Physiology_Lesson_2_-_Reflexes-Blood_Physiology_Batch_2026 Flashcards
Which component of the reflex arc produces the motor response?
A. Afferent limb
B. Central component
C. effector cells
D. efferent limb
effector cells
A student taps the patellar tendon of his classmate using a reflex hammer. This brief change in muscle length will stimulate which sensory fiber in the muscle spindles?
A. la
B. Ib
C. II
D. III
la
Sensitivity of the muscle spindles WILL BE INCREASED in which of the following?
A. When the extrafusal muscle contracts and the spindle is unloaded
B. When gamma motors are inhibited
C. When the polar regions of the intrafusal muscle contracts
D. When the entire intrafusal muscle contracts along with the extrafusal
When the polar regions of the intrafusal muscle contracts
Which of the following sensory/afferent endings in the muscle spindles is sensitive to both rate and amount of stretch and is therefore sensitive to sudden changes in muscle length?
A. Group Ib
B. Group III
C. Group Ia
D. Group II
Group Ia
The neurons that are also part of the Central Generator Patter (CGP) which generates walking movement or locomotion also subserves which reflex?
A. flexor reflex
B. inverse myotatic
C. myotatic
D. tonic
E. flexor reflex
Which of the following statements IS TRUE about the muscle spindles?
A. receive both sensory and motor innervation
B. equatorial portion of the spindle is capable of vigorous contraction
C. limited only to muscles that require fine control
D. arranged in series in the tendinous insertion of the muscle
receive both sensory and motor innervation
The Golgi Tendon Organ that detects muscle force is the sensory receptor in which of the following reflexes?
A. flexion reflex
B. inverse myotatic
C. myotatic reflex
D. tonic stretch reflex
inverse myotatic
Noxious or painful stimuli is the usual stimulus for which of the following reflexes?
A. myotatic reflex
B. inverse myotatic
C. flexion reflex
D. tonic stretch reflex
flexion reflex
A man stepped on broken glass while wading through the flood. The reflex reaction to this will be:
A. as the affected limb extends, the opposite limb flexes
B. as the affected limb extends, the opposite limb also extends
C. as the affected limb flexes, the opposite limb also flexes
D. as the affected limb flexes, the opposite limb extends
as the affected limb flexes, the opposite limb extends
What is this reflex (No. 9) called?
A. crossed extensor
B. flexor
C. inverse myotatic
D. myotatic
crossed extensor
When there is reduced activity of the Golgi Tendon Organ supplying a certain muscle, what will be there response?
A. increased alpha motor neuron activity with increased muscle force
B. force of muscle contraction decreases
C. muscle relaxation and increase in muscle length
D. stretching of the muscle tendon
force of muscle contraction decreases
What is being detected by muscle spindles?
A. changes in muscle length
B. increased muscle force
C. decrease in muscle force
D. rate of contraction
changes in muscle length
What is the importance of the flexor reflex?
A. Activates muscles of posture maintains muscle tone
B. withdraws irritated body part from noxious stimuli
C. to prevent muscle damage due to extreme muscle tension
withdraws irritated body part from noxious stimuli
The portion of the reflex arc that carries sensory information from the sensory receptors in the periphery to the CNS:
A. efferent limb
B. afferent limb
C. integration center
D. effector organs
afferent limb
This is responsible for the maintenance of muscle tone and ability to maintain posture:
A. phasic stretch reflex
B. tonic stretch reflex
C. inverse myotatic reflex
D. crossed extensor reflex
tonic stretch reflex
The correct route of a reflex arc is:
A. receptor, afferent neuron, interneuron, efferent neuron, effector
B. effector, receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, interneuron
C. interneuron, afferent neuron, receptor, effector neuron, efferent neuron
D. efferent neuron, effector, afferent neuron, receptor, interneuron
receptor, afferent neuron, interneuron, efferent neuron, effector
Which of the following is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibers that are cholinergic?
A. heart
B. smooth muscles of GIT
C. bronchial smooth muscle
D. piloerector muscle
piloerector muscle
The following are correct about the autonomic nervous system (ANS) EXCEPT:
A. controls most visceral functions
B. effects may be intense and rapid
C. divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
D. sympathetic is excitatory while parasympathetic is inhibitory
sympathetic is excitatory while parasympathetic is inhibitory
This organ is considered as a postganglionic sympathetic neuron and serves as a safety factor that can serve as a back up for damaged or lost sympathetic nerve fibers:
A. hypothalamus
B. anterior pituitary
C. adrenal cortex
D. adrenal medulla
adrenal medulla
One of the following cranial nerves make up 75% or the majority of parasympathetic nervous system and supplies visceral organs in the thorax and abdomen:
A. vagus
B. glossopharyngeal
C. facial nerve
D. oculomotor
vagus
All preganglionic fibers of both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are:
A. adrenergic
B. cholinergic
C. both
D. neither
cholinergic
The following statements are true about the sympathetic division of the ANS EXCEPT:
A. preganglionic neurons originate from T1 to L2 of the spinal cord
B. also known as thoracolumbar division
C. postganglionic neurons are found in the visceral organs to be controlled
D. responsible for fight and flight response to stressful situations
postganglionic neurons are found in the visceral organs to be controlled
The neurotransmitter of all postganglionic parasympathetic fibers is:
A. acetylcholine
B. dopamine
C. epinephrine
D. norepinephrine
acetylcholine
With stimulation of the sympathetic division, the following are expected EXCEPT:
A. increased GIT motility and increased enzyme secretion
B. increased heart rate and force of contraction
C. vasoconstriction
D. pupillary dilation or mydriasis
increased GIT motility and increased enzyme secretion
Which causes more bronchodilation and can cause glycogen mobilization in muscle and kidneys?
A. epinephrine
B. norepinephrine
C. both
D. neither
epinephrine
Which has more affinity with alpha receptors and can therefore cause more vasoconstriction?
A. epinephrine
B. norepinephrine
C. both
D. neither
norepinephrine
The preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are found in the:
A. brainstem
B. cranial nerves
C. hypothalamus
D. spinal cord
spinal cord
Division/s of the ANS which exhibits the “mass discharge” response particularly during strong emotional states such as fear, anger or pain:
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. both
D. neither
sympathetic nervous system
One of the following is the response of the hypothalamus to cooling/exposure to cold temperature:
A. One of the following is the response of the hypothalamus to cooling/exposure to cold temperature:
B. decreased heat production
C. increased thyroid gland activity
D. decreased metabolic activity
decreased heat production
Injury to this portion of the hypothalamus will result to loss of satiety leading to overeating and obesity:
A. lateral hypothalamus
B. posterior hypothalamus
C. lateral hypothalamus
D. ventromedial nucleus
ventromedial nucleus
Adrenal medulla endocrine cells are characterized as follows EXCEPT:
A. receive input from sympathetic nervous system
B. secreted catecholamines have short duration of action
C. 80% of catecholamine elaborated is epinephrine
D. releases catecholamines into circulation instead of a synapse
secreted catecholamines have short duration of action
The postganglionic neurons are found in the paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia
sympathetic
parasympathetic
both
neither
sympathetic
A girl is looking at a near object. Consequently, the intern observing her noticed that her pupils were constricted as she looked at the near object. Which is responsible for the pupillary constriction?
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. both
D. neither
Parasympathetic nervous system
With regards to the effect of the autonomic nervous system on the urinary bladder, what will be the effect parasympathetic nervous system stimulation?
A. it will inhibit micturition
B. micturition will be activated
C. urinary sphincters are tonically contracted
D. detrusor muscle is inhibited
micturition will be activated
Stress may cause immunosuppression because in response to stress the hypothalamus will release:
A. CRH
B. corticosteroid
C. epinephrine
D. acetylcholine
CRH
After vascular constriction, the next step in hemostasis is?
A. Vascular stasis
B. Growth of fibrous tissue
C. Formation of platelet plug
D. Formation of clot
Formation of platelet plug
The degree of vascular spasm during hemostasis events is mostly influenced by the amount of?
A. Platelets
B. Autacoid factors
C. Trauma
D. Reflex
Trauma
It is a platelet component, together with actin and myosin, that is responsible for its contraction?
A. Thrombostenin
B. Growth factor
C. Fibrin- stabilizing factor
D. Phospholipids
Thrombostenin
During the formation of the plug, the role of released bioactive factors from platelets includes:
A. Formation of thromboxane A2
B. Adherence to normal tissues
C. Adhere to von Willebrand factor
D. Form adenosine diphosphate
Formation of thromboxane A2
Which of these conditions does not cause excessive bleeding?
A. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Vascular stasis
C. Hemophilia
D. Thrombocytopenia
Vascular stasis
Rate limiting factor in coagulation:
A. Thrombin
B. Prothrombin
C. Prothrombin activator
D. Fibrin
Prothrombin activator
What are the effects of anemia on the circulatory system?
A. Blood viscosity increase 1.5x of water
B. Decreases the peripheral blood flow to the vessels.
C. Resulting hypoxia causes the peripheral blood vessels to constrict.
D. Increase in return of blood to the heart will decrease cardiac output.
Decreases the peripheral blood flow to the vessels
What is the advantage of a biconcave disc shape:
A. Deformable
B. Unbreakable
C. Stretchable
D. Modifiable
Deformable
Red blood cells production in the time of middle trimester occurs in which of the following main organs?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Bone marrow
Liver
Growth and reproduction of the different stem cells are controlled by the following factors causing increased rate of production, except;
A. High altitudes
B. Prolonged cardiac failure
C. Hyperventilation
D. Infectious diseases
Hyperventilation
The first cell that can be identified as belonging to the erythroblast series:
A. Basophilic erythroblast
B. Polychromatophilic ervthroblast
C. Orthochromatic erythroblast
D. Proerythroblast
Proerythroblast
Aside from hypoxia, other sensors that send signal to the kidneys to produce erythropoietin include which one?
A. Bradykinins
B. Prostaglandins
C. Cvtokines
D. Acetylcholine
Prostaglandins
In an atmosphere of low 02, which of the following will occur?
A. Erythropoietin forms after 24 hours.
B. Red blood cells appears in the circulation within 5 days
C. EPO causes proerythroblast to pass more rapidly through different stages
D. Few RBCS are formed by the bone marrow.
EPO causes proerythroblast to pass more rapidly through different stages
What are the roles of Vitamin B12 and Vitamin B9, in the development of RBCs?
A. Lack of these causes failure to proliferate rapidly.
B. Essential for the synthesis of RNA.
C. Significant with rate but not with maturation.
D. Abundance of vit B12 and B9 causes macrocytes.
Lack of these causes failure to proliferate rapidly.
The following statement best describe the relationship between Vitamin B12 and intrinsic factor, except;
A. Intrinsic factor gives vitamin B12 protection from digestion from gastrointestinal secretion.
B. Lack of intrinsic factor causes faulty absorption of the vitamin B12.
C. Vitamin B12 is transported with intrinsic factor through the brush border membranes in the ileum.
D. A few days of defective B12 absorption will cause maturation failure anemia.
A few days of defective B12 absorption will cause maturation failure anemia.
The most common form of hemoglobin in the adult human being is a combination of:
A. two alpha chains and two gamma chains
B. Two alpha chains and two beta chains
C. Two alpha chains and two delta chains
D. Two beta chains and two delta chains
Two alpha chains and two beta chains
Which of the following statements is true of the hemoglobin molecule?
A. Synthesis of hemoglobin occurs and ends in the proerythroblast stage.
B. A hemoglobin chain is a subunit of hemoglobin and four chains form the hemoglobin molecule.
C. Each hemoglobin molecule contains one atom of iron which binds with one molecule of oxygen.
D. The binding affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen is independent of the type of hemoglobin chain.
A hemoglobin chain is a subunit of hemoglobin and four chains form the hemoglobin molecule.
When iron (Fe++) combines with a beta globulin in the blood plasma and transported to tissue cells:
A. Ferritin
B. Transferrin
C. Apotransferrin
D. Apoferritin
Transferrin
Regulation of total body iron occurs in the?
A. Liver
B. RBC
C. Intestine
D. Plasma
Intestine
Mature RBCs do not have cell organelles but contain cytoplasmic enzymes whose functions include the following, except:
A. Maintain flexibility of the cell membrane.
B. Maintain membrane transport of ions.
C. Keep the iron of the cell’s hemoglobin in the ferric form.
D. Prevent oxidation of the proteins in the RBC.
Keep the iron of the cell’s hemoglobin in the ferric form.
After approximately 120 days, RBs burst and release their hemoglobin which is phagocytize in the:
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following combinations is correct?
A. Bone marrow dysfunction = hypochromic anemia
B. Rapid hemorrhage = megaloblastic anemia
C. RBC abnormalities = idiopathic aplastic anemia
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency = microcytic anemia
Vitamin B12 deficiency = microcytic anemia
Polycythemia can be caused by:
A. High altitudes
B. Genetic aberration in erythroblast
C. Both
D. None of the above
Both
Of the total white blood cells in the blood, which type has the highest percentage?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Basophils
D. Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Which type of WBC has the longest life span?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Basophils
D. Platelets
Lymphocytes
Specifically activates the blood clotting mechanism?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocvtes
D. Platelets
Platelets
Which type of WBCs are formed in the bone marrow?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Plasma cells
D. None of the above
Neutrophils
Which type of WBCs are formed in lymphogenous tissues?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocvtes
C. Monocytes
D. Platelets
Lymphocvtes
Directly attacks and destroy bacteria, viruses and other injurious agents:
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Plasma cells
D. Platelets
Neutrophils
Chemical substances that may function as chemotactic signals:
A. Normal tissue product
B. Non activated complement complex
C. Products caused by plasma clotting
D. Intact collagen, fibrin
Products caused by plasma clotting
Selective phagocytosis to prevent ingestion of normal cells of the body by neutrophils and macrophages takes place by:
A. Tissues and cells have smooth surfaces.
B. Absence of protective coat of normal cell structures.
C. antibodies targeting normal tissues.
D. Non selective opsonization by C3.
Tissues and cells have smooth surfaces
Which of the following are the highlights of phagocytosis by neutrophils:
A. Neutrophils enter the tissues as immature cells, unable to begin phagocytosis.
B. Neutrophils mature in tissues then approach a particle to be phagocytize.
C. Neutrophils first projects pseudopodia, then attaches itself
D. A single neutrophil can ingest 3-20 bacteria before inactivation.
A single neutrophil can ingest 3-20 bacteria before inactivation.
The following statements characterized macrophages, which is not true;
A. End- stage product of monocytes.
B. Capable of ingesting a hundred bacteria.
C. They are able to engulf only small particles.
D. Does not get inactivated after phagocytosis.
They are able to engulf only small particles.
Monocytes in the Reticuloendothelial system are described as:
A. Monocytes attached to tissues for weeks
B. Monocytes perform specific local function in tissues
C. Once activated Monocytes break off and enlarge to become neutrophils
D. Mature monocytes are majority found in the circulatory system
Monocytes perform specific local function in tissues
Functions of the Monocyte-Macrophage system are following, except:
A. Lymph nodes have small numbers of macrophages that they partially prevent particle dissemination in the body
B. the spleen is the next line of defense if the organism enter the circulation
C. Kupffer cells prevent invasion from the gastrointestinal tract
D. Alveolar macrophages form giant cell capsule for indigestible particles
Lymph nodes have small numbers of macrophages that they partially prevent particle dissemination in the body
Inflammatory cytokines includes the following:
A. Tumor necrosis factor
B. Interleukin B
C. ADP+
D. Growth hormone
Tumor necrosis factor
What is the 1st step in neutrophil invasion?
A. Intercellular attachment loosens, neutrophils crawl through spaces
B. Release of inflammatory cytokines by inflamed tissues
C. Neutrophils crawl towards injured tissues.
D. Adhesion molecules react with neutrophils and attaches to capillary walls
Neutrophils crawl towards injured tissues.
Inflamed tissues releases cytokines which causes endothelial cells to secrete selectins and ICAM-1 which reacts with neutrophils’ integrin causing adhesion:
A. Diapedesis
B. Margination
C. Chemotaxis
D. Phagocytosis
Margination
What is the response of neutrophils and macrophages to acute bacterial infection?
A. Within minutes of infection, tissue macrophages provide the first line of defense.
B. Within the 1 hour, a second macrophage invasion due to monocytes from the blood entering the tissues provides the 2nd line of defense.
C. Several days later, neutrophilia occurs, providing the 3rd line of defense.
D. Formation of pus is the 4th line of defense.
Within minutes of infection, tissue macrophages provide the first line of defense.
During clot formation, the positive feedback that promotes more clotting is by:
A. Proteolytic action of thrombin.
B. Fibrin stimulates more prothrombin.
C. Fibrinogen accelerates Factors VII, X
D. Fibrin fibers draw in more thrombin
Proteolytic action of thrombin.
Which of these is true of the mechanisms in the initiation of coagulation?
A. Vascular trauma initiates the Intrinsic pathways.
B. Exposure of blood to collagen initiates the Extrinsic pathways.
C. Traumatized extravascular tissues initiates the Intrinsic pathways
C. Blood clotting factors are converted to active forms.
Blood clotting factors are converted to active forms.
Actions of clotting factors in the initiation of clotting
A. Factor X is activated from trauma to the blood.
B. Factor XII is activated from extravascular trauma.
C. Factor IX activation is common to both pathways.
D. Factor V combines with platelets phospholipids.
Factor V combines with platelets phospholipids.
Also called Antihemophilic factor:
A. Factor VII
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor X
D. Factor XII
Factor VIII
Which of the following is true regarding classic Hemophilia?
A. Most common cause is deficiency in Factor IX.
B. Bleeding usually occurs after trauma.
C. Transmitted by the male chromosome.
D. The Extrinsic pathway is more affected.
Transmitted by the male chromosome.
What is the blood type of a person with agglutinogen B?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type O
D. Туре AB
Type B
what is the blood type of a person with agglutinin anti-A?
A. Туре A
B. Туре B
C. Type 0
D. Туре AB
Туре B
A person with no agglutinins will have a blood type?
A. Туре A
B. Type B
C. Type O
D. Туре AB
Туре AB
A person with no agglutinogens will have a blood type?
A. Туре A
B. Type B
C. Type O
D. Туре AB
Type O
Erythroblastosis fetalis is characterized by?
A. Rh negative infant is born to a Rh positive mother
B. The mother develops Rh agglutinogens.
C. The newborn may develop kernicterus as a result of complications.
D. Anti-D antibody is given to Rh positive mothers for prevention.
The newborn may develop kernicterus as a result of complications.
Transplantation of tissue from one identical twin to another is called?
A. Isograft
B. Allograft
C. Autograft
D. Xenograft
Isograft
The most important antigens for causing graft rejection?
A. Antigen Presenting Cells
B. Major Histocompatibility Complex
C. Surface Receptor Proteins
D. Human Leukocyte Antigen
Human Leukocyte Antigen
Preprocessing of T lymphocytes occurs in the?
A. Liver
B. Bone marrow
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus
Thymus
The following statements are the objectives of preprocessing of lymphocytes, except.
A. Preprocessing adds capability to lymphocyte stem cells to form activated T lymphocytes and antibodies.
B. Lymphocytes develop extremely diverse reactions to different specific antigens.
C. Preprocessed cells react against antigens from transplant tissues from another person’s.
D. Preprocessing makes certain that lymphocytes will react on the antigens present in the body’s own tissues.
Preprocessing makes certain that lymphocytes will react on the antigens present in the body’s own tissues.
Which of the following cells secretes antibodies that react with foreign invaders?
A. T cytotoxic lymphocytes
B. T helper lymphocytes
C. T suppressor lymphocytes
D. B lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
These are greatly enhanced forms of B lymphocytes, once exposed to specific antigens causes a much more rapid and potent antibodies response:
A. Memory cells
B. Lymphoblast
C. Plasmablast
D. Antigen Presenting Cells
Memory cells
Which portion of Antibodies attaches to a specific antigen?
A. Variable portion
B. Constant portion
C. Light chain
D. Heavy chain
Variable portion
Direct attack lymphocyte cells that binds to invasive organisms which secretes perforins?
A. T cytotoxic lymphocytes
B. T helper lymphocytes
C. T suppressor lymphocytes
D. B lymphocytes
T cytotoxic lymphocytes
Specific antigens that react with basophils and mast cells causing widespread allergic reaction to the vascular system?
A. Urticaria
B. Asthma
C. Hay fever
D. Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis
What Happens to blood clot that occured in areas of the body but they were not needed?
A. Substances from the endothelium deactivates the clot
B. Factors from the clot itself dissolves the clot
C. Connective tissue is invaded causing inactivation
D. Clot retraction causes dissolution
Factors from the clot itself dissolves the clot
Catalyse conversion of prothrombin to thrombin?
A. Fibrinogen
B. Thromboxane
C. Prothrombin activator
D. Collagenase
Prothrombin activator
Which of the following roles of platelets is considered the most important?
A. Initiates positive feedback of clotting
B. Has prothrombin receptors
C. Causes cross linking between fibrins
D. Produces actin and myosin
Has prothrombin receptors
Which of the following is true?
A. Extrinsic pathway occurs first before Intrinsic pathway
B. Intrinsic pathway occurs faster than extrinsic pathway
C. Extrinsic pathway is limited by amount of tissue factors
D. Clotting from severe tissue trauma occurs with in minutes
Extrinsic pathway is limited by amount of tissue factors
Which of the following regulations of clotting is true?
A. Plasmin is trapped in the clot
B. t-PA is released after few hours clotting has stopped
C. Platelets release plasminogen
D. Factor V, factor VIII, prothrombin, fibrin are digested
Factor V, factor VIII, prothrombin, fibrin are digested
Causes of thromboembolic conditions, except?
A. Atherosclerotic plaque
B. Non Alcoholic fatty liver disease
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Disseminated vascular dissemination
Non Alcoholic fatty liver disease
Prothrombin activator cannot convert prothrombin may be due to?
A. Insufficient vascular damage
B. Low serum Ca+
C. Decrease amount of thrombin
D. Normal levels of fibrin stabilizing factor
Low serum Ca+
