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(2) Banche di Prova 📝 > NEUROLAB: 1st Shifting > Flashcards

NEUROLAB: 1st Shifting Flashcards

1
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The patellar reflex is an example of a monosynaptic reflex

A

True

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2
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Hacking of the patellar tendon is an example of autogenic inhibition

A

False

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3
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The presence of palmomental reflex in adults is ALWAYS a red flag

A

False

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4
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The Golgi Tendon Organ is PURELY inhibitory

A

True

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5
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Increased firing of Gamma Efferent Neurons results in hypertonic muscles

A

True

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6
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Jendrassik Maneuver should be performed by the patient during DTR Assessment

A

False

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7
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The central portion of the muscle spindle can contract and can be stimulated by stretch

A

False

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8
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Dynamic Stretch Reflex is stimulated by rapid stretch or unstretch

A

True

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9
Q

Isometric contraction of the hamstring for 6 secs followed by stretching for 30 secs will result in an increased hip flexion ROM due to
A. Autogenic inhibition
B. Reciprocal inhibition

A

A. Autogenic inhibition

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10
Q

Which of the following can result to an increase jump height (based from your knowledge of stretch reflex)?
A. Bending for 20 secs prior to jumping
B. Quick bending in hip and knee prior to jumping

A

B. Quick bending in hip and knee prior to jumping

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11
Q

It sends information to the nervous system about muscle length
A. Muscle spindle
B. Golgi tendon organ
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Muscle spindle

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12
Q

It sends information to the nervous system about tension
A. Muscle spindle
B. Golgi tendon organ
C. Both
D. Neither

A

B. Golgi tendon organ

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13
Q

Inhibitory in nature
A. Muscle spindle
B. Golgi tendon organ
C. Both
D. Neither

A

B. Golgi tendon organ

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14
Q

This reflex is elicited by scratching the palmar area of the hand and observing contraction of the muscles of the chin or perioral area.
A. Grasping reflex
B. Moro reflex
C. Palmomental reflex
D. Rooting reflex

A

C. Palmomental reflex

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15
Q

This phenomenon occurs when the tension on the muscle and the tendon become extreme, the inhibitory effect from the Golgi tendon can be so great causing sudden reaction in the spinal cord leading to instantaneous relaxation of the entire muscle.
A. Lengthening reaction
B. Shortening reaction

A

A. Lengthening reaction

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16
Q

Nuclear chain fibers are innervated by:
A. Type Ia
B. Type II
C. Both type Ia & type II
D. Neither

A

C. Both type Ia & type II

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17
Q

Type of muscle sensory receptor
A. Muscle spindle
B. Golgi tendon organ
C. Both
D. Neither

A

C. Both

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18
Q

Patellar tendon was tapped which elicited brisk knee extension. What is the grade of the patient’s reflex?
A. 0
B. +1
C. +2
D. +3
E. +4

A

C. +2

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19
Q

Which of the following is/are primitive reflex/es?
A. Rooting reflex
B. Palmar grasp reflex
C. Both
D. Neither

A

C. Both

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20
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Annulospiral sensory endings excite both the nuclear bag and the nuclear chain endings.

A

True

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21
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Monosynaptic pathway allows a reflex signal to return with the shortest possible time delay back to the muscle after excitation of spindle.

A

True

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22
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Golgi tendon reflex is entirely inhibitory in nature

A

True

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23
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In autogenic inhibition, when the muscle tension becomes great, contraction suddenly ceases causing relaxation of the muscle

A

True

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24
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Hypertonicity brought by loss of inhibition of gamma efferents can be evident in upper motor neuron lesions affecting the anterior horn cell.

A

False

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25
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: A grade 3+ reflex is described as clonus.

A

False

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26
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Jendrassik maneuver is caused by the presence of subliminal fringe which enhances reflex response.

A

True

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27
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Transmission of impulses from the Golgi tendon organ is through Type Ib nerve fibers.

A

True

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28
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Primitive reflex, such as palmomental reflex, can be found in normal adult individuals

A

False

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29
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Triceps tendon reflex is an example of a monosynaptic reflex

A

True

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30
Q

Which best describes the nuclear bag fiber 1?
A. A high level of myosin ATPase activity
B. A low level of myosin ATPase activity
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

A

B. A low level of myosin ATPase activity

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31
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Nerve tract for pressure can transmit different signals at multiple endpoints in the CNS

A

False

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32
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The second order neuron of DCML is gracile nuclei for UE and cuneate for LE

A

False

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33
Q

Inability to judge shapes or forms
A. Agnosia
B. Asomatognosia
C. Astereognosis
D. Anosognosia

A

C. Astereognosis

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34
Q

Previously known as Paleospinothalamic Tract
A. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
B. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
C. Dorsal Column Medial Lemniscus
D. Corticospinal Tract

A

A. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract

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35
Q

In the sensory homunculus:
A. Face>Lips>Thumbs>Trunk
B. Lips>Face>Thumbs>Trunk
C. Thumbs>Lips>Face>Trunk
D. Trunk>Thumbs>Face>Lips

A

B. Lips>Face>Thumbs>Trunk

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36
Q

Primary Somatosensory Cortex is Brodmann’s area/s
A. 3,1,2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

37
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Enkephalin causes pre and postsynaptic inhibition of type A-delta and C pain fibers

38
Q

This mechanoreceptor can be found in the cornea
A. Free Nerve Ending
B. Meissner’s Corpuscles
C. Merkel’s Discs
D. Hair End Organ
E. Ruffini’s End Organ

A

A. Free Nerve Ending

39
Q

This can also detect warmth
A. Free Nerve Ending
B. Meissner’s Corpuscles
C. Merkel’s Discs
D. Hair End Organ
E. Ruffini’s End Organ

A

E. Ruffini’s End Organ

40
Q

Stimulating non-nociceptive A fibers to mask C fibers
A. Pain spasm pain cycle
B. Gate control theory
C. Both
D. Neither

A

B. Gate control theory

41
Q

The basal ganglia is developed from what primary division of the brain?
A. Prosencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Rhombencephalon

A

A. Prosencephalon

42
Q

The pons is derived from what primary vesicle during the development of the brain?
A. Forebrain
B. Midbrain
C. Hindbrain

A

C. Hindbrain

43
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: On the 26th day of gestation, the posterior neuropore closes first, followed by the anterior neuropore.

44
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Both the anterior and posterior neuropore closes by the 28th day of gestation

45
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Nerve cells, according to Guyton, have a resting membrane potential of 90mV

46
Q

The ____ cells are the myelin-forming cells of the
peripheral nervous system.

47
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Astrocytes, which help form the blood-brain barrier, are excitable cells.

48
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The dorsal root ganglia is an example of a bipolar neuron

49
Q

In the early development of the brain, the thalamus came from what subdivision of the brain?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon

A

B. Diencephalon

50
Q

Dorsal root ganglion
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Multipolar

A

A. Unipolar

51
Q

Betz cells
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Multipolar

A

C. Multipolar

52
Q

Cochlear cells
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Multipolar

A

B. Bipolar

53
Q

Purkinje cells
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Multipolar

A

C. Multipolar

54
Q

Vestibular cells
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Multipolar

A

B. Bipolar

55
Q

Pons is responsible for breathing control. This
structure is derived from what subdivision?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon

A

D. Metencephalon

56
Q

Brodmann’s area 3, 1, 2 is responsible for
interpretation of sensations from the body. This
structure is derived from what subdivision?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon

A

A. Telencephalon

57
Q

Caudate nucleus is part of the basal nuclei. This is derived from what subdivision?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon

A

A. Telencephalon

58
Q

Medial geniculate body is one of the nuclei of the thalamus. This structure is derived from which subdivision?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon

A

B. Diencephalon

59
Q

Medulla oblongata is derived from what subdivision?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon

A

E. Myelencephalon

60
Q

This structure relays sensory stimuli like vision and audition going to the brain. This is derived from what subdivision?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon

A

B. Diencephalon

61
Q

This structure is for refinement of movement and for balance and equilibrium. This is derived from what primary division?
A. Prosencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Rhombencephalon

A

C. Rhombencephalon

62
Q

Lateral hypothalamic nucleus is for hunger and thirst center of the nervous system. This is derived from what primary division?
A. Prosencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Rhombencephalon

A

A. Prosencephalon

63
Q

Midbrain vesicle can be developed as what primary division?
A. Prosencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Rhombencephalon

A

B. Mesencephalon

64
Q

Multiple sclerosis is a demyelination disorder of the central nervous system. The cells that produce myelin sheath in the central nervous system are replaced by what cells?
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia
C. Ependymal cells
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Schwann cells

A

A. Astrocytes

65
Q

These serve as supporting framework of the nervous system.
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia
C. Ependymal cells
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Schwann cells

A

A. Astrocytes

66
Q

These cells are usually not present in healthy and normal brain.
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia
C. Ependymal cells
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Schwann cells

A

B. Microglia

67
Q

These cells are involved in the production and
secretion of cerebrospinal fluid.
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia
C. Ependymal cells
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Schwann cells

A

C. Ependymal cells

68
Q

Myelin sheath in the brain and spinal cord is usually produced by what cells?
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia
C. Ependymal cells
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Schwann cells

A

D. Oligodendrocytes

69
Q

These cells usually produce myelin sheath in the
peripheral nervous system.
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia
C. Ependymal cells
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Schwann cells

A

E. Schwann cells

70
Q

Pain and temperature
A. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
B. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
C. Dorsal Column Medial Lemniscus
D. All of the above

A

B. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract

71
Q

Decussates at the level of the spinal cord
A. Anterior spinothalamic tract
B. Lateral spinothalamic tract
C. Both
D. Neither

72
Q

1st order neuron is the DRG
A. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
B. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
C. Dorsal Column Medial Lemniscus
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

73
Q

Light touch and pressure
A. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
B. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
C. Dorsal Column Medial Lemniscus
D. All of the above

A

A. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract

74
Q

Proprioception and kinesthesia
A. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
B. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
C. Dorsal Column Medial Lemniscus
D. All of the above

A

C. Dorsal Column Medial Lemniscus

75
Q

When skin is heated above 45 deg C, the thermoreceptors become activated and will be interpreted as heat. As the rate of tissue damage increases, the greater is the perception of pain.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true

76
Q

The sensory homunculus represents each part of the body in proportion to its number of sensory neural connections, therefore determining the level of sensitivity of each of the
body areas. Stimulation of these areas in the brain may produce tingling sensation over the specific body part.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

C. Both statements are true

77
Q

The gate control theory can explain how non-painful stimuli can inhibit pain at the spinal cord level. This is because non-painful stimulates the A-beta fibers which cause presynaptic inhibition of T cells and thus closing the spinal gate to the cerebral cortex and decrease the sensation of pain.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

C. Both statements are true

78
Q

Patients with hemisection of the spinal cord can still feel at the level of lesion because of the presence of the posterior tract of Lissauers. The fibers of the posterior tract of Lissauers divides into ascending and descending tracts
upon decussation at the substantia gelatinosa.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false

79
Q

The serotonin and encephalin directly inhibit the pre- and post-synaptic of type C and A-delta fibers. Inhibition of these fibers leads to a decrease occurrence of pain.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true

80
Q

During tissue ischemia, pain is probably caused by the formation of chemical agents during cell damage. The greater the rate of metabolism on the area, the slower the pain appears.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false

81
Q

Patients diagnosed with Brown Sequard Syndrome cannot feel pain at the level of the lesion. Loss of proprioception is evident on the contralateral side while loss of pain is
evident on the ipsilateral side.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

D. Both statements are false

82
Q

Free nerve endings can be found in all layers of the skin. It can be stimulated mechanically, thermally, and chemically.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true

83
Q

All ascending pathways terminate at Brodmann Area 3, 1, 2. Removal of this area will result in various sensory impairments.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

C. Both statements are true

84
Q

If a pain fiber is stimulated, the person will receive pain regardless of the type of stimulus that excites it. The signals are interpreted by the different cutaneous receptors.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

A. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false

85
Q

Fast pain
A. Neospinothalamic tract
B. Paleospinothalamic tract
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Neospinothalamic tract

86
Q

Primary neurotransmitter is the Substance P
A. Neospinothalamic tract
B. Paleospinothalamic tract
C. Both
D. Neither

A

B. Paleospinothalamic tract

87
Q

Slow pain
A. Neospinothalamic tract
B. Paleospinothalamic tract
C. Both
D. Neither

A

B. Paleospinothalamic tract

88
Q

Pathway terminates at the postcentral gyrus
A. Neospinothalamic tract
B. Paleospinothalamic tract
C. Both
D. Neither

89
Q

Utilizes glutamate
A. Neospinothalamic tract
B. Paleospinothalamic tract
C. Both
D. Neither

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