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(2) Banche di Prova 📝 > PHYSMOD: 3rd Shifting > Flashcards

PHYSMOD: 3rd Shifting Flashcards

1
Q

In this type of disc herniation, only the outermost fibers of the annulus fibrosus contain the nucleus:
a. Protrusion
b. Prolapse
c. Extrusion
d. Sequestration

A

b. Prolapse

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2
Q

What nerve root exits between C7 and T1?
a. C7
b. C8
c. T1
d. None

A

b. C8

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3
Q

On the 12th minute of lumbar traction, your pt with low back pain due to radiculopathy is reporting that his pain is completely eliminated already. What will you do in this scenario?
a. Stop the machine because the goal of pain relief was already achieved
b. Continue the operation of the machine to complete the prescribed 20 minutes
c. Stop the machine and assess the motor and sensory functions of the patient
d. Do not believe the patient. Reset the parameters with a higher pulling force and start again
e. Loosen the chest strap so the patient can breathe better

A

c. Stop the machine and assess the motor and sensory functions of the patient

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4
Q

Based on MRI, there is reduced space in the intervertebral foramina that is causing radiculopathy. What should be the position of the neck during traction to address this finding?
a. Flexion
b. Extension

A

a. Flexion

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5
Q

Which of the examination procedures are important to perform before and after the application of cervical traction?
i. Pain assessment
ii. Range of motion measurement of the cervical
spine
iii. Muscle strength testing neck flexors
iv. Special tests for vertebrobasilar insufficiency

a. Only I and II are correct
b. Only IV
c. I, II, and III
d. All of the above

A

a. Only I and II are correct

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6
Q

The following are considered contraindications for the use of traction according to Cameron, except:
a. Uncontrolled hypertension
b. Increase of >10 bpm in heart rate
c. (+) joint instability
d. None of these

A

d. None of these

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7
Q

Relaxation of paraspinal muscles using traction is due to which of the following:
i. Reduction of nerve pain
ii. Inhibition of the firing of gamma motor neuron
iii. Decreased monosynaptic response
iv. Stimulation of the golgi apparatus

a. Only I and III are correct
b. Only IV
c. I, II, and III
d. All of the above

A

a. Only I and III are correct

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8
Q

In setting traction parameters, shorter hold times are used for displacements. Longer hold times are used for symptoms related to joint dysfunction.
a. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
b. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
c. Both statements are correct
d. Both statements are incorrect

A

d. Both statements are incorrect

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9
Q

Initially, the amount of force to be used during cervical traction is
A. 3 kg
B. 4 kg
C. 5 kg
D. 6 kg

A

A. 3 kg

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10
Q

Greater separation of the cervical segments in the sitting position compared to the supine position. Greater relaxation of muscles is achieved in supine compared to sitting position.
a. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
b. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
c. Both statements are correct
d. Both statements are incorrect

A

b. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true

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11
Q

To target maximum posterior elongation of the cervical spine, the neck should be in this position

A

25-35 degrees of flexion

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12
Q

To stretch soft tissues in the cervical spine, how much force should you use?
A. 3 kg
B. 5 kg
C. 6 kg
D. 7 kg

A

B. 5 kg

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13
Q

If the body weight of the patient is 100 lbs, how much force do you need to achieve joint distraction in the cervical spine?
A. 7 lbs
B. 10 lbs
C. 25 lbs
D. 30 lbs

A

A. 7 lbs

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14
Q

According to Cameron, the recommended hold and relax times to induce muscle relaxation is
A. 3/3s
B. 5/5s
C. 8/8s
D. 20/20s

A

B. 5/5s

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15
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Using at least 7 kg pulling force to reduce disc protrusion is consistent in the application of cervical traction and therefore should be included in the documentation.

A

True

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16
Q

Which of the following results to swelling/edema?
Answer C if correct and W if
otherwise.
1. Increase in interstitial hydrostatic pressure
2. Increase in vascular hydrostatic pressure
3. Increase in interstitial oncotic pressure
4. Increase in vascular oncotic pressure

A
  1. W
  2. C
  3. C
  4. W
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17
Q

IPC is used to eliminate hypertrophic scarring. This type of scar does not extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound.
A. Only the 1st statement is true
B. Only the 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

B. Only the 2nd statement is true

Hypertrophic scar is only controlled not eliminated.

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18
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: When using multi-layer compression bandaging,
the high-stretch bandage is used more
superficially than the low-stretch bandage

A

False

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19
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Sequential graded multi-chamber sleeves provide greater pressure proximally producing the most effective milking reaction for swelling.

A

False

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20
Q

You have a patient who was diagnosed with lymphedema of the LE> VS are as follows: BP = 112/68 mmHG, HR = 73 bpm, RR = 11 cpm. You have decided to use IPC considering that there
are no contraindications. Which is an appropriate inflation pressure?
A. 20 mmHg
B. 65 mmHg
C. 82 mmHg
D. 112 mmHg

A

B. 65 mmHg

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21
Q

Answer A if I is greater than II, B is I is less than II

Influence on interstitial hydrostatic pressure
i. Multiples layers of bandage
ii. Single layer of bandage

A

A

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22
Q

Answer A if I is greater than II, B is I is less than II

Recommended pressure
i. Anti embolism
ii. Edema control

A

B

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23
Q

Answer A if I is greater than II, B is I is less than II

Recommended ratio of inflation / deflation time
i. Venous stasis ulcer
ii. Stump reduction

A

B

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24
Q

Answer A if I is greater than II, B is I is less than II

Persistence of indentation
i. Pitting
ii. Non-pitting

A

A

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25
Q

Answer A if I is greater than II, B is I is less than II

Vascular hydrostatic pressure
i. Knee
ii. Ankle

A

B

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26
Q

An IPC will be applied to the left LE to address the edema brought about by venous insufficiency. Prior to applying the sleeves, you noted that the
pt has a pressure ulcer (open wound) on her left lateral malleolus. What is the best course of action of the PT?
a. Proceed with treatment anyway
b. Refer back to MD
c. Cover the wound with gauze, then
proceed with the IPC treatment

A

c. Cover the wound with gauze, then
proceed with the IPC treatment

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27
Q

A soldier patient underwent left below-knee amputation due to traumatic injuries from a war. Inflammation has subsided already and your goal
now is to prepare the stump for prosthetic fitting and use. You also noted that the residual limb is
still swollen. Based on the Jobst Institute, which of the following are the correct parameters considering that you need to treat the patient in
the clinic:
a. IPC x 10 mmHg inflation pressure x
35-sec on x 10-sec off x 20 min on (L)
stump in supine to reduce the residual
limb
b. IPC x 15 mmHg inflation pressure x
40-sec on x 10-sec off x 20 min on (L)
stump in supine to reduce the residual
limb
c. IPC x 50 mmHg inflation pressure x
50-sec on x 10-sec off x 20 min on (L)
stump in supine to reduce the residual
limb
d. IPC x 65 mmHg inflation pressure x
50-sec on x 10-sec off x 20 min on (L)
stump in supine to reduce the residual
limb

A

c. IPC x 50 mmHg inflation pressure x
50-sec on x 10-sec off x 20 min on (L)
stump in supine to reduce the residual
limb

28
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Static compressions may be used for acute
conditions.

A

True

29
Q

Which mode of IPC can be used in shaping and
preparing the stump for prosthetic training?
A. static compression
B. intermittent compression

A

A. static compression

30
Q

Which phase of wound healing is limb compression most effective in controlling scar formation?
a. Inflammatory
b. Proliferative
c. Maturation / Remodeling

A

b. Proliferative

31
Q

It refers to pressure created by the muscle contractions against the inelastic bandage:

A

Working pressure

32
Q

It is considered as a significant hypoproteinemia
if the serum protein level is less than __ gm/dL.

A

2

33
Q

Arrange the following IPC techniques that allows blood circulation from greatest to least order

Choices:
A. Sequential, multi-chamber uniform
B. Sequential, multi-chamber graded
C. Single-chamber, static
D. Single-chamber, intermittent

A

BADC

34
Q

84 yo pt (+) hypertensive, diabetic, asthmatic, who suffered mild stroke last week
A. Aquatic exercise is indicated for the pt, who
does not require any close supervision
B. Aquatic exercise with some caution for the pt
C. Aquatic exercise is contraindicated

A

B. Aquatic exercise with some caution for the pt

35
Q

47 yo heavy smoker pt c avascular necrosis of right ankle and foot
A. Aquatic exercise is indicated for the pt, who
does not require any close supervision
B. Aquatic exercise with some caution for the pt
C. Aquatic exercise is contraindicated

A

C. Aquatic exercise is contraindicated

36
Q

14 month old pt c cerebral palsy and spastic diplegia
A. Aquatic exercise is indicated for the pt, who
does not require any close supervision
B. Aquatic exercise with some caution for the pt
C. Aquatic exercise is contraindicated

A

B. Aquatic exercise with some caution for the pt

37
Q

75 yo pt undergoing conditioning program to prepare for 42k marathon
A. Aquatic exercise is indicated for the pt, who
does not require any close supervision
B. Aquatic exercise with some caution for the pt
C. Aquatic exercise is contraindicated

A

A. Aquatic exercise is indicated for the pt, who
does not require any close supervision

38
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The purpose of using water whirlpools in wound healing allows mechanical debridement of
adhered necrotic tissues and slough

A

True

39
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Thermal conductivity does not provide resistance when underwater

A

True

40
Q

What is the recommended pressure for
non-immersion irrigation devices? (refer to
Cameron page 335)

A

4-15 psi

41
Q

Which of the following best describes a Low-boy
Tank based on WxLxD?
a. 15 x 28 x 18
b. 20 x 36 x 28
c. 24 x 28 x 18
d. 6 x 8 x 4

A

c. 24 x 28 x 18

42
Q

The cardiovascular effect of hydrotherapy is Increased hydrostatic pressure leads to ___ venous return and cardiac volume

A

Increased

43
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Specific gravity is included in the
documentation of hydrotherapy treatment

A

False

44
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In hydrotherapy, the immersion technique and non-immersion technique have cleansing effects

A

True

45
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Water retains 25x as much heat than air
and transfers heat 4x faster than air of same temperature

A

False

Water retains 4x …, transfers heat 25x …

46
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Maceration of the skin is not a contraindication for full-body immersion

A

True

47
Q

(I) frequency, (II) depth of UV penetration
A. an increase in (I) increases (II)
B. an increase in (I) decreases (II)
C. (I) has no effect on (II)

A

B. an increase in (I) decreases (II)

48
Q

(I) skin pigmentation, (II) depth of UV penetration
A. an increase in (I) increases (II)
B. an increase in (I) decreases (II)
C. (I) has no effect on (II)

A

B. an increase in (I) decreases (II)

49
Q

(I) exposure duration, (II) depth of UV penetration
A. an increase in (I) increases (II)
B. an increase in (I) decreases (II)
C. (I) has no effect on (II)

A

A. an increase in (I) increases (II)

50
Q

What property of LASER light indicates that the
waveforms are moving unidirectionally?
a. monochromatic
b. collimated
c. coherent

A

c. coherent

51
Q

Who studied the use of Helium and Neon for
stimulated emission of radiation?
a. Albert Einstein
b. Theodore Maiman
c. Endre Mester
d. Ali Javan

A

d. Ali Javan

52
Q

The patient was prescribed with LLLT for ® De
Quervain’s Tenosynovitis. Which of the following techniques of application is best used for the
case?
a. stationary with contact
b. stationary with non-contact
c. gridding
d. scanning

A

a. stationary with contact

53
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: UVA has longer wavelength than UVB

A

True

54
Q

Describes the phenomenon by which photons move to lower energy shells creating different wavelengths

A

Spontaneous emission

55
Q

Who is the therapeutic father of LLLT?
a. Albert Einstein
b. Theodore Maiman
c. Endre Mester
d. Ali Javan

A

c. Endre Mester

56
Q

Which of the following penetrates deepest?
a. Ruby laser
b. GaAs laser
c. GaAlAs laser
d. HeNe laser

A

b. GaAs laser

57
Q

Monochromaticity of LASER suggests
a. All waveforms are traveling parallel to each other, therefore producing one output
b. There is minimal divergence of photos, therefore light can be focused to one point
c. Photons of light emitted from the gas molecule travel at the same phase and direction, thus is focused on one point
d. Light waves travel with a single defined wavelength, which makes the laser light pure

A

d. Light waves travel with a single defined wavelength, which makes the laser light pure

58
Q

What is the most appropriate energy density of LASER for chronic arthritis?
a. 10 J/cm2
b. 5 J/cm2
c. 2 J/cm2
d. 12 J/cm2

A

b. 5 J/cm2

59
Q

You have a patient who is prescribed with UVR due to psoriasis of the right elbow (olecranon area). MED of the patient was 45 seconds. During the first PT treatment session, you applied the machine at 80 cm.
a. What is the duration of your treatment for the initial treatment?
b. What is the distance of your treatment during the initial treatment?
c. What is the duration in seconds of your treatment for the 1st progression?
d. What is the distance of your treatment during the 1st progression?

A

a. 225 sec
b. 80 cm
c. 393 sec
d. 105.73 cm

60
Q

A 19 y/o patient will undergo UVR treatment because of the acne vulgaris in the neck. The MED of the patient was 15 seconds. During the first PT treatment session, you applied the cold quart machine at 1 inch distance
a. What is the dosage that you will use for the patient?
b. What is the duration of the treatment during the initial session?
c. What is the duration of the treatment during the 1st progression?
d. What is the duration of the treatment during the 2nd progression?
e. What is the duration of the treatment during the 3rd progression?

A

a. E1
b. 37 sec
c. 56 sec
d. 84 sec
e. 126 sec

61
Q

You have a 75 y/o patient who is bed-ridden. The patient already developed a sacral sore with thin yellowish slough and presents signs of infection. MED was 45 sec during the evaluation.
a. What is the dosage to be given to the patient?
b. How many times per week should the treatment be given?
c. What is the treatment duration during the 1st treatment session?
d. What is the treatment duration during the 2nd treatment session?

A

a. E2
b. 7x
c. 225 sec
d. 225 sec

62
Q

You have a patient who is prescribed with UVR due to a wound with green discharges. MED during the evaluation was 15 seconds. During the first PT treatment session, you applied the machine at 60 cm.
a. What is the duration of your treatment for the 2nd progression?
b. What is the distance of your treatment during the 2nd progression?

A

a. 150 sec
b. 60 cm

63
Q

A 19 y/o patient will undergo UVR treatment because of the acne vulgaris in the upper back. The MED of the patient was 30 seconds. During the first PT treatment session, you applied the UVR machine at 65 cm distance.
a. What will be the duration of your treatment for the second treatment session?
b. What will be the distance of your treatment for the second treatment session?

A

a. 262 sec
b. 65 cm

64
Q

You have a 75 y/o patient who is bed-ridden. The
patient already developed a sacral sore with thin
yellowish slough. MED was 30 sec during the
evaluation.
a. What is your first treatment duration?
b. What is your second treatment duration?
c. What is the treatment frequency for the patient in one week?

A

a. 150 sec
b. 150 sec
c. 7

65
Q

You have a patient who was prescribed with UVR d/t cystic acne of the (L) shoulder. MED of testing showed 15 sec.
a. What dosage should be given to the patient?
b. What is the recommended body surface area percentage to effectively apply this dosage?
c. What is the expected latent period of the erythema for this dosage?
d. What is the computed equivalent of the dosage?
e. What is the dosage for the 2nd treatment session?
f. What is the dosage for the 3rd treatment session?

A

a. E2
b. 4%
c. 3 hours
d. 75 sec
e. 131 sec
f. 229 sec

66
Q

LLLT works via a photobiomodulation effect with power of less than or equal to ___ mW

A

500

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