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(2) Banche di Prova 📝 > ASSTECH: 2nd Shifting > Flashcards

ASSTECH: 2nd Shifting Flashcards

1
Q

A shoe reinforcement seen in the vamp that protects the toes from stubbing and vertical trauma. Its depth can be modified to accomodate deformities such as hammer toe

A

Toe box

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2
Q

Among the shoe reinforcements, this reinforces the quarter to help secure the shoe to the anatomic heel.

A

Heel counter

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3
Q

Recommended shoe prescription for patients with Plantar Faciitis would include:
a. A high heel
b. Long lateral heel counter
c. Sole cushion
d. All of the above

A

a. A high heel

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4
Q

Performance Characteristic of splinting materials include the following
EXCEPT:
a. Conformability
b. Drapability
c. Rigidity
d. Flexibility

A

b. Drapability

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5
Q

This type of SHOE LAST is observed to be where the forefoot is directly slightly lateral to the midline
a. Outflared Last
b. Conventional Last
c. Inflared Last
d. Straight Last

A

b. Conventional Last

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6
Q

This part of the SHOE is known to be over the dorsum of the foot

A

Upper

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7
Q

On STATIC SPLINTING, the following statement is TRUE about its purpose or indications.
a. Prevents soft tissue contracture
b. Substitute for loss of motor function.
c. Designed to mobilize areas of the body and have one or more
movable parts.
d. Aids in fracture alignment and wound healing.

A

a. Prevents soft tissue contracture

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8
Q

Part of the role of PTs and OTs in Orthotic/ Prosthetic rehabilitation
management include the following EXCEPT:
a. Alert the team to precautions, special considerations including skin issues, WB limitations, vascular diseases and spasticity.
b. Participate in patient evaluation particularly in relation to patient’s functional ability.
c. Participate in the generation of the therapy prescription.
d. Share knowledge with team members.

A

a. Alert the team to precautions, special considerations including skin issues, WB limitations, vascular diseases and spasticity.

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9
Q

Type of shoe closure indicated for patients with rigid ankle orthoses, fixed deformity or fragile neuropathic foot.
a. Oxford-Balmoral
b. Lace-to-toe
c. Blucher

A

b. Lace-to-toe

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10
Q

This professional provides care to patients with partial or total absence of limbs by designing, fabricating, and fitting artificial limb

A

Prosthetist

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11
Q

This type of shoe quarter covers the malleoli providing more stabilization and is indicated to cover the foot having rigid pes equinus

A

High-quarter

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12
Q

Among the compensations observed among patients wearing high heels, the wearer is often seen extending the knee and exaggerating lumbar
kyphosis
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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13
Q

Type of SHOE CLOSURE where the tongue is an extension of the VAMP

A

Blucher

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14
Q

This is an externally applied device to an existing body part to improve function either to stabilize weak segments, unload distal segments, limit or augment motion among its other goals

A

Orthosis

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15
Q

Among the metals used as materials for orthotic appliances, this metal is corrosion resistant, has a high strength to weight ratio and has a low endurance limit.
a. Titanium and Magnesium
b. Aluminum
c. Steel
d. All of the above

A

b. Aluminum

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16
Q

This part of the sole is known to be the inside piece of the external sole

A

Welt

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17
Q

A patient was referred to your care dt pes planus. Among the
recommendations you will make to your patient regarding shoe modifications / prescription will include the following EXCEPT:
a. Shoe should offer a long medial heel counter
b. A thomas heel is recommended
c. Lateral Heel Wedge to shift WB to the lateral aspect of the foot and correct eversion and reduce pronation.
d. Straight last

A

c. Lateral Heel Wedge to shift WB to the lateral aspect of the foot and correct eversion and reduce pronation.

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18
Q

Recommended shoe prescriptions for patients with METATARSALGIA
include the following EXCEPT:
a. Wide width to reduce pressure on the longitudinal arches
b. Long fitting to eliminate plantar flexed MTP joints
c. Cushion soles to enhance shock absorption
d. A high toe box to allow forefoot flexion and extension

A

a. Wide width to reduce pressure on the longitudinal arches

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19
Q

A high heel places the ankle in a greater plantar flexion range and forces the tibia posteriorly.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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20
Q

Handling characteristics of splinting materials include the following
EXCEPT:
a. Memory
b. Bonding/ Adherence
c. Rigidity
d. Self finishing edges

A

c. rigidity

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21
Q

This orthotic component is referred to as the proximal portion of the
orthosis which consists of the uprights, a shell, a band or brim.

A

SUPERSTRUCTURE

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22
Q

The following orthotic gait deviations are associated with an Inadequate
Dorsiflexion Assist EXCEPT:
A. Excessive knee flexion
B. Foot slap
C. Toes first
D. Vaulting

A

A. Excessive knee flexion

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23
Q

This gait deviation is described as having the LE elevated at the pelvis to
enable the LE to swing forward.

A

Hip-hiking

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24
Q

Which of the following is correct bandaging technique to a patient suffering
form a LE Gr 1 edema?
a. Use spiral technique with more pressure applied on the distal
decreasing as you go proximally
b. Use spiral technique with more pressure applied on the proximal
decreasing as you go distally
c. Use oblique technique with more pressure applied on the distal
decreasing as you go proximally
d. Use circular technique with more pressure applied on the distal
decreasing as you go proximally

A

a. Use spiral technique with more pressure applied on the distal decreasing as you go proximally

25
Q

Which of the following should be observed pre-tape application?
a. Shave the treated area at all times
b. Apply dehesive spray.
c. Instruct patient to apply lotion on treated area.
d. All are correct
e. None are correct

A

e. None are correct

26
Q

You were tasked to apply bandageing on your patient who suffered a
transfemoral amputation. Which is the best bandage technique to be
applied?
a. Spica
b. Velpau
c. Spiral Reverse
d. Circular

A

Spica

27
Q

Check out of taping effectivity is done:
a. Before the taping procedure
b. During the taping procedure
c. After taping procedure
d. Any part of the procedure

A

c. After taping procedure

28
Q

A patient who has a wrist flexor strain must favor which movement during
application of taping?
a. Wrist flexion
b. Wrist extension
c. Wrist ulnar deviation
d. wrist radial deviation

A

a. Wrist flexion

29
Q

After completing taping technique, your patient tells you that pain has
lessened on the injured part. However, the area feels numb. Which should
you do next?
a. Tell the patient that it is just a normal reaction after the taping
procedure.
b. Check the nail beds and look for signs of occlusion
c. Check for wrinkles and creases
d. Applhy additional support strips

A

b. Check the nail beds and look for signs of occlusion

30
Q

Checking for any allergic reaction should be done:
a. Before the taping procedure
b. During the taping procedure
c. After the taping procedure
d. Any part of the procedure

A

a. Before the taping procedure

31
Q

A 23 y/o female patient suffered from wrist sprain. Which is a correct
technique?
a. Circular technique using 2 inch bandage
b. Oblique technique using 4 inch bandage
c. Figure of eight using a 4 inch bandage
d. Oblique technique using a 6 inch bandage

A

c. Figure of eight using a 4 inch bandage

32
Q

Bandage application can immobilize a body part.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

33
Q

Which of the following is a significant benefit of a taping technique?
a. It may improve patient’s position sense during exercise.
b. Tapes can be used to hold dressing in place.
c. It is used to limit wanted movements.
d. Both A and B are correct
e. All are correct

A

d. Both A and B are correct

34
Q

Which of the following may cause discomfort after taping application?
a. Tape applied too tightly.
b. Presence of too many wrinkles and creases
c. Too much traction applied on each strip
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

35
Q

A bandage that is too narrow may provide insuffient pressure during
application.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

36
Q

A person will be treated for an ankle inversion injury using a prophylactic
ankle taping technique. Which should should you add to protect the bony
areas?
a. Pro- Wrap
b. Gauze dresing
c. Padding
d. None

A

c. Padding

37
Q

A patient dislocated her shoulder during a game. Which is the best
bandage technique to be applied?
a. Spica
b. Velpeau
c. Spiral reverse
d. Circular

A

b. Velpeau

38
Q

These are strips applied above and below the injury site.
a. Anchors
b. Gibney
c. Support strips
d. Check reins

A

a. Anchors

39
Q

A reverse spiral is a technique used to conform with an irregular joint
surface such as the cubital fossa
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

40
Q

To restrict lateral deviation of the ankle during tape application, which of
these basic taping techniques accomplishes the job?
a. Anchors
b. Gibney
c. support strips
d. check reins

A

b. Gibney

41
Q

These strips secure the cut end of the stretch tapes which tend to roll
back on itself,and neatly finish the technique when applied over anchors.
a. Reinforcing strips
b. Check reins
c. Lock strips
d. Stirrups

A

c. Lock strips

42
Q

It appears that the tape tends to restrict the movement of the injured body part. However, you noticed thagt the edges tend to roll back. Which of these basic tchniques should be checked?
a. Lock strips
b. Gibney
c. Support strips
d. check reins

A

a. Lock strips

43
Q

On initial assessment, you noted that your patient was seen to have aa
small open wound but free from hair on the treatment area. Which taping
product should you add int his case?
a. Pro-wrap
b. Gause squares
c. Padding

A

b. Gause squares

44
Q

“While assessing the gait of your patient during orthotic check out, you
noted that the patient’s knee hyperextends as the weight is transferred to the
LE. Orthotic issues associated with this deviation include the following
EXCEPT:”
A. Inadequate knee lock
B. Excessively concave (deep) calf band
C. Pes equinus uncompensated by contralateral shoe lift
D. Inadequate dorsiflexion stop

A

D. Inadequate dorsiflexion stop

45
Q

“As you were observing your patient who was wearing a KAFO ambulate,
you noted that he was leaning forward as his weight is transferred to the
involved LE. This gait deviation is associated with this orthotic issue:”
A. Inadequate Knee Lock
B. Excessive height of medial upright
C. Inadequate dorsiflexion stop
D. Inadequate plantarflexion stop

A

A. Inadequate Knee Lock

46
Q

The following orthotic gait deviations are observable during the Late
Stance Phase:
A. Inadequate transition: delayed or absent transfer of weight over the forefoot
B. Hip hiking
C. Circumduction
D. Excessive knee flexion

A

A. Inadequate transition: delayed or absent transfer of weight over the forefoot

47
Q

This mechanism for orthotic foot control is sewn to the medial portion of
the shoe upper near the sole, and buckles around the lateral upright exerting
a LATERALLY DIRECTED force to restrain PRONATION

A

Medial T strap / Valgus correction strap

48
Q

Among the orthoses indicated for patients with paraplegia and patients
with myelodisplasia, the Swivel Walker is articulated and allows the wearer to
sit.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

49
Q

The following orthotic gait deviations are observable during the Swing
Phase EXCEPT:
A. Vaulting
B. Circumduction
C. Toes first
D. Hip hiking

A

C. Toes first

50
Q

This ankle control mechanism provides DF assist through a coil spring
which compresses in stance and rebounds during swing.

A

Klenzak joint

51
Q

This internal shoe modification allows for minimum support that is
positioned at the medial border of the insole with the apex between the
sustentaculum tali and the navicular tuberosity.

A

Scaphoid pad

52
Q

This gait deviation is a tiptoe posture which may or may not be
maintained throughout stance.
A. Foot slap
B. Toe drag
C. Toes first
D. Hip hiking

A

C. Toes first

53
Q

The following orthotic gait deviations are associated with an Inadequate
Knee Lock EXCEPT:
A. Anterior trunk bending
B. Hyperextended knee
C. Excessive knee flexion
D. Lateral trunk bending

A

D. Lateral trunk bending

54
Q

The following is/are indication/s on the use of a LATERAL HEEL WEDGE
to accomodate a RIGID deformity.
A. Supination
B. Pes cavus
C. Pes valgus
D. Inversion

A

C. Pes valgus

55
Q

This knee control mechanism applies a posteriorly directed force to the
knee to complement the anteriorly directed force from the back of the shoe
and the thigh band and may restrict sitting

A

Knee cap

56
Q

This gait deviation observed with orthotic use is best described as an
exaggerated plantarflexion of the contralateral LE to enable the limb to swing
forward.
A. Hip hiking
B. Circumduction
C. Toe drag
D. Vaulting

A

D. Vaulting

57
Q

This is a is a convex transverse band affixed to the sole proximal to the
metatarsal heads which reduces the distance the wearer must travel during
stance phase, improving late stance, as well as shifting load from the
metatarsophalangeal joints to the metatarsal shafts.

A

Rocker bar

58
Q

This knee control mechanism is usually prescribed for patients who
cannot achieve full knee extension due to a knee flexion contracture.
A. Serrated knee joint
B. PAWL Lock
C. Drop ring lock
D. Off-set joint

A

A. Serrated knee joint

59
Q

While observing the gait of a patient wearing an HKAFO/ AFO, you
noted that the patient was leaning towards the stance leg as weight is
transferred to the LE. Possible orthotic issues associated with this deviation
include the following EXCEPT: “
A. Insufficient shoe lift
B. Excessive height of medial upright of the KAFO
C. Excessive abduction of hip joint of HKAFO
D. Inadequate knee lock

A

D. Inadequate knee lock

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