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(2) Banche di Prova 📝 > MEDSURG2: 3rd Shifting > Flashcards

MEDSURG2: 3rd Shifting Flashcards

1
Q

Which among the following is used for the pharmacologic diagnostic test in Myasthenia gravis?
A. Physostigmine
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Edrophonium HCI
D. None of the above

A

C. Edrophonium HCI

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2
Q

Acute Panautonomic Neuropathy can present with the following EXCEPT?
A. Hyperreflexia
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Postprandial bloating
D. Dizziness

A

A. Hyperreflexia

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3
Q

Which among the following is most often reported as the antecedent event in Guillain-Barre syndrome?
A. Head trauma
B. Vaccination
C. Surgery
D. Gastrointestinal infection

A

D. Gastrointestinal infection

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4
Q

Which among the following is the most commonly used drug for treatment of Myasthenia Gravis?
A. Neostigmine
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Physostigmine
D. Prednisone

A

B. Pyridostigmine

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5
Q

Moderate and generalized skeletal weakness with bulbar involvement in myasthenia gravis is classified as Osserman Class?
A. 2A
B. 2B
C. 3
D. 4

A

B. 2B

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6
Q

Which group of muscles gets preferentially weak in Myasthenia Gravis?
A. Shoulder muscles
B. Pelvic girdle muscles
C. Extraocular muscles
D. Bulbar muscles

A

C. Extraocular muscles

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7
Q

What is a characteristic Cerebrospinal fluid analysis findings in Guillain Barre Syndrome?
A. Normal CSF cell count with elevated CSF sugar
B. Pleocytosis with elevated protein
C. Elevated protein with normal CSF cell count
D. Presence of oligoclonal bands

A

C. Elevated protein with normal CSF cell count

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8
Q

Which among the following electrodiagnostic test is best for diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis?
A. Electromyography
B. Evoked potential
C. Repetitive nerve stimulation
D. Single fiber EMG

A

D. Single fiber EMG

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9
Q

Which treatments are proven effective for GBS?
A. IVIg and plasmapheresis
B. Plasmapheresis and steroids
C. Plasmapheresis, Steroids, and IVIg
D. Steroid and IVIg

A

A. IVIg and plasmapheresis

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10
Q

Which CSF finding is consistent with Guillain-Barre syndrome?
A. Normal CSF protein
B. WBC <5 lymphocytes
C. Elevated CSF sugar
D. High CSF pressure

A

B. WBC <5 lymphocytes

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11
Q

The following clinical findings can be seen in GBS EXCEPT?
A. Depressed deep tendon reflexes
B. Ascending weakness
C. Fasciculations
D. Paresthesias in toes and fingers

A

C. Fasciculations

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12
Q

Which of following clinical presentations would not be suggestive of myasthenia or NMJ disorder?
A. Dysphagia
B. Drooping of one eyelid with anisocoria
C. Respiratory crisis
D. None of the above

A

B. Drooping of one eyelid with anisocoria

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13
Q

The following are part of the triad of Miller-Fisher variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. Ophthalmoplegia
B. Ascending weakness
C. Areflexia
D. Ataxia

A

B. Ascending weakness

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14
Q

The most common symptom/sign seen in fully developed GBS is?
A. Paresthesia
B. Areflexia
C. Facial weakness
D. Sensory loss

A

B. Areflexia

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15
Q

Which among the following is NOT a pre-synaptic neuromuscular junction disease?
A. Myasthenia Gravis
B. Botulism
C. Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome
D. All of the above

A

A. Myasthenia Gravis

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16
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In myasthenia gravis, acetylcholine is released in sufficient amount.

A

True

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17
Q

Albuminocytologic dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid among patients was first described by?
A. Barre and Strohl
B. Miller and Fisher
C. Adams and Asbury
D. Landry and Waldorp

A

A. Barre and Strohl

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18
Q

Which is NOT a poor prognostic feature of GBS?
A. Male sex
B. Rapid onset
C. With preceding diarrhea
D. Older age

A

A. Male sex

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19
Q

The following factors can worsen Myasthenia Gravis symptoms; EXCEPT?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Infection
C. Pregnancy
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

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20
Q

Focal degeneration of the myelin sheath with sparing of the axon is called
A. Axonal degeneration
B. Retrograde degeneration
C. Segmental degeneration
D. Wallerian degeneration

A

C. Segmental degeneration

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21
Q

Thymoma in MG is most commonly seen in which age group?
A. Below 30 y/o
B. Between 30-60 y/o
C. Above 60 y/o
D. None of the above

A

B. Between 30-60 y/o

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22
Q

Match the GBS variant with the associated antibody found in each disease.

  1. Pure sensory variant
  2. Miller Fisher Syndrome
  3. Acute motor sensory axonal neuropathy
  4. Acute Motor Axonal Neuropathy

A. GQ1b antibody
B. GD1b antibody
C. GM1 antibody
D. None

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. D
  4. C
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23
Q

Which of the following antibiotics causes sensory polyneuropathy due to subsequent vitamin B6 deficiency?
A. Metronidazole
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Ceftazidime

A

B. Isoniazid

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24
Q

Which of the following viral pathogens causes Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy?
A. Epstein Barr Virus
B. Herpes Virus
C. JC Papilloma Virus
D. Rubeola

A

C. JC Papilloma Virus

25
Q

The following are inclusions in the clinical criteria for multiple sclerosis, except?
A. Objective deficits are present on neurologic examination
B. Onset between age 10-50 years
C. Two separate attacks onset of symptoms is separated by at least 1 month
D. Symptoms must involve the gray matter

A

D. Symptoms must involve the gray matter

26
Q

What is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy?
A. Tumoral metastasis
B. Shoulder dystocia
C. Sports injury
D. Vehicular accidents

A

B. Shoulder dystocia

27
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Fasciculations and cramps are prominent features in most neuropathies

A

False

28
Q

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis presenting as cerebellitis usually follows which childhood infection?
A. Chickenpox
B. German measles
C. Mumps
D. Toxoplasmosis

A

A. Chickenpox

29
Q

Which type of demyelinating disease was commonly seen among Filipinos in the past?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Schilder’s sclerosis
C. Balo’s sclerosis
D. Acute disseminated type

A

C. Balo’s sclerosis

30
Q

Which clinical feature is not suggestive of multiple sclerosis?
A. Apraxia
B. Aphasia
C. Dysequilibrium
D. Seizures

A

D. Seizures

31
Q

Which statement correctly refers to Marchiafava-Bignami disease
A. it usually occurs due to rapid correction of hyponatremia
B. it has a predilection to demyelinate the pons
C. it is usually due to toxic effect of alcohol
D. it has a predilection to demyelinate the cerebellum

A

C. it is usually due to toxic effect of alcohol

32
Q

The acute development of symptoms and signs of neurologic dysfunction in motor, sensory, or autonomic nerves and nerve tracts of the spinal cord is known as?
A. transverse myelitis
B. acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
C. devic’s disease
D. myelopathy

A

A. transverse myelitis

33
Q

What is the most common inheritance pattern of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Type 1?
A. autosomal recessive
B. X-linked recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. autosomal dominant

A

D. autosomal dominant

34
Q

Which of the following differentiates the CSF findings of diffuse cerebral sclerosis of Schilder from multiple sclerosis?
A. abnormal cell count
B. absence of oligoclonal bands
C. low CSF IgG/Serum IgG index
D. very high protein

A

B. absence of oligoclonal bands

35
Q

Most common nerve affected in carpal tunnel syndrome is?
A. axillary
B. median
C. ulnar
D. radial

A

B. median

36
Q

Your patient has had two attacks of MS but only one lesion on MRI. Based on the 2017 McDonald Criteria for multiple sclerosis, what will be the additional criterion/criteria for this patient to be labelled as multiple sclerosis?
A. dissemination in space
B. dissemination in time
C. dissemination in time and space
D. no need for additional criterion

A

A. dissemination in space

37
Q

A 27-year-old Filipina presented with sudden onset of paraplegia and (+) sensory level at T8. This was accompanied by bladder and bowel disturbance. A few days later she developed monocular blindness. What will be the most likely diagnosis?
A. acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
B. devic disease
C. primary progressive MS
D. transverse myelitis

A

B. devic disease

38
Q

This type of multiple sclerosis is characterized by a disease that gradually gets worse over time. There are no well-defined attacks of symptoms and there is little or no remissions?
A. relapsing remitting MS
B. primary progressive MS
C. progressive relapsing MS
D. secondary progressive MS

A

B. primary progressive MS

39
Q

The following are signs and symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, except:
A. brisk tendon reflexes
B. stocking and glove cutaneous sensory loss
C. impaired position and vibration sense
D. distal muscle weakness

A

A. brisk tendon reflexes

40
Q

Match the neuropathic condition with its appropriate presentation and/or clinical manifestation

  1. Distal, symmetrical, primarily sensory form of polyneuropathy associated with chronically elevated glycosylated hemoglobin
  2. Chronic sensory polyneuropathy associated with very high creatinine levels
  3. Characteristically presents with wrist and finger drop after chronic exposure to fumes from smelting industries, burning batteries of old paint formulas
  4. presents with dysphagia and nasal voice

A. Lead neuropathy
B. Diabetic neuropathy
C. Uremic neuropathy
D. Diphtheritic neuropathy

A
  1. B
  2. C
  3. A
  4. D
41
Q

Match the nerve with its anatomical location for entrapment/compression

  1. Carpal tunnel
  2. Cubital tunnel
  3. Tarsal tunnel
  4. Fibular head

A. Peroneal nerve
B. Tibial nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Ulnar nerve

A
  1. C
  2. D
  3. B
  4. A
42
Q

Match the clinical phase of GBS with it’s most distinguishing presentation

  1. Mechanical ventilation
  2. Difficulty arising from chair
  3. Areflexia
  4. Rehabilitation

A. Phase 2
B. Phase 5
C. Phase 6
D. Phase 3

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. D
  4. C
43
Q

Which among the following is LEAST likely to be reported as the antecedent event in Guillain-Barre syndrome?
A. Head trauma
B. Vaccination
C. Surgery
D. Gastrointestinal infection

A

A. Head trauma

44
Q

Match the Stage or Class of Myasthenia Gravis with it’s appropriate presentation based on Osserman’s Classification

  1. Ocular myasthenia
  2. Late severe myasthenia, fulminating, with respiratory crises, with progression of symptoms occuring over 2 years from class 1 to 2
  3. Acute fulminating, rapid progression with respiratory crises, poor response to treatment
  4. Mild generalized, Slow progression, no crises, drug responsive

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4

A
  1. A
  2. D
  3. C
  4. B
45
Q

A 35 year old female came for consult due to sudden onset of left sided body numbness and weakness.

1 year prior the present symptom she developed blurring of vision on the left eye accompanied by pain around the eye. At the age of 25, during her pregnancy, she developed sudden onset of bilateral lower extremity weakness accompanied by loss of control while urinating that lasted for 1 month but spontaneously resolved.

What will be your primary consideration in this case?

A

Multiple sclerosis

46
Q

A 35 year old female came for consult due to sudden onset of left sided body numbness and weakness.

1 year prior the present symptom she developed blurring of vision on the left eye accompanied by pain around the eye. At the age of 25, during her pregnancy, she developed sudden onset of bilateral lower extremity weakness accompanied by loss of control while urinating that lasted for 1 month but spontaneously resolved. If she had presented with paralysis of adduction and nystagmus of the abducting eye, where will you place your lesion?

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

47
Q

A 35 year old female came for consult due to sudden onset of left sided body numbness and weakness.

1 year prior the present symptom she developed blurring of vision on the left eye accompanied by pain around the eye. At the age of 25, during her pregnancy, she developed sudden onset of bilateral lower extremity weakness accompanied by loss of control while urinating that lasted for 1 month but spontaneously resolved. If she had presented with paralysis of adduction and nystagmus of the abducting eye, where will you place your lesion?

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

48
Q

A 35 year old female came for consult due to sudden onset of left sided body numbness and weakness.

1 year prior the present symptom she developed blurring of vision on the left eye accompanied by pain around the eye. At the age of 25, during her pregnancy, she developed sudden onset of bilateral lower extremity weakness accompanied by loss of control while urinating that lasted for 1 month but spontaneously resolved.

What did this patient have a year before the current symptoms?

A

Optic neuritis

49
Q

A 35 year old female came for consult due to sudden onset of left sided body numbness and weakness.

1 year prior the present symptom she developed blurring of vision on the left eye accompanied by pain around the eye. At the age of 25, during her pregnancy, she developed sudden onset of bilateral lower extremity weakness accompanied by loss of control while urinating that lasted for 1 month but spontaneously resolved.

What will be the best diagnostic tool to use in this case?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging

50
Q

The following conditions are associated with bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome except?

A. Diabetes
B. Repetitive wrist motion
C. Pregnancy
D. Hypothyroidism

A

A. Diabetes

51
Q

Most common syndrome of diabetic neuropathy is

A

Distal, symmetrical, sensory polyneuropathy

52
Q

Which cranial nerve is most commonly affected by sarcoid neuropathy

A

Seventh cranial nerve (Facial nerve)

53
Q

The most common cause of polyneuropathy in clinical practice is

A

Diabetic neuropathy

54
Q

Which among the following is a stimulus evoked neuropathic pain?

A. Allodynia
B. Causalgia
C. Paresthesia
D. Dysesthesia

A

A. Allodynia

55
Q

The most common manifestation of Lead Neuropathy is:

A. Wrist and finger drop
B. Glove and stocking distribution of numbness
C. Weakness of lower extremities
D. Ophthalmoparesis

A

A. Wrist and finger drop

56
Q

Which among the following characteristically presents as an acute demyelinating polyneuropathy with dysphagia and nasal voice?

A. Alcoholic neuropathy
B. Uremic neuropathy
C. Diphtheritic neuropathy
D. Neuropathy due to arsenic poisoning

A

C. Diphtheritic neuropathy

57
Q

The most common cause of severe and chronic low back pain is

A

Intervertebral disc herniation

58
Q

An EMG-NCV test does the following, EXCEPT:

A. Localize the site of the injury along the course of the motor unit
B. Suggest nerve pathology (either axonal or demyelinating)
C. Determine if the condition is neuropathic or myopathic
D. Provides the final pathologic diagnosis

A

D. Provides the final pathologic diagnosis

59
Q

Chronic idiopathic demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is differentiated from GBS by which of the following?

A. Responsiveness to corticosteroids
B. Enlargement of the nerves
C. Prolonged and relapsing course
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

(2) Banche di Prova 📝 (23 decks)

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