can be examined by…
IV contrast
Which statement is true?
Iodine must be given for suspected oesophageal/GI rupture because BaSO4 is
contraindicated
Which statement is false?
The oesophagus is visible on the survey radiograph
Which statement is false?
The most used negative contrast medium is BaSO4 (Not true because it is a positive
contrast medium; Air is a negative contrast medium)
Which statement is false?
Excretory urography can be used for examination of the kidney, ureter, bladder &
urethra (false because tis contrast stops at the bladder due to the sphincter)
Which statement is true?
BaSO4 tends to adhere to mucosal lesions
