8th Physiology Lecture Exam - Nervous System (Batch 2025) Flashcards
1
Q
- Signal generation involved in the function of the vestibular apparatus involves conversion of
a. Mechanical signals to electrical signals
b. Electrical signals to chemical signals
C. Chemical signals to electrical signals
d. Mechanical signals to chemical signals
A
a. Mechanical signals to electrical signals
2
Q
- A 63 y/o man presents with muscle rigidity, resting tremor, and difficulty walking, consistent with Parkinson disease. The involved neurotransmitter resulting in the patients difficulty in initiating movement is in the
a. GABA
b. Acetylcholine
c. Substantia nigra
d. Dopamine
A
d. Dopamine
3
Q
- Which of the following structures is
primarily involved in controlling the
necessary instantaneous interplay
between agonist and antagonist
muscle groups?
a. Cerebellum
b. Supplementary motor cortex
c. Primary motor cortex
d. Basal ganglia
A
a. Cerebellum
4
Q
- Which group of neurons function in
association with the pontine nuclei to
control the antigravity muscles?
a. Substantia nigra
b. Flocullonodular
c. Vestibular nuclei
d. Basal ganglia
A
c. Vestibular nuclei
5
Q
- When doing the corneal reflex in a
patient with Bell’s palsy, what finding
will you expect?
a. Loss of vision
b. Pupillary dilatation
c. Inability to detect pain
sensation
d. Difficulty blinking the eyes
A
d. Difficulty blinking the eyes
6
Q
- The ability to vocalize words
properly what the patient has
decided to say is the function of
which are of the body?
a. Medulla
b. Primary motor cortex
c. Wernicke’s area
d. Broca’s area
A
d. Broca’s area
7
Q
- Nerve fibers that directly innervate
the skeletal muscle fibers leave the
cord by way of which of the following
structures?
a. White matter
b. Posterior horn
c. Anterior horn
d. Gray matter
A
c. Anterior horn
8
Q
- Excitation of the cerebral cortex by
this structure is necessary for almost
all cortical activity
a. Caudate nucleus
b. Thalamus
c. Substantia nigra
d. Basal ganglia
A
b. Thalamus
9
Q
- Withdrawal of an affected limb from
painful stimulus is characterized as
which of the following reflexes?
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Crossed-extensor reflex
c. Extensor reflex
d. Flexor reflex
A
d. Flexor reflex
10
Q
- In Parkinson’s Disease, the bradykinesia observed is due to increased activity of neurons in the internal segment of the globus pallidus resulting to:
a. Increased activation of the brainstem
b. Increased activation of the motor cortex
c. Increased synthesis of dopamine
d. Less activation of motor cortical areas
A
d. Less activation of motor
cortical areas
11
Q
- Which of the following observations
would suggest that an upper motor
neuron lesion rather than a lower
motor neuron lesion is present?
a. Hyporeflexia
b. Profound muscle weakness
c. Spasticity
d. Profound muscle wasting
A
c. Spasticity
12
Q
- True statement about regulation and coordination of muscle movement
a. All of the statements are correct
b. Basal ganglia is involved in timing of motor activities and smooth progression from one movement to another
C. Proper motor movement requires proper
functioning of the basal ganglia and cerebellum
d. Cerebellum plays a major role in controlling relative intensities of individual motion components
A
C. Proper motor movement requires proper
functioning of the basal ganglia and cerebellum
13
Q
- The thought process of movement
begins with the motor image of the
total muscle movement that is to be
performed. Which of the following is
responsible for this thought process?
a. Primary motor cortex
b. Premotor area
c. Are 42
d. Wernicke’s area
A
b. Premotor area
14
Q
- These are mainly short-term
memories that are used during the
course of intellectual reasoning but
are terminated as each stage of the
problem is resolved.
a. Intermediate memory
b. Working memory
c. Intermediate long-term
memory
d. Long-term memory
A
b. Working memory
15
Q
- What is the other name for the most
important output pathway from the
motor cortex is referred to as the
pyramidal tracts?
a. Spinothalamic tract
b. Corticocerebellar tracts
c. Corticobulbar tracts
d. Corticospinal tract
A
d. Corticospinal tract
16
Q
- Which part of the cerebellum is
responsible for planning and
initiation of movement?
a. Vestibulocerebellum
b. Spinocerebellum
c. Cerebrocerebellum
(Neocerebellum)
d. Flocculonodular lobe
A
c. Cerebrocerebellum
(Neocerebellum)
17
Q
- During a withdrawal response of the
right arm, antagonistic muscles of
the right arm are inhibited allowing
for the unopposed contraction of
flexor muscles. The pattern of neural
signaling involved in this case is
a. Reflex stimulation
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Diverging circuitry
d. Crossed-extensor reflex
A
b. Reciprocal inhibition
18
Q
- True statement about the basal ganglia regulation of movement?
a. All of the statements are correct
b. Interaction between the basal ganglia and cortex essentially are composed of negative feedback loops
c. There are dopamine pathways from the caudate nucleus and putamen
d. Major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the basal ganglia is dopamine
A
b. Interaction between the basal ganglia and cortex essentially are composed of negative feedback loops
19
Q
- Neuronal circuits in the interneuron
pool of the spinal cord conduct
impulses in which of the following
patterns?
a. Repetitive-discharge
b. Diverging
c. All of the patterns are correct
d. Converging
A
c. All of the patterns are
correct
20
Q
- Formation of thought and even most
choices of words enabling a person
to communicate through language is
the function of which cortical area?
a. Wernicke’s area
b. Broca’s area
c. Primary motor cortex
d. Primary sensory cortex
A
a. Wernicke’s area
21
Q
- Which of the following are identified
interneurons which function as
inhibitory cells to surrounding motor
neurons allowing for lateral
inhibition?
a. Muscle spindle
b. Reed-sternberg cells
c. Golgi tendon
d. Renshaw cells
A
d. Renshaw cells
22
Q
- This is a parasympathetic function of
the 7th cranial nerve
a. Pupillary constriction
b. Bronchodilation
c. Salivation and lacrimation
d. Decreased heart rate
A
c. Salivation and lacrimation
23
Q
- Learning rapid hand and physical
skills such as suturing depends on
physically repeating the required
task over and over again rather than
symbolically rehearsing the
movement in the mind. This type of
learning is based on which of the
following?
a. None of the choices is
correct
b. Skill memory
c. Declarative memory
d. Machine learning
A
b. Skill memory
24
Q
- These structures are arranged at
right angles to one another so that
they represent all three planes in
space to reference the position of
the head.
a. Utricle
b. Semicircular ducts
c. Cochlea
d. Macula
A
b. Semicircular ducts
25
Q
- Which of the ff is a sign of Bell’s
palsy?
a. Inability to wrinkle
forehead
b. Inability to identify different
scents
c. Inability to move arms and
legs
d. Unilateral sensory loss of
lower and upper extremities
A
a. Inability to wrinkle
forehead
26
Q
- The sensory portion of the 7th
cranial nerve is tested through which
of the ff?
a. Testing for taste in the
anterior ⅔ of the tongue
b. Testing for pain by pinching
the cheeks
c. Asking the subject to smell
different solutions
d. Testing for gag reflex
A
a. Testing for taste in the
anterior ⅔ of the tongue
27
Q
- Which component of the utricle
mainly lies on the horizontal plane
important in determining orientation
of the head when the head is upright
tested by turning the patient’s head?
a. Semicircular canals
b. Cochlea
c. Utricle
d. Saccule
A
c. Utricle
28
Q
- Integration of sensorimotor signals
responsible for the generation of
spinal cord reflexes is located in
which of the ff areas?
a. Gray matter of the cerebral
cortex
b. White matter area of the
spinal cord
c. Gray matter of the spinal
cord
d. Gray matter of the brainstem
A
c. Gray matter of the spinal
cord
29
Q
- In the majority of patients who
develop Bell’s palsy, what is the
prognosis?
a. Poor; signs and symptoms
are irreversible and may
remain
b. Good; may resolve with or
without treatment
c. Prognosis depends on the
cause of the condition
d. Guarded; symptoms may
improve or may worsen
A
b. Good; may resolve with or
without treatment
30
Q
- Facilitation of the synaptic pathways
to retain incoming information that
causes important consequences
such as pain and pleasure is
referred to as
a. Habituation
b. Negative memory
c. Excitation
d. Memory sensitization
A
d. Memory sensitization
31
Q
- Akinesia, one of the signs of
Parkinson’s disease means:
a. Abnormal twitching of
muscles
b. Muscle stiffness
c. Shuffling gait
d. Difficulty in starting
movement
A
d. Difficulty in starting
movement
32
Q
- The structural capability of synapses
to transmit signals are increased
during establishment of which type
of memory?
a. Working memory
b. Short term memory
c. Long-term memory
d. Intermediate long-term
memory
A
c. Long-term memory
33
Q
- In Parkinson’s disease there is:
a. Increased activity of the
direct pathway and
decreased activity of indirect
pathway
b. Increased activity of both
direct and indirect pathway
c. Diminished activity of both
direct and indirect pathway
d. Diminished activity of the
direct pathway and
increased activity of
indirect pathway
A
d. Diminished activity of the
direct pathway and
increased activity of
indirect pathway
34
Q
- You were walking barefoot when
your right foot stepped on a thumb
tack. You noticed that you reflexively
pulled the right leg away while your
left leg extended to maintain your
upright position. This type of reflex
pattern is referred to as
a. Flexor reflex
b. Crossed-extensor reflex
c. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
d. Withdrawal reflex
A
b. Crossed-extensor reflex
35
Q
- Parkinson’s disease is due to which
of the following:
a. Loss of neural connections of
the cerebellum
b. Hypersecretion of
catecholamines in the basal
ganglia
c. Loss of dopaminergic
neurons in the substantia
nigra
d. Loss of cholinergic
stimulation to the basal
ganglia
A
c. Loss of dopaminergic
neurons in the substantia
nigra
36
Q
- One of the ff is a manifestation of
Parkinson’s disease
a. Dysmetria
b. Tremors at rest
c. Ataxia
d. Dysdiadochokinesia
A
b. Tremors at rest
37
Q
- Ne of facilitated neural pathways as
a result of changing basic sensitivity
of synaptic transmissions between
neurons as a result of previous
neural activity which results in
memory are called
a. Facilitation
b. Desensitization
c. Memory traces
d. Habituation
A
c. Memory traces
38
Q
- A type of negative memory involving
the capability of the brain to lear to
ignore information that is of no
consequence is
a. Inhibition
b. Amnesia
c. Learning
d. Habitation
A
d. Habitation
39
Q
- Degeneration of
dopamine-containing neurons in the
substantia nigra leads to which of
the ff?
a. Suppression of the direct
pathway and facilitate the
indirect pathway from the
striatum to the basal
ganglia output nuclei
b. Suppressed activity in the
subthalamic nucleus
c. Produce dyskinesias such as
chorea
d. Decrease activity in basal
ganglia output nuclei
A
a. Suppression of the direct
pathway and facilitate the
indirect pathway from the
striatum to the basal
ganglia output nuclei
40
Q
- Which of the ff structures is/are
involved in proper activation of
muscles of the mouth, tongue, larynx
and vocal cords including timing and
intonation of articulated words?
a. Sensory cortex
b. Cerebellum
c. Basal ganglia
d. All of the choices are
correct
A
d. All of the choices are
correct
41
Q
- Which of the following structures
helps transmit electrical signals to
the neuron’s cell body?
a. Neurofilaments
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Dendritic Spines
d. Microtubules
A
c. Dendritic Spines
42
Q
- Which neural apparatus is
responsible for the transduction of
sound?
a. Basilar membrane
b. Resissner’s membrane
c. Tympanic membrane
d. Organ of Corti
A
d. Organ of Corti
43
Q
- Which of the following is not a
primary taste sensation?
a. Sweet
b. Bitter
c. Fruity
d. Umami
A
c. Fruity
44
Q
- Which of the following sensations
would be perceived when the pulse
frequency of SA fibers is increased?
a. Steady pressure
b. Increased pressure
c. Tapping sensation
d. Vibration
A
frequency of SA fibers is increased?
a. Steady pressure
45
Q
- .Where is the somatosensory cortex
located?
a. Superior bank of the lateral
fissure
b. Central Sulcus
c. Postcentral gyrus
d. Insular Cortex
A
c. Postcentral gyrus
46
Q
- Which division of dendrites is
described to have daughter
branches extending from a more
proximal branch?
a. Primary Dendrites
b. Secondary Dendrites
c. Higher-order Dendrites
d. Lower-order Dendrites
A
c. Higher-order Dendrites
47
Q
- Which is the most important sensory
pathway for somatic pain and
thermal sensations?
a. Spinothalamic tract
b. Spinoreticular tract
c. Spinomesenphalic tract
d. Corticospinal tract
A
a. Spinothalamic tract
48
Q
- Which statement CORRECTLY
describes the C axons?
a. Responsible for first pain
b. Produce a dull, diffuse and
burning sensation
c. Conduct signals faster than
Aδ fibers do
d. Heat-sensitive
A
b. Produce a dull, diffuse and
burning sensation
49
Q
- Which nuclei in the DC-ML pathway
receives information from the upper
part of the body and arm?
a. Nucleus gracilis
b. Internal Arcuate fibers
c. Nucleus cuneatus
d. Medial Lemniscus
A
c. Nucleus cuneatus
50
Q
- Which sensory modality is
RELATIVELY UNAFFECTED by
lesions of the somatosensory
cortex?
a. Nociception
b. Stereognosis
c. Kinesthesia
d. Graphestesia
A
??
51
Q
- Which term is defined as conscious
awareness of our body parts with
regards to position and movement?
a. Graphestesia
b. Stereognosis
c. Kinesthesia
d. Nociception
A
b. Stereognosis
52
Q
- Which phenomenon explains
sunburn?
a. Gate control theory of pain
b. Neuropathic pain
c. Mechanical allodynia
d. Referred pain
A
c. Mechanical allodynia
53
Q
- Which of the following response
patterns is associated with Pacinian
Corpuscles?
a. FA1
b. FA2
c. SA1
d. SA2
A
b. FA2
54
Q
- Which sensory afferrent will start
firing action potentials at the onset of
the stimulus and continue to fire until
the stimulus ends?
a. Fast-Adapting Fibers
b. Slow-Adapting Fibers
c. Type 1 units
d. Type 2 units
A
b. Slow-Adapting Fibers
55
Q
- Which of the following refers to the
ability of the eye to adjust to different
distances of light source while
maintaining focal length?
a. Adaptation
b. Accommodation
c. Transduction
d. Translocation
A
b. Accommodation
56
Q
- Which outcome is NOT EXPECTED
after transection of the spinothalamic
tract and accompanying ventral
spinal cord?
a. Loss of motivational-affective
component of pain
b. Loss of pain in contralateral
side of the transection
c. Loss of
sensory-discriminative
component of pain
d. Loss of pain in the ipsilateral
side of the transection
A
??
57
Q
- Which division of the somatosensory
system is responsible for monitoring
the internal state of the body?
a. Exteroceptive Division
b. Proprioceptive Division
c. Enteroceptive Division
d. Trigeminal Division
A
c. Enteroceptive Division
58
Q
- Which statement CORRECTLY
describes the perception of taste?
a. Type of taste is determined
by type of receptor protein
b. Salty and sour taste is
activated by second
messenger substances
c. Sweet and bitter taste is
activated by ion channels
d. Chemoreceptors are
specialized for several types
of taste stimulus
A
a. Type of taste is determined
by type of receptor protein
59
Q
- Which visual field disturbance do
you expect in a patient with a lesion
in the optic chiasm?
a. Homonymous hemianopsia
b. Quadrantic hemianopsia
c. Cortical blindness
d. Bitemporal hemianopsia
A
d. Bitemporal hemianopsia
60
Q
- Where is the somatosensory II
cortex located?
a. Superior bank of the lateral
fissure
b. Central Sulcus
c. Postcentral gyrus
d. Insular Cortex
A
a. Superior bank of the lateral
fissure
61
Q
- What area in the olfactory system is
responsible for the primitive
response to olfaction?
a. Medial
b. Lateral
c. Inferior
d. Superior
A
a. Medial
62
Q
- Which of the following layers of the
retina is hit first by light?
a. Inner limiting membrane
b. Outer limiting membrane
c. Inner nuclear
d. Outer nuclear
A
a. Inner limiting membrane
63
Q
- Which principle states that the
quality of a sensation is conveyed to
the CNS by a specific set of
afferents that have a distinct set of
targets in the nervous system?
a. Labeled line
b. Selective attention
c. 2-point discrimination
d. Receptive field
A
??
64
Q
- Which tract is MOSTLY involved in
the sensation of temperature and
pain?
a. Lateral Corticospinal Tract
b. Posterolateral Tract
c. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
d. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
A
d. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
65
Q
- Which of the following structures is
involved in reflex responses to the
appearance of a threatening object
in the visual field?
a. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
b. Lateral geniculate nucleus
c. Inferior colliculi
d. Superior colliculi
A
d. Superior colliculi
66
Q
- Which of the following structures is
responsible for adjusting the optical
focus of the eye?
a. Lens
b. Cornea
c. Iris
d. Pupils
A
a. Lens
67
Q
- Which neuronal biosynthetic
apparatus is described as stacks of
rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a. Soma
b. Schwann Cell
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Nissl Bodies
A
d. Nissl Bodies
68
Q
- Which of the ff terms encompass
structure of the eye through which
light passes?
a. Translucent media
b. Dioptric media
c. Refractive media
d. Transparent media
A
b. Dioptric media
69
Q
- Which of the following nuclei in the
DC-ML pathway receives
information from the lower part of the
body and leg?
a. Nucleus gracilis
b. Internal Arcuate fibers
c. Nucleus cuneatus
d. Medial Lemniscus
A
a. Nucleus gracilis
70
Q
- What cranial nerve is stimulated by
the odor of noxious substances like
alcohol?
a. CN I
b. CN IV
c. CN V
d. CN VII
A
c. CN V
71
Q
- Which of the following is the point
where interneuron communication
occurs?
a. Node of Ranvier
b. Synapse
c. Soma
d. Dendritic spines
A
b. Synapse
72
Q
- Which tract is MOSTLY involved in
the sensation of crude touch and
pressure?
a. Lateral Corticospinal Tract
b. Posterolateral Tract
c. Anterior Spinothalamic
Tract
d. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
A
c. Anterior Spinothalamic
Tract
73
Q
- Which structure will maintain the
motivational-affective component of
pain after destruction of the VPL or
VPM nuclei?
a. Trigeminal nucleus
b. DC-ML
c. Spinomesencephalic tract
d. Medial thalamus
A
??
74
Q
- Which of the ff structures of the eye
has the highest refractive power?
a. Aqueous humor
b. Cornea
c. Lens
d. Vitreous humor
A
??
75
Q
- Which tract is MOSTLY responsible
for motor communication to the
brain?
a. Dorsal Column-Medial
Lemniscus Pathway
b. Spinothalamic Tract
c. Lateral Corticospinal Tract
d. Posterolateral Tract
A
c. Lateral Corticospinal Tract
76
Q
- Which of the following is a function
of the less old olfactory system?
a. Licking of lips
b. Salivation
c. Liking the smell of fried
chicken
d. Feeling happy at the smell of
fried chicken
A
c. Liking the smell of fried
chicken
77
Q
- Which extraocular muscle of the eye
is innervated by cranial nerve IV?
a. Lateral rectus
b. Medial rectus
c. Inferior oblique
d. Superior oblique
A
d. Superior oblique
78
Q
- Which response pattern is
associated with Meissner’s
Corpuscle?
a. FA1
b. FA2
c. SA1
d. SA2
A
a. FA1
79
Q
- What structure prevents solutes in
blood from non-selectively crossing
into the ECF of the CNS?
a. Choroid Plexus
b. Blood Brain Barrier
c. Blood Retinal Barrier
d. Blood Cerebrospinal Fluid
Barrier
A
b. Blood Brain Barrier
80
Q
- Which structure represents the main
termination site for ascending
somatosensory information in the
diencephalon?
a. Dorsal Column–Medial
Lemniscus Pathway
b. Trigeminal Nuclear Complex
c. Anteroposterior Nuclear
Complex
d. Ventroposterior Nuclear
Complex
A
d. Ventroposterior Nuclear
Complex
81
Q
- Which statements DO NOT describe
Nociceptors?
a. It has the ability to sense
tissue-damaging stimuli
b. It originates mostly as free
nerve endings
c. It has distinct morphological
specialization
d. It has the ability to become
sensitized
A
??
82
Q
- Which cells are derived from
erythromyeloid stem cells and are
responsible for immune responses
within the CNS?
a. Microglia
b. Satellite cells
c. Ependymal cells
d. Astrocytes
A
??
83
Q
- Which of the following structures is
responsible for detecting head
rotation?
a. Utricle and Saccule
b. Semicircular canals
c. Organ of Corti
d. Cochlea
A
b. Semicircular canals
84
Q
- Which pathway is responsible for
controlling the function of organs,
smooth muscle, and glands?
a. Somatic Motor Neuron
Pathway
b. Autonomic Motor Pathway
c. Spinocerebellar Pathway
d. Dorsal Column–Medial
Lemniscus Pathway
A
b. Autonomic Motor Pathway
85
Q
- .What area is known as the blind
spot of the eye?
a. Fovea centralis
b. Optic disc
c. Macula densa
d. Macula lutea
A
b. Optic disc
86
Q
- Which of the following statements is
NOT true regarding dermatomes?
a. The pattern of innervation is
determined during
embryological development.
b. Receives its densest
innervation from the
corresponding spinal cord
segment.
c. A given dorsal root ganglion
supplies a specific cutaneous
region
d. Transection of a single
dorsal root causes liberal
sensory loss in the
corresponding dermatome
A
d. Transection of a single
dorsal root causes liberal
sensory loss in the
corresponding dermatome
87
Q
- Which term is defined as the ability
to recognize objects when they are
handled?
a. Graphestesia
b. Stereognosis
c. Nociception
d. Kinesthesia
A
??
88
Q
- Which of the ff statements correctly
describe the perilymph?
a. Closely resembles
cerebrospinal fluid
b. Resembles intracellular fluid
c. Located in the scala media
d. Contains high K+ and low
Na+
A
a. Closely resembles
cerebrospinal fluid
89
Q
- Which division of the somatosensory
system would provide information
about skin contact with objects?
a. Exteroceptive Division
b. Proprioceptive Division
c. Enteroceptive Division
d. Trigeminal Division
A
a. Exteroceptive Division
90
Q
- Which statement CORRECTLY
describes the focal point in myopia?
a. In front of the optic disc
b. Posterior to retina
c. Always focused on the retina
d. In front of retina
A
d. In front of retina
91
Q
- Which fiber is the most common
afferent for nociception?
a. C mechanosensitive fibers
b. Aδ cold-sensitive
c. C mechanoheat-sensitive
fibers
d. C cold-sensitive
A
??
92
Q
- Which of the cytoplasmic organelles
is the most abundant in dendrites?
a. Microtubules and
Microfilaments
b. Nissl Bodies and Golgi
Apparatus
c. Micrtotubules and Nissl
Bodies
d. Microfilaments and Golgi
Apparatus
A
a. Microtubules and
Microfilaments
93
Q
- Which pain sensation is caused by
damage to neural structures?
a. Neuropathic pain
b. Referred pain
c. Phantom limb pain
d. Radiating pain
A
??
94
Q
- Which of the ff CORRECTLY
describes Type 1 receptive fields?
a. Small receptive fields with
well-defined borders
b. Wider receptive fields with
poorly defined borders
c. Has a single point of maximal
sensitivity
d. Covers most or all of a finger
A
??
95
Q
- What structure is responsible for
determining the orientation of the
head to gravity?
a. Utricle and Saccule
b. Semicircular canals
c. Organ of Corti
d. Cochlea
A
a. Utricle and Saccule
96
Q
- Which of the following response
patterns is associated with Ruffini
Endings?
a. FA1
b. FA2
c. SA1
d. SA2
A
d. SA2
97
Q
- Which phenomenon explains the
reduction in painful stimuli after a
harmless stimuli is applied?
a. Mechanical allodynia
b. Phantom limb pain
c. Gate control theory of pain
d. Neuropathic pain
A
??
98
Q
- Which response pattern is
associated with Merkel’s disks?
a. FA1
b. FA2
c. SA1
d. SA2
A
c. SA1
99
Q
- Which of the following statements is
TRUE of the divisions of the
trigeminal nuclear complex?
a. This complex is composed of
4 sensory divisions.
b. Motor neurons project to
skeletal muscles of the
head via the trigeminal
nerve.
c. Proprioceptive information is
not conveyed via the
trigeminal nerve.
d. The mesencephalic nucleus
contains third-order neurons.
A
b. Motor neurons project to
skeletal muscles of the
head via the trigeminal
nerve.
100
Q
- Which of the following protects
the ear from damaging loud sounds?
a. Vestibular reflex
b. Impedance matching
c. Attenuation reflex
d. Sound transduction
A
c. Attenuation reflex
