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SAM 4 Final Past questions > PQ6 > Flashcards

PQ6 Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism?

a. the choice of anesthetic is substantially influenced by the underlying

endocrine changes

b. the actual risk factors are multiorgan changes that result from the primary

condition ( ie hyperadrenocorticism )

c. pathological changes associated with the disease result in safer anaesthesia
d. limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation

necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

A

Limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation necessary in the

maintenance phase of anaesthesia

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2
Q

Which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics?

a. they are flammable and explosive agents
b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp
c. in low doses , they are no threat to the health of the surgical personnel in the

long run (occupational risk)

d. as isoflurane is highly irritative as inhalation , halothane is preferred for mask

induction

A

Most inhalant anaesthetics are liquid at room temperature

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3
Q

Where are the scrotal incisions made for castration?

a. along the line of raphe scroti
b. parallel with raphe scroti -1cm from the midline, 1 incision
c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions
d. parallel with raphe scroti- 5cm from the midline ,2 incisions

A

Parallel with raphe scroti, 1 cm from the midline; 2 incisions

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4
Q

Which belong to the core vaccines in dogs?

A

Leptospira; Parvoviral enteritis; Distemper; Rubarth disease; Rabies; Canine hepatitis

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5
Q

Which muscles can be used for IM drug application?

A

M. semitendinosus/semimembranosus

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6
Q

To perform a complete blood count exam, you need…

A

EDTA blood sampling tube

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7
Q

In case of hypovolaemia, the first-choice infusion is…

A

Lactated ringer solution

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8
Q

In case of epistaxis…

A

As soon as possible haemostasis & coagulation profile test are required

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9
Q

The point of maintenance infusion therapy is to…

A

Treat dehydration

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10
Q

Characteristics of feline herpes viral rhinitis

A

Bilateral mucopurulent nasal & ocular discharge

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11
Q

The concept of moist wound therapy does not include…

A

A wet to dry dressing

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12
Q

Primary assessment of the circulation, which is incorrect?

a. Detection of bleeding
b. Perform ECG and heart US examination
c. Check mucous membranes and CRT
d. Check pulse rate and quality

A

Perform ECG and heart US

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13
Q

What does “3-metric” mean on a suture material pack

A

Material is 0.3mm in diameter

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14
Q

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis

A

Crackles & wheezes with auscultation

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15
Q

What is the golden period in treatment of fresh traumatic wounds?

A

6-8 hours from injury

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16
Q

During the early healing phase, what are the most essential WBCs in the wound?

a. the neutrophyl granulocyte
b. the monocyte
c. the T-Lymphocyte
d. the eosinophyl granulocyte

A

Monocytes( macrophages)

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17
Q

What characterises the proliferative phase of wound healing?

A

angiogenesis

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18
Q

Granulation tissue is especially sensitive to…

A

Dessication

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19
Q

Primary wound closure should be avoided in…

A

gunshot and bite wounds

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20
Q

Delayed primary closure

A

Is usually performed 2-5 days after injury

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21
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Wounds are rinsed with large volumes of hydrogen peroxide

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22
Q

Preferred method of debridement in a fresh lacerated wound is

A

Surgical

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23
Q

In case of wound infection presumable caused by a multi-resistance organism

A

The patient should be treated in isolation wearing protective clothing

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24
Q

First aid key points

A

Haemostasis & prevention of further contamination

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25
Q

The concept of moist wound treatment is

A

Based on the idea of preserving wound exudate in contact with the wound surface

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26
Q

Which statement is false?

A

A good bandage reduced blood flow to the wound

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27
Q

Which contact layer is most suitable for heavily exudating wounds?

A

Calcium alginate

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28
Q

Used as a topical wound medication, the mechanism of action is based on

hyperosmolarity

A

Sugar & honey

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29
Q

Surgical site infection

A

Often results in wound b breakdown and dehiscence (rupture)

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30
Q

A layer of the Robert-jones bandage

A

Secondary absorbent layer – Cotton wool

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31
Q

. Not a risk factor for wound infection

A

obesity

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32
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

Sugar wound therapy enhances granulation

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33
Q

Pseudomonas spp. grows from a sample from the surface of a wound with healthy

granulation tissue. This is most likely due to…

A

contamination

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34
Q

What is the most dangerous complication of bandaging?

A

distal limb oedema

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35
Q

Which does not require emergency care?

A

Tracheal hypoplasia; Heartworm disease; Gastric ulcer; Hydrocephalus; Cystitis;

Patellar luxation; Subcutaneous/skin autoimmune disease

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36
Q

Which statement is false?

A

All critical care patients require intensive ward care

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37
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Primary survey is used to determine all organic disorders

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38
Q

Which statement is false?

Primary assessment of the circulation. Mark the incorrect answer!

a. Detection of bleeding
b. Perform ECG and heart US examination
c. Check mucous membranes and CRT
d. Check pulse rate and quality

A

b) Perform ECG and heart Us examination

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39
Q

When can you see the foetal skeleton on the x-ray?

A

After the 45th day

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40
Q

When can HD (hip dysplasia) be seen on the x-ray?

A

After 6 months

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41
Q

If you see decreased radiopacity of the femoral head & neck on an x-ray of a spitz,

what do you suspect?

A

Perthe’s disease

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42
Q

How early do you x-ray a dog with ileus once fed with contrast medium

A

12 hours

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43
Q

What is the principle of ALARA

A

To keep the radiation As Low As Reasonably Achievable

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44
Q

When can an osteophyte be detected?

A

after 3 weeks

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45
Q

Which part of the carpus is the most affected in OCD?

A

cartilage

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46
Q

“Hansen I” can also be described as…

A

An extrusion; Typical in chondrodystrophic breeds, calcification of the nucleus

pulposis, anulus fibrosis rupture and rapid deterioration

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47
Q

Statement of bone tumour; Age and type

A

5-6 years: Middle/large breeds; Fibrosarcoma, malignant melanoma, squamous cell

carcinoma

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48
Q

Predisposed for Perthe’s disease

A

Young, small toy breeds

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49
Q

Bilateral forelimb periosteal reaction, what should be x-rayed next?

A

Thoracic cavity; Lung for metastasis

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50
Q

What bone disease leads to fracture?

A

Renal osteodystrophy

51
Q

What is seen on x-ray in case of intestinal linear foreign body?

A

Intestines appear pleated

52
Q

Hansen type-II

A

Large breeds; Aged > 8 years; Nuleus pulposis fibrinisation; Annulus fibrosus intact;

Protrusion; Chronic process

53
Q

Fusion time of anconeus process?

A

4-5 months

54
Q

Security around x-rays?

A

Radiation of vet > Radiation of patient; People are not allowed to restrain the animal;

ALARA; Immobilise by sedation; Lead apron; Thyroid gland protection; Lead gloves;

Rotate restrainer; Distance; Personal monitoring device

55
Q

Tissue radiodensity in order

A

Metal/stone (Radiopaque) > Bone > Fluid/soft tissue > Fat > Gas (Radiolucent)

56
Q

Position of malignant bone tumours?

A

Stifle near; Elbow far

57
Q

Which beam emits the most UV radiation?

A

UV beams

58
Q

Common disease in Westie?

A

Craniomandibular osteopathy

59
Q

Developmental disease of the spine in small animals

A

Spina bifida; Block vertebrae; Hemivertebrae; Transient vertebrae

60
Q

Which contrast media would you choose for the urinary tract?

A

Hyperosmotic; Ionic iodine

61
Q

Where do we do the epidural injection?

A

Sacro-coccygeal junction; C1 – C2

62
Q

Tracheal collapse of the cervical trachea is seen during

A

inspiration

63
Q

Tracheal collapse of the thoracic trachea is seen during

A

expiration

64
Q

What does kV mean?

A

Kilovolt – Unit of electrical potential

65
Q

What does mAs mean?

A

Miliampere – Unit used for electric current

66
Q

What types of x-ray generators are used today?

A

Single-phase with low capacity; 3-phase which needs 3 phase electric current; Highfrequency, largest and most stable capacity

67
Q

Which disorder is mostly diagnosed on a plain abdominal radiograph?

A

Intestinal obstruction

68
Q

Which statement is not true? In a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen

A

On the left in DV view

69
Q

Which statement is true? In a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen

A

Ventrally in left lateral recumbency; Ventrally in the right lateral recumbency; On the

right in VD view

70
Q

Which statement is false?

A

If there is no dangerous amount of fluid in the oral cavity, remove the tube with the cuff

inflated

71
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Stadium analgesiae – Max. pupil dilation; Ø Corneal tension

72
Q

Which statement is false?

a. Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia

invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine

b. High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action
c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good

general condition

d. It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive

A

Acepromazine should have a higher does because lower doses notably elongate the

duration of action

73
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Propofol general dose: 0.5 ml/bwkg IV

74
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Propofol general dose: 5 mg/bwkg IV

75
Q

Which statement is false?Mixing system of the anaesthetic machine?

a. Y-piece
b. Absorbed canister with soda lime
c. Flowmeter
d. Breathing tubes

A

Mixing system of the anaesthetic machine – Absorbed canister with soda lime

76
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Parameters of ventilation – Inhalation:Exhalation time ratio = 1:2-8:1

77
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Parameters of ventilation – Inhalation:Exhalation time ratio = 1:2 – 1:3

78
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Capnometry – paCO2 < etCO2

79
Q

. Which statement is false?

A

Pain sensation is not influenced by fear & stress

80
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Pain management is not very important in young animals, but it is in adults

81
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Preoperative analgesics – Phenothiazine but butyrophenone derivates

82
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Antagonists – Propofol: Dantrolene

83
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Physical characteristics of young patients – BBB is less permeable, so puppies until 4

weeks of age require higher doses

84
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Old patients have increased vital capacity, respiratory frequency & compliance

85
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Opioids cannot be administered intraoperatively

86
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Epidural anaesthesia – 10% lidocaine is most frequently used

87
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Epidural anaesthesia – 2% lidocaine is most frequently used

88
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Most postoperative complications can be manifested using balance anaesthesia (PIVA)

89
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Greyhounds should not be given thiopental

90
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Boxers should not be given phenothiazines

91
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Large breeds & individuals are sensitive to hypoxia

92
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Premedication – ACP + Butorphanol

93
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Premedication – Medetomidine + Butorphanol

94
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Premedication – Midazolam + Butorphanol

95
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Premedication – Medetomidine + Butorphanol + Butorphanol

96
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Premedication – Diazepam + Butorphanol

97
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Premedication – Fentanyl

98
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Pre-operative antibiotics are indicated in orthopaedic surgery – 30 mins prior and a second dose lasting for 3 hours

99
Q

When should antibiotics be used?

A

If surgery >90 mins; Implantation; Infection; Orthopaedics; Oesophageal; Dirty

surgery – Faecal/urine contamination

100
Q

Which drugs are contraindicated in liver patients?

A

Ketamine; Diazepam; Methoxyflurane; Halothane – Fentanyl is recommended

101
Q

Which drug is given in cases of spinal injury?

A

Methylprednisolone

102
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Propofol has no antagonists

103
Q

In patients with decreased kidney perfusion, we can give…

A

Propofol & Inhalational anaesthetic (but not alpha 2-agonists)

104
Q

Which statement is false?

A

General anaesthesia causes rigid muscles

105
Q

You don’t give ketamine to patients with…

A

Heart problems; Glaucoma; Head trauma patients; Hyperthyroidism patients

106
Q

Which statement is false?

A

X-ray beams are generated in the generator (X-ray tube is correct)

107
Q

Which statement is false?

A

The anode is the negatively charged in the x-ray tube

108
Q

Which statement is true?

A

The intensifying screen and the image receptor in the fluoroscope are made of the same material

109
Q

Which statement is false?

A

DR systems use laser scanners to read the phosphor plate

110
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Intensifying screens with larger crystal size require a smaller dose of radiation

111
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Decreasing the film-object distance results in sharper image

112
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Yellow discolouration of the image is a result of insufficient film rinsing

113
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Too light images can be corrected by increasing the exposure values

114
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Green sensitive films are pink

115
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Dosimeters need to be sent to a lab to analyse radiation exposure

116
Q

The lead apron should contain…

A

0.5mm Pb equivalent of lead-rubber

117
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Barium sulphate can be used for urography

118
Q

The dose of BaSO4 for gastric emptying studies is…

A

10-15 ml//kg

119
Q

Rupture of the ureter can be examined by…

A

IV contrast

120
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Iodine must be given for suspected oesophageal/GI rupture because BaSO4 is

contraindicated

121
Q

Which statement is false?

A

The oesophagus is visible on the survey radiograph

122
Q

Which statement is false?

A

The most used negative contrast medium is BaSO4 (Not true because it is a positive

contrast medium; Air is a negative contrast medium)

123
Q

Which statement is false?

A

Excretory urography can be used for examination of the kidney, ureter, bladder &

urethra (false because tis contrast stops at the bladder due to the sphincter)

124
Q

Which statement is true?

A

BaSO4 tends to adhere to mucosal lesions

SAM 4 Final Past questions (11 decks)

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