MSK2: 1st Shifting Flashcards by Mind Med

This is the ballooning of the wall of a joint capsule or tendon sheath. Ganglia may arise after trauma, and they sometimes occur with rheumatoid arthritis.

ganglion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This term is frequently used to refer specifically to injury of a ligament.

sprain

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This bruising from a direct blow, results in capillary rupture, bleeding, edema, and an inflammatory response.

contusion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This refers to decreased mobility or restricted motion at a single joint or a series of joint

hypomobility

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the FITT-VP formula, this refers to the form of exercise, the type of muscle contraction that occurs, and the manner in which the exercise is carried out.

type

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An incomplete or partial dislocation of the bony partners in a joint that often involves secondary trauma to surrounding soft tissue

subluxation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is the diminished response of muscle to a repeated stimulus

muscle fatigue

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is the degeneration of the tendon due to repetitive microtrauma

tendinosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is defined as the adaptive shortening of the muscle-tendon unit and other soft tissues that cross or surround a joint, resulting in significant resistance to
passive or active stretch and limited ROM

contracture

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is the bleeding into a joint, usually due to severe trauma

hemarthrosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An individual without diagnosed movement dysfunction who engage in physical therapy services to promote health and wellness and to prevent dysfunction

client

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The correct timing and sequencing of muscle firing combined with the appropriate intensity of muscular contraction leading to the effective initiation,
guiding, and grading of movement.

coordination

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This term is frequently used to refer specifically to some degree of disruption of the musculotendinous unit due to overstretching, overexertion, or overuse of soft
tissue

strain

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the FITT-VP formula, the __ of exercise in a resistance training program is the amount of external resistance imposed on the contracting muscle during each
repetition of an exercise

intensity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An individual with impairments and functional deficits diagnosed by a physical therapist and is receiving physical therapy care to improve function and prevent
disability

patient

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The abnormal adherence of collagen fibers to surrounding structures during immobilization, after trauma, or as a complication of surgery, which restricts normal elasticity and gliding of the structures involved

adhesion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Displacement of a part, usually the bony partners in a joint, resulting in loss of the anatomical relationship and leading to soft tissue damage, inflammation, pain,
and muscle spasm

dislocation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is the inflammation of a tendon

tendinitis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This principle states that if muscle performance is to improve, a resistance load that exceeds the metabolic capacity of the muscle must be applied–that is, the muscle must be challenged to perform at a level greater than that to which it is accustomed

overload principle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is the inflammation of the synovial membrane covering a tendon

tenosynovitis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

These are defined as problems a person may experience in his or her involvement in life situations as measured against social standards

participant restriction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is the general term that refers to tendon injury affected by mechanical loading

tendinopathy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is the inflammation with thickening of a tendon sheath

tenovaginitis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is the inflammation of a synovial membrane; an excess of normal synovial fluid in a joint or tendon sheath caused by trauma or disease

synovitis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is the inflammation of a bursa

bursitis

It is the sensory information that is received and processed by the learning during or after performing or attempting to perform a motor skill

feedback

Prolonged contraction of a muscle in response to a painful stimulus

reflex muscle guarding

This pertains to any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological, or anatomical structure or function

impairment

This is reflected by reductions in muscle performance, begins a week or two after the cessation of resistance exercises and continues until training effects are lost

detraining

The loss of normal function of a tissue or region

dysfunction

A patient was prescribed to jog on a treadmill for 20 mins while keeping their heart rate between 80-100 bpm. What component of the FITT formula is missing? a. Frequency b. Intensity c. Time d. Type e. None of these

A. Frequency

Arrange properly the chronological order of bone tissue healing: 1: fibrocartilage callus formation 2: hematoma formation 3: consolidation and remodeling 4: proliferation of osteoclasts and osteoblasts 5: bony callus formation a. 42315 b. 41253 c. 23415 d. 24153

D. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

Based on the general goals of treatment, when do you initiate resting the affected body part to its normal mobility and function? a. Protection phase b. Return-to function phase c. Controlled-motion phase d. Upon the recommendation of the doctor

C. Controlled-motion phase

During this stage of inflammation, maturation of connective tissue and contracture of scar tissue was the tissue responses a. Acute stage b. Subacute stage c. Chronic stage d. Late recovery stage

C. Chronic stage

In a diving sport event, an athlete received an average score of 9.56 out of a perfect 10 from the judges after completing a very technical dive. This exemplifies which type of feedback? a. Intrinsic feedback b. Extrinsic feedback c. Knowledge of performance d. Knowledge of result

D. Knowledge of result

In bone healing, a period of immobilization is avoided. In the healing process of ligament injuries, applying stress in the proliferative and remodeling phases leads to better alignment of fibers. a. Only the first statement is correct b. Only the second statement is correct c. Both are correct d. Both are incorrect

B. Only the second statement is correct

In muscle injury healing, early activity is advocated to prevent the formation of adhesions. Active stretching should be initiated in the early stage of injury a. Only the first statement is correct b. Only the second statement is correct c. Both are correct d. Both are incorrect

A. Only the first statement is correct Reason: Active stretching in the early stage of injury results to negative impacts

In this condition, there is a partial loss of the anatomical relationship between joint surfaces with secondary trauma to surrounding soft tissue a. Dislocation b. Subluxation c. Rupture d. Contusion

B. Subluxation

In this nerve injury according to Seddon, there is Wallerian degeneration, loss of axonal continuity and surgical intervention may be needed a. Neurotmesis b. Neuropraxia c. Axonotmesis d. Neurotmesis and neuropraxia

C. Axonotmesis

In this stage of inflammation, pain is synchronous with encountering tissue resistance: a. Acute stage b. Subacute stage c. Chronic stage d. All throughout the three stages

B. Subacute stage

The following are benefits of a HEP, except: a. Advantageous for the patient as this means monetary savings from not having sessions in the rehab center b. Will develop in patients the confidence to manage his/her condition including prevention of re-injury c. Could result in the faster achievement of treatment goals such as reduction of pain sooner than expected d. None of these

A. Advantageous for the patient as this means monetary savings from not having sessions in the rehab center

The following are complete bone fractures, except a. Spiral b. Oblique c. Transverse d. Greenstick e. None of these

D. greenstick

The following interventions are contraindicated during the protection phase of rehabilitation i. Continuous US ii. Stretching exercises iii. Strengthening exercises iv. Passive range of motion exercises a. I and III b. II and IV c. I II and III d. Only IV e. All

C. Only I, II, and III are correct

The overstretching, overexertion, overuse of soft tissues particularly of the ligament a. Strain b. Sprain c. Spasm d. Laceration

B. Sprain

This involves inflammation with thickening of the tendon sheath a. Tendinitis b. Tendinosis c. Tenovaginitis d. Tenosynovitis

C. Tenovaginitis

True about strategies to increase adherence i. Set date and time to exercise ii. Keep exercise logs to track progress iii. Use modalities to control pain iv. Setting personal achievable goals a. I and III b. I II and III c. II and IV d. All

D. All are correct

True about therapeutic exercise I. Organized implementation of planned activities with complete parameters II. Involves instructing patients to assume certain postures to enhance function III. Performance of physical movements both active and passive IV. Systemic administration of therapeutic physical agents to reduce inflammation a. I and III b. I, II, III c. II, IV d. All

B. Only I, II, and III are correct

What would be the assigned grade if the cartilage injury is abnormal with lesions extending <50% of the cartilage depth? a. Grade I b. Grade II c. Grade III d. Grade IV e. Grade V

B. Grade II

Which of the following are treatment goals during the protection phase of rehabilitation I. restore function of the affected area II. decrease pain III. increasing range of motion IV. reduce swelling a. I and III b. II and IV c. I, II, and III d. Only IV e. All

B. Only II and IV are correct

Which of the following is an application of the Principle of Specificity a. You added running drills to the training of a swimmer b. To increase endurance, the focus was on the duration of how long the walk around the oval c. The basketball player rested from training for 2 weeks after the injury d. To improve the strength of the elbow extensors, biceps curls were performed e. All of these

B. To increase endurance, the focus was on the duration of how long the patient can walk around the oval

It is a movement of a segment within the unrestricted ROM that is produced entirely by an external force a. AROM b. AAROM c. Self AROM d. PROM

D. PROM

The PT noted that the patient’s left elbow is resistant to extension and flexion while performing a range of motion exercises. What is the appropriate action? a. Move the joint through the full ROM b. Tell the health care provided that the patient is uncooperative c. Perform range of motion to left elbow only until resistance is met d. Omit all the range of motion exercises until the health care provider is notified

c. Perform range of motion to left elbow only until resistance is met

It is important to discontinue a range of motion exercise when which of the following occurs? a. Fatigue b. Verbalize pain c. Resistance d. All of the above

d. All of the above

All of the following can cause impaired ROM except a. Early movement after surgery b. Muscle imbalance and disuse c. Neurological injury d. Systematic inflammatory disease

a. Early movement after surgery

During active ROM exercises, which of the following structures is most elongated with full active extension and ulnar deviation of the wrist if the fingers remain relaxed a. Flexor carpi ulnaris b. Flexor carpi radialis c. Flexor digitorum profundus d. Flexor digitorum superficialis

b. Flexor carpi radialis Action: Flexion and radial deviation. To elongate this, active ext and ulnar dev should be done

The following are principles and procedures for applying ROM exercises: i. Perform the ROM exercises without examining the pt’s impairments ii. Determine the amount of motion that can be applied safely for the condition of the tissues and the health of the individual iii. Monitor the pt’s general condition and responses after the intervention iv. Determine the ability of the pt to participate in ROM exercises a. Only I and III b. Only II and IV c. Only I II and III d. Only IV e. All

B. Only II and IV are correct Pre-requisite in ROM exercise is examination of the patient’s impairments. We should monitor the patient before, during, and after the exercises.

Which of the following is a true statement about ROM exercises? a. Passive ROM is synonymous with stretching b. If a joint is hypermobile, passive ROM exercises are contraindicated c. Passive ROM can be carried out manually or mechanically d. AAROM should be performed on muscle with normal strength & in acute stage

c. Passive ROM can be carried out manually or mechanically Hypermobility is contraindicated for stretching exercises, not ROM. PROM is not synonymous with stretching because ROM only deals within the available ROM. Going beyond the available ROM is considered stretching.

Mr. J underwent a repair of a torn biceps brachii 2 days ago. During passive ROM exercises, which combination of motions should you avoid at end range to protect (not disrupt) the healing tissue? a. Elbow extension, shoulder extension, forearm supination b. Elbow extension, shoulder flexion, forearm pronation c. Elbow extension, shoulder flexion, forearm supination d. Elbow extension, shoulder extension, forearm pronation

d. Elbow extension, shoulder extension, forearm pronation PROM is a good indication for acute stages, but we have to be knowledgeable enough that we need to avoid stretching the affected muscle. *Stretching the muscle = opposite action of the muscle. Actions of biceps brachii: elbow flex, shoulder flex, forearm supination

I.L a 25 y/o female athlete with medical diagnosis of R rotator cuff tendinitis in a chronic stage was referred for PT management. AROM is prescribed with the following goals except: a. Provide sensory feedback from the contracting muscles b. Develop coordination and motor skills c. Maintain contractility of the participating muscles d. Minimize the effects of contracture formation

d. Minimize the effects of contracture formation Indicated as a goal for PROM.

This is a prolonged stretch force will inhibit muscle tension; reflexive muscle relaxation a. Autogenic inhibition b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Stretch reflex d. Quick stretch

a. Autogenic inhibition

The property of non contractile soft tissue that provides extensibility. Tissues with higher amount of this have greater flexibility a. Elastin b. Collagen c. Reticulin d. Ground substance

a. Elastin Elastin provides extensibility Collagen is responsible for the strength and stiffness of the tissue. Reticulin provides tissue bulk Ground substance hydrates the cartilages

The following are contraindications of stretching except a. Recent fractures b. Tissue trauma c. Bony block d. Hypomobility

d. Hypomobility Hypomobility is an indication for stretching exercises.

The following are determinants of stretching exercises except a. Mode b. Frequency c. Strength d. Speed

C. Strength Determinants of stretching: alignment, stabilization, intensity, duration, speed, mode, frequency

The following are types of PNF stretching except: a. Hold relax b. Agonist contract c. Hold relax with agonist contract d. Relax antagonist contract

D. Relax-antagonist contract

What is the best way to breathe while stretching? a. Breathe in on exertion b. Breathe out on exertion c. Hold your breathe while stretching d. None of the above

B. Breathe out on exertion

This is the result of intra articular pathology, adhesions, joint effusion and osteophyte formation a. Myostatic b. Pseudomyostatic c. Arthrogenic d. Fibrotic

c. Arthrogenic

The following are functional ROM activities: i. Combing back of hair: shoulder abd and IR, elbow flexion, and cervical rotation ii. Donning and doffing of shirt: shoulder ext, lat rotation, and elbow flexion and extension iii. Sit to stand: hip and knee flexion, ankle DF and PF v. Grasping an eating utensil: finger extension and flexion a. I and II b. II and IV c. I II and III d. Only IV e. All

B. Only II and IV are correct

The following are interventions to increase mobility of soft tissues i. Muscle energy techniques ii. Joint mobilization iii. Soft tissue mobilization iv. Neuromuscular mobilization a. I and III b. II and IV c. I II and III d. IV

c. Only I, II, and III are correct Neuromuscular facilitation is an intervention to inc mobility of soft tissues, not neuromuscular mobilization

When soft tissue is stretched, elastic, viscoelastic or plastic changes occur. Contractile connective tissues have viscoelastic properties. a. Only the first statement is correct b. Only the second statement is correct c. Both are correct d. Both are incorrect

a. Only the first statement is correct

In the application of AROM, the force of movement is external. The motion is performed out within the available ROM. a. Only the first statement is correct b. Only the second statement is correct c. Both are correct d. Both are incorrect

d. Both are incorrect

CP is an 87 y/o female sustained a compression fracture of the T12 vertebrae 4 weeks ago when she inadvertently sat down forcefully on a hard chair. Incorporating resistance training that focuses on eccentric exercises of her quadriceps and gluteal muscles in WB positions (e.g. controlled squatting and partial lunges) represents what principle of therapeutic exercise? a. Specificity of training b. Reversibility of training c. Overflow principle d. Overload principle

a. Specificity of training

Each of the following is characteristic of DOMS except a. Due to high-intensity exercise b. Increased soreness seen during passive lengthening of the involved muscle group c. Occurs more frequently after eccentric exercise than isometric exercise d. Produced by gradual progress of intensity and volume of eccentric exercise

d. Produced by gradual progress of intensity and volume of eccentric exercise Rationale: Eccentric exercises have a greater correlation to the degree of DOMS

You are designing an exercise program for a patient with a history of hypertension. Which of the following types of exercise is associated with the highest risk of causing an increase in blood pressure during exercise? a. Isokinetic exercise at medium to fast velocities b. Isometric exercise c. Muscle setting exercises d. High-intensity dynamic resistance exercise

d. High-intensity dynamic resistance exercise

A patient rehabilitating from an UE injury uses a latissimus pull-down machine. The therapist specifically instructs the pt to pull the bar down behind their head. This emphasizes strengthening of the a. Rhomboids and middle trapezius b. Biceps and pectoralis major c. Teres minor and middle trapezius d. Pectoralis major and rhomboids

a. Rhomboids and middle trapezius

Characteristics of open-chain exercises a. Muscle activation occurs predominantly in the prime mover b. Muscle activation occurs in multiple muscle groups c. Resistance is applied simultaneously to multiple moving segments d. Axial loading of joints through body weight

a. Muscle activation occurs predominantly in the prime mover

Your pt has (B) LE weakness, particularly of the hip extensors due to deconditioning. She needs to stay in the hospital for 1 week. You want to increase the strength of her (B) hip extensors to aid in bedpan use and in preparation for gait training. Which is the best exercise that your patient should perform? a. Pelvic bridging x 10 reps x 2 sets to increase muscle strength b. Pelvic tilting x 10 reps x 2 sets to increase muscle strength c. PRE’s on gluteus maximus using 2 lbs cuff weights in supine x 10 reps x 2 sets to increase muscle strength d. PRE’s on gluteus maximus using 2 lbs cuff weights in sidelying x 10 reps x 2 sets to increase muscle strength

a. Pelvic bridging x 10 reps x 2 sets to increase muscle strength Rationale: Pelvic tilting and standing does not increase muscle strength. It is impossible to perform PRE on the gluteus maximus in supine position PRE with cuff weights does not improve strength due to gravity.

Your pt is a 23 y/o varsity volleyball player who had S/P ® ACL injury and reconstruction 2 months ago. Pt had PT sessions in the 1st week following the surgery. Pt now has adequate R knee ROM but needs strengthening exercises. You opted to use closed kinematic chain exercises, which of the following would NOT be beneficial on your patient? a. Jumping on top of and over a wooden box b. Heel raises c. Quad setting exercise d. Squats

c. Quad setting exercise

The following are the three key elements to muscle performance except: a. Strength b. Power c. Endurance d. Speed

d. Speed Rationale: The composition of muscle performance is strength, power, and endurance.

All are signs of local fatigue except a. Shaking b. Substitution c. Dizziness d. Jerking

c. Dizziness

Detraining will occur after how long of inactivity a. 4 days b. 1 week c. 3 weeks d. 1 month

b. 1 week Source: Kisner 7th ed

Psychological factors associated with exercise include all except a. Attention b. Strength c. Motivation d. Feedback

b. Strength

Muscle performance can be affected by all except a. Biochemical factors b. Neurological factors c. Metabolic factors d. Vestibulocochlear system

d. Vestibulocochlear system

Muscle performance is… a. The capacity of a muscle to do work b. Ability of contractile tissue to produce tension that results in a force c. work/time d. Ability to continuously contract and resist

a. The capacity of a muscle to do work

Strength is… a. The capacity of a muscle to do work b. Ability of contractile tissue to produce tension that results in a force c. work/time d. Ability to continuously contract and resist

b. Ability of contractile tissue to produce tension that results in a force

SAID principle includes all of the following except a. Adaptation of Wolff’s law b. Specificity of training c. Transfer of training d. Reversibility of training

d. Reversibility of training

All of the following are factors that influence tension except: a. Location of muscle b. Cross section and size c. Speed of muscle contraction d. Recruitment of motor units

a. Location of muscle

Cardiopulmonary fatigue caused by the following factors except a. Decreased blood sugar levels b. Decreased glycogen stores c. Increased potassium d. Increased blood sugar levels

c. Increased potassium levels

Concentric contraction… a. Shortening of a muscle b. Rate of control contraction c. Lengthening of a muscle d. Involves no muscle movement

a. Shortening of a muscle

Three types of isometric exercises except a. Muscle setting b. Stabilization c. Concentric d. Multiple angle

c. Concentric

The following are forms of resistance except a. Constant or variable b. Accommodating exercise c. Body weight d. Dynamic resistance

d. Dynamic resistance

What type of body mechanic does joint mob corrects? a. Swing b. Osteokinematics c. Physiologic movement d. Arthrokinematics

d. Arthrokinematics

On addressing capsular restriction using passive angular stretching, it does not increase articular compressive stress. a. True b. False

b. False

The following are possible cause of altered mechanics a. Pain and muscle guarding b. Joint LOM c. Joint effusion d. All of the above

d. all of the above

Types of joint mobilization that utilizes sustained accessory mobilization and active physiologic movement a. High velocity thrust b. Mobilization with movement c. Self mobilization d. Muscle energy technique

b. Mobilization with movement

Physiologic movement are voluntary movement and is also labeled as osteokinematics a. True b. False

a. True

True about accessory movement, except a. Involuntary b. Labeled as arthrokinematics c. Concomitant with physiologic movement d. None of the above

d. None of the above

CMC joint is an example of an ovoid joint surface a. True b. False

b. False

Passive angular stretching restores both normal rolling and gliding of the joint a. True b. False

b. False

Joint motion decreases articular tissue extensibility and strength a. True b. False

b. False

The following are contraindicated to stretching joint mobilization, except a. Hypermobility b. Inflammation c. Joint effusion d. Positional faults / subluxation

d. Positional faults / subluxation

A pt diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis (who presents with severe shoulder LOM, (-) pain and difficulty in doing overhead activities) came to you for her first PT session. Which is an appropriate joint mobilization parameter for the given case? a. Gr 1 sustained distraction b. Gr 2 sustained distraction c. Gr 1 oscillation d. Gr 2 oscillation e. None of the above

b. Gr. 2 sustained distraction Pt is at the latter part of adhesive capsulitis; pain is lessened; Gr. 2 distraction should always be used during initial treatment to check for the irritability of the bone irregardless if it is acute, subacute, or chronic *usually not followed in clinical practice, as long as pt can tolerate the mobilization

The complete arthrokinematics of your ankle when performing lunges a. Talus rolls anteriorly and glides posteriorly b. Talus rolls posteriorly and glides anteriorly c. Proximal segment rolls and glides posteriorly d. Proximal segment rolls and glides anteriorly e. None of the above

d. Proximal segment rolls and glides anteriorly Moving segment is the proximal segment (concave) while fixed segment is the talus (convex)

You are applying joint mobilization to address the pain of your pt, he reported increased pain and inflammation from your previous treatment. What is an appropriate joint mobilization parameter for the second session considering the response of the pt from the previous treatment? a. Gr 1 sustained distraction b. Gr 2 sustained distraction c. Gr 1 oscillation d. Gr 2 oscillation e. None of the above

c. Gr. 1 oscillation Use Gr. 1 oscillation because it is applicable for pain; but Gr. 2 cannot be tolerated because pain is aggravated

You are applying joint mobilization to address the pain of your pt, he reported increased pain and inflammation from your previous treatment. What is an appropriate joint mobilization parameter for the first session? a. Gr 1 sustained distraction b. Gr 2 sustained distraction c. Gr 1 oscillation d. Gr 2 oscillation e. None of the above

c. Gr. 1 oscillation ERRATUM: Gr. 1 oscillation will be followed if it is applied during the following session, not the first session RESOLUTION: Bonus Item! I think gr2 sustained distraction - J

The following are appropriate procedures to ensure pt comfort during the joint mobilization procedure, except: a. Firmly and comfortably stabilize the proximal bone with the use of a belt, one of the therapist’s hands, or an assistance b. Muscle inhibitory techniques can be done to relax the muscles crossing the joint prior to the application of joint mobilization c. Position of the involved joint in a resting position in which the joint is least painful d. None of the above

d. None of the above

The following are correct procedures for talocrural distraction, except a. Therapist hand over the dorsum of th ept’s foot, just distal to the mortise b. Pull the foot along the long axis of the leg in a distal direction c. Ankle in 10º plantarflexion d. None of the above

d. None of the above

You have a pt who suffered right inversion ankle sprain yesterday. Upon evaluation, you noted the following: (1) gr 7/10 pain on his R ankle, (2) LOM (ankle inversion 0-10 degrees with empty endfeel), (3) weakness of ankle dorsiflexors (⅗), ankle evertor (⅗), (4) right ankle is warm to touch with moderate swelling. Which among the impairments will you prioritize to treat using joint mobilization a. Limitation of motion b. Moderate swelling c. Pain gr 7/10 d. Muscle weakness

c. Pain gr. 7/10 Presentation of the patient is in the acute stage (empty endfeel and high irritability, cardinal signs of inflammation)

On the 2nd session, pt reported that you initial tx from previous session aggravated the pain on his R ankle. What is the correct documentation for your intervention on the 2nd session based on the pt’s response? a. Grade 1 oscillation X 2-3 oscillation per seconds X 2 mins on R ankle joint in supine to decrease pain b. Grade 2 oscillation X 2-3 oscillation per seconds X 2 mins on R ankle joint in supine to decrease pain c. Grade 2 sustained distraction X 7 seconds distraction X 2 mins on R ankle joint in supine to check initial response to joint mobilization d. Grade 3 sustained glide X 6 seconds glide X 2 mins on R ankle joint towards anterior in supine to increase range of motion e. Grade 4 sustained glide X 6 seconds glide X 2 mins on R ankle joint towards anterior in supine to increase range of motion

a. Grade I oscillation x 2-3 oscillation per seconds x 2 mins on ® ankle joint in supine to decrease pain

The complete arthrokinematics during hip abduction a. Femoral head rolls and glides superiorly b. Femoral head rolls and glides inferiorly c. Femoral head rolls superiorly and glides inferiorly d. Femoral head rolls inferiorly and glides superiorly

c. Femoral head rolls superiorly and glides inferiorly

Provided that this is already the second session and the pt did not report any negative response form the initial treatment, the following are appropriate procedures in applying joint mobilization with a goal of increasing shoulder abduction, except a. Apply gr 1 distraction on the humerus b. Apply sustained gr III glide on the humerus c. Shoulder should be in resting position d. Only A and B e. None of the above

e. None of the above

The complete arthrokinematics during OKC knee extension a. Tibial plateau rolls and glides anteriorly b. Tibial plateau rolls and glides posteriorly c. Tibial plateau rolls anteriorly and glides posteriorly d. Tibial plateau rolls posteriorly and glides anteriorly

a. Tibial plateau rolls and glides anteriorly Tibial plateau is concave

You are applying joint mobilization to address the LOM of your pt, he reported no pain or inflammation from your previous treatment. What is an appropriate joint mobilization parameter for the second session considering the response of the pt from the previous treatment? a. Gr 1 sustained distraction b. Gr 3 sustained distraction c. Gr 1 oscillation d. Gr 2 oscillation e. None of the above

e. None of the above Gr. 3 translatory glide can already be performed to provide a directional glide and address LOM; Distraction is not applicable because it does not address LOM

The following are correct procedures for increasing flexion in tibiofemoral joint, except a. Therapist hands are wrap around the proximal tibia b. Apply a posterior glide on the proximal tibia c. Knee in 45 degrees of flexion d. None of the above

c. Knee in 45 degrees of flexion Should be in 30 degrees of knee flexion (25º in lab demo)

The complete arthrokinematics during OKC ankle dorsiflexion a. Talus rolls anteriorly and glides posteriorly b. Talus rolls posteriorly and glides anteriorly c. Proximal segment rolls anteriorly and glides posteriorly d. Proximal segment rolls posteriorly and glides anteriorly e. None of the above

a. Talus rolls anteriorly and glides posteriorly When you dorsiflex, since the talus is convex, it will roll in conjunction with the osteokinematics direction and will glide on the opposite side

The following are appropriate practices for an effective mobilization, except a. Warm the tissue around the joint prior to stretching b. Modalities, massage, or gentle muscle contractions increase the circulation and warm the tissues c. For Gr III gliding joint mobilization techniques, a gr II distraction should be used with it d. None of the above

c. For Gr III gliding joint mobilization techniques, a Gr II distraction should be used with it Gr. I distraction is the maximum grade allowed

On your initial session, the following are appropriate procedures in applying joint mobilization with the pt’s having severe LOM in shoulder abduction, except a. Apply Gr 1 distraction on the humerus b. Apply sustained gr III glide on the humerus c. Shoulder should be in resting position d. Only A and B e. None of the above

d. Only A and B Gr. 2 sustained distraction should always be applied in initial session

A pt diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis (who presents with severe shoulder LOM, (-) pain and difficulty in doing overhead activities). This is her 2nd session and the pt reported no adverse reaction from the previous session. Which is an appropriate joint mobilization parameter for the given case? a. Gr I sustained distraction b. Gr 2 sustained distraction c. Gr 1 oscillation d. Gr 2 oscillation e. Gr 3 sustained glide f. none of the above

e. Gr. 3 sustained glide No adverse reaction; direction should be at the capsular patterm

You are applying joint mobilization to address the shoulder LOM of your pt; he reported no pain or inflammation from your previous treatment. Which is an appropriate documentation for the joint mobilization intervention for the second session? a. Grade 1 oscillation X 2-3 oscillation per seconds X 2 mins on R shoulder joint in supine to decrease pain b. Grade 2 oscillation X 2-3 oscillation per seconds X 2 mins on R shoulder joint in supine to decrease pain c. Grade 2 sustained distraction X 7 seconds distraction X 2 mins on R shoulder joint in supine to check initial response to joint mobilization d. Grade 3 sustained glide X 6 seconds glide X 2 mins on R shoulder joint towards inferior glide in supine to increase range of motion of shoulder abduction e. Grade 4 sustained glide X 6 seconds glide X 2 mins on R shoulder joint towards inferior glide in supine to increase range of motion of shoulder abduction

d. Grade 3 sustained glide X 6 seconds glide X 2 mins on R shoulder joint towards inferior glide in supine to increase range of motion of shoulder abduction

You have a pt with R inversion ankle sprain 2 days ago. You did an initial joint mobilization intervention on your 1st session. Which is an appropriate documentation for the initial joint mobilization intervention? a. Grade 1 oscillation X 2-3 oscillation per seconds X 2 mins on R ankle joint in supine to decrease pain b. Grade 2 oscillation X 2-3 oscillation per seconds X 2 mins on R ankle joint in supine to decrease pain c. Grade 2 sustained distraction X 7 seconds distraction X 2 mins on R ankle joint in supine to check initial response to joint mobilization d. Grade 3 sustained glide X 6 seconds glide X 2 mins on R ankle joint towards anterior in supine to increase range of motion e. Grade 4 sustained glide X 6 seconds glide X 2 mins on R ankle joint towards anterior in supine to increase range of motion

c. Grade 2 sustained distraction x 7 seconds distraction x 2 mins on ® ankle joint in supine to check initial response to joint mobilization

The complete arthrokinematics during forearm pronation a. Radial head rolls and glides dorsally b. Radial head rolls and glides ventrally c. Radial head rolls dorsally and glides ventrally d. Radial head rolls ventrally and glides dorsally

d. Radial head rolls ventrally and glides dorsally Radial head is convex