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Pod practice > Pimp Questions > Flashcards

Pimp Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Who came up with the total contact cast, Where and for what disease

A

Brand, in India, for Hansen’s disease

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2
Q

4 rules for treating pilon fractures

A
  • Fibular reduction
  • Tibial plafond reduction
  • Fill void with cancellous bone
  • Stabilize medial tibia with a buttress plate
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3
Q

At what concentration do you consider there to be a bacterial load

A

10^6

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4
Q

What is gout of the first MPJ called

A

Pedagra

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5
Q

What procedures is use of a tourniquet contraindicated (4)

A

-Revascularization procedures, infection, sickle cell and open fractures

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6
Q

What antibiotic results in increased CPK levels

A

Daptomycin

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7
Q

What is the medical term for finding gas in the soft tissue

A

emphysema

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8
Q

What antibiotic is contraindicated in pts with CHF

A

Timentin

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9
Q

Who founded triple arthrodesis

A

Ryerson

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10
Q

Who founded arthroscopy

A

Tagaki

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11
Q

What is Fournier disease

A

gangrene of the penis

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12
Q

What is the origin of protamine sulfate

A

salmon sperm

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13
Q

What is another name for the lateral extensile excision

A

Berniski and Sangoren

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14
Q

What does HMPAO stand for

A

hexamethylpropylenamine oxime

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15
Q

What is May -Thurner syndrome

A

the left LE is swollen all the way to the thigh due to the left common external iliac artery compressing over the right common external iliac vein.

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16
Q

What is a locking plate and when is the best time to use it

A

A locking plate provides no compression of any sort

-great for osteoporosis, bone deficits and comminution

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17
Q

What is Coonrad bugg trapping

A

When the medial malleolus cannot be brought back into place due to the PTT

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18
Q

What are the components of triple antibiotic

A
  • Bacitracin
  • Polymyxin
  • Neomycin
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19
Q

What antibiotics should be used to treat MRSA

A
  • Clindamycin
  • Bactrim
  • Linezolid
  • Tetracycline
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20
Q

What antibiotics should be used to treat pseudomonas

A
  • Fortaz
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Timentin
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Imipenem
  • Atreonam
  • Zosyn
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21
Q

What sign is indicative of a unicameral bone cyst

A

fallen fragment sign

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22
Q

What does AO stand for

A

Arbeitgemeinschaft fur Osteosynthesefragen

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23
Q

What does TMP/SMX stand for

A

Trimethoprim/ Sulfamethoxazole

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24
Q

What sign presents to the medial calcaneus in flatfeet

A

Pizogenic sign which is fat papule herniations

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25
Q

What is the ESR value to be expected with osteomyelitis

A

60-70

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26
Q

What are the 3 ways that a wound vac works

A

1) To get rid of stagnant bacteria
2) Promote new blood flow to the area with growth factors and neutrophils
3) Allows for even growth of the wound bed, and keeps callouses from forming

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27
Q

When is the Evans osteotomy contraindicated

A

with a z-foot, and met adductus

28
Q

Why is the Evans osteotomy cut made where it is

A

Made 1.5 cm proximal of CC joint because this is the halfway point between the anterior articulating surface and middle articulating surface of the calcaneus

29
Q

What is congential vertical talus known as

A

Known as Persian slipper

30
Q

What test differentiates between FF and RF cavus foot

A

Coleman block test

31
Q

What does TLS stand for and who invented it

A

Tiny little sucker

Kalish

32
Q

What is the medical terminology for pain out of proportion

A

allodynia

33
Q

What is the angle formed by the metatarsal parabola

A

142 degrees

34
Q

What procedure should be done for a flexible FF driven cavus

A

Jones Tenosuspension

35
Q

What procedure should be done for a rigid FF driven cavus

A

DFWO

36
Q

What procedure should be done for a flexible RF driven cavus

A

Dwyer osteotomy

37
Q

What procedure should be done for a rigid RF driven cavus

A

Triple arthrodesis

38
Q

What is the blair procedure and what should it be used for

A

When the body of the talus is removed, the foot is fused in 15 degrees dorsiflexion. This procedure is used for AVN of the talus

39
Q

What oral meds are okay to give during Charcot Neuropathy

A

bisphosphonates

40
Q

Why do you measure screw size beore tapping

A

Because you may get a false reading by engaging one of the threads instead of the far cortex

41
Q

How long do you brace with the Ponsetti method?

A

recommended for 2-4 years

42
Q

What do you do after bracing with the Ponsetti method

A

brace for 2 additional years with the Dennis-Browne bar

43
Q

Define dive punch piece

A
  • Triangular wedge of tibia that drives the rest of a pilon fracture
44
Q

What does nitinol stand for

A

Nickel Titanium Naval Ordinance Laboratory

45
Q

Why transect tendons proximally during amputations

A
  • to prevent infection from tracking up tendons
46
Q

What telltale descriptor is used to describe OM bony changes

A

cortical disruption

47
Q

What is the medical term for seizures that occur with alcohol withdrawal?

A

delirium tresms

48
Q

In a Senn retractor what is opposite the “rake side”

A

The vein side

-great for holding back veins and other vascular structures

49
Q

What layer of the nerve does a Morton’s neuroma usually develop in

A

in the epineurium

50
Q

What is the medical term for rolled edges along wound bed

A

epipilee

51
Q

What is the term for congenitally missing fibula

A

fibular hemimelia

52
Q

What does ABD stand for

A

Army battle dressings

53
Q

Difference in shapes between medial and lateral OCD’s of the talus

A

medial: cup (PIMP CUP)
lateral: wafer

54
Q

What 2 instruments can be used to get a bone biopsy

A

Jamshidi needle and Keith needle

55
Q

What does the CAM in CAM boot stand for

A

controlled ankle motion

56
Q

What bacteria is incorporated into Santyl

A

Chlostridium histolytica

57
Q

What is the Historical name for arthroplasty procedures and when was it founded

A

“post procedure” founded in 1882

58
Q

What skin sign is seen in calciphylaxis

A

Tram track sign

59
Q

What is the depth of 1st met-cuneiform joint

A

3.23 cm

60
Q

What 3 products are used exclusively in the OR to prevent excessive bleeding

A

Surgicell

Gelfoam

Arista

61
Q

What is the telltale histological difference between exostosis and tumor

A

Exostosis contain hyaline cartilage around the periphery

Tumor contains fibrocartilage around the periphery

62
Q

What is the difference in PSI versus pulse lavage and bulb lavage

A

Pulse lavage: 12-15psi

Bulb lavage: 3-5 psi

63
Q

What is the MRI classification system for PT tendon pathology

A

conti

64
Q

What is the intra-op classification system for PT tendon pathology

A

funk

65
Q

What are the side effects of steroid use

A
  • Leukocytosis
  • increased wound healing time
  • hyperglycemia
  • hypopigmentation
66
Q

What are the names of the 5 neuromas in the foot, and their location

A
  • Joplins neuroma: medial to 1st MPJ
  • Hooters neuroma: between 1st,2nd MPJ
  • Hauser’s neuroma: between 2nd and 3rd MPJ
  • Morton’s neuroma: between 3rd and 4th MPJ
  • Iselin’s neuroma: between 4th and 5th MPJ
67
Q

What are the most common etiologies for Brachymetatarsia

A
  • Turner’s syndrome

- Down’s syndrome

Pod practice (75 decks)

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