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Physiology > 7th Physiology Lecture Exam - Endocrine System (Batch 2024) > Flashcards

7th Physiology Lecture Exam - Endocrine System (Batch 2024) Flashcards

1
Q

1.Which of the following has a negative input to the SCN and pituitary gland?.
a. Constant conditions of light/ dark
b. Melatonin
c. Stress
d. Cytokines

A

b. Melatonin

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2
Q

2.Features of the pituitary trophic hormones.
a. Generally can regulate directly physiological responses.
b. Exerts negative-feedback regulation to parvocellular releasing hormones.
c. Binds to cognate receptors on peripheral endocrine glands.
d. Functions autonomously from other parts of the endocrine axes.

A

c. Binds to cognate receptors on peripheral endocrine glands.

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3
Q

3.Maintenance of blood glucose during the fasting phase occurs through the following, except?.
a. Requires precursors lactate, amino acids and glycerol.
b. Skeletal myocytes switches to gluconeogenic fuel.
c. Degradation of proteins in body tissues.
d. Driven by glucagon and catecholamines.

A

b. Skeletal myocytes switches to gluconeogenic fuel.

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4
Q

4.Glucotoxicity from poorly controlled diabetes can cause damage to microvascular endothelial cells because of the following, except?.
a. Altered protein and lipid structures
b. Oxidative stress
c. Altered signaling pathways
d. Preservation of intracellular components

A

d. Preservation of intracellular components

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5
Q

5.Hepatocytes, skeletal myocytes and adipocytes during the digestive phase?.
a. Use primarily glucose stimulated by insulin
b. Express the GLUT4 transporter.
c. Can store an infinite amount of glucose.
d. FFA are used in anabolic pathways.

A

a. Use primarily glucose stimulated by insulin

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6
Q

6.Which hormone is synthesized by organs with a primary function other than endocrine?.
a. GH
b. PTH
c. TRH
d. Insulin

A

c. TRH

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7
Q

7.Which of these when a part of the HPP axes is damaged are usually most severe:.
a. Primary endocrine disorders
b. Secondary endocrine disorders
c. Tertiary endocrine disorders
d. B and C

A

a. Primary endocrine disorders

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8
Q

8.Damage to the pituitary stalk will disrupt the action of which of the following hormone?.
a. PRL
b. TSH
c. FSH
d. ACTH

A

a. PRL

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9
Q

9.The magnocellular neurons are described as the following.
a. Large cell bodies that project axons to the pars nervosa.
b. They are located in the SON and PVN.
c. Each individual neuron is hormone specific.
d. Synthesize preprohormones neurophysin I and II.

A

d. Synthesize preprohormones neurophysin I and II.

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10
Q

10.The SCN impose a circadian rhythm by?.
a. Neuronal signals which modulate release of the pituitary gland hormones thereby controlling the endocrine axis.
b. Circadian rhythm can be assigned by the light- dark cycle by the earth’s rotation.
c. Neuronal input is generated from specialized light-sensitive retinal cells identical to rods and cones.
d. Melatonin from the pineal gland may transmit that daytime is present.

A

b. Circadian rhythm can be assigned by the light- dark cycle by the earth’s rotation.

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11
Q

11.The activity of insulin in hepatocytes, myocytes and adipocytes are orchestrated by Akt protein kinase signaling pathway. Which of the following statements about this pathway is incorrect?.
a. Translocation of GLUT4 glucose transporter, which allow import of glucose in hepatocytes, myocytes and adipocytes.
b. Activation of Protein Phosphatases which regulates multiple metabolic enzymes.
c. Activation of Mechanistic Target of Rapamycin Complex 1 which promote protein synthesis.
d. Activation of Sterol Response Element Binding Protein1 which orchestrates glycolysis and DNL.

A

a. Translocation of GLUT4 glucose transporter, which allow import of glucose in hepatocytes, myocytes and adipocytes.

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12
Q

12.The following are important features of the endocrine axes, except:.
a. Secreted in a pulsatile manner.
b. Complex neurogenic states alter function.
c. Semiautonomous physiologic effect.
d. Narrow maintained set point.

A

d. Narrow maintained set point.

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13
Q

13.Insulin resistance is the result of which of the following?.
a. Ligand-receptor binding
b. Receptor antagonists bind to a receptor
c. Loss or inactivation of receptors
d. Constitutive activation of a receptor

A

c. Loss or inactivation of receptors

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14
Q

14.Endocrine signaling are characterized by the following, which one is not correct?.
a. Controlled secretion of an extracellular signaling molecule into the extracellular fluid.
b. Dispersal of the molecule into the vasculature and transmission throughout the body.
c. Collection of the molecule in the vascular compartment and into the extracellular space.
d. Molecules attach to specific receptors within cells of a target organ.

A

c. Collection of the molecule in the vascular compartment and into the extracellular space.

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15
Q

15.Inhibition of GH synthesis and release is by:.
a. Somatostatin
b. Ghrelin
c. GHBP
d. VIP

A

a. Somatostatin

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16
Q

16.Traumatic brain injury that affects the hypothalamus will cause?.
a. Primary adrenal insufficiency
b. Secondary adrenal insufficiency
c. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency
d. A and C

A

c. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency

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17
Q

17.Most cells use glucose as fuel by performing the following:.
a. By using GLUT transporters, they import glucose into the cell in one direction.
b. Cells convert glucose into G6P which cannot pass back through GLUT transporters.
c. Cells with mitochondria metabolize G6P, then ferment pyruvate to lactate
d. Cells without mitochondria convert pyruvate to acetyl CoA.

A

b. Cells convert glucose into G6P which cannot pass back through GLUT transporters.

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18
Q

18.The following statements are true regarding fates of energy during the fasting phase.
a. Release of glucose derived from glycogenolysis which is continuous throughout.
b. Glucose are produced/ maintain through short lived gluconeogenesis.
c. Adipocytes undergo De Novo Lipogenesis.
d. Release of Amino acids which undergo proteolysis

A

d. Release of Amino acids which undergo proteolysis

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19
Q

19.Which hormone is produced to a significant degree by peripheral conversion?.
a. GnRH
b. TSH
c. Angiotensin II
d. LH

A

c. Angiotensin II

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20
Q

20.The following are general occurrences during the digestive phase, except?.
a. Absorbed fuels are partitioned and used for different purposes.
b. Monomeric and polymeric fuels are digested and absorbed.
c. All aspects of metabolism are regulated by insulin.
d. The primary fuel used for energy is glucose.

A

b. Monomeric and polymeric fuels are digested and absorbed.

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21
Q

21.In order to stimulate thyroid epithelium, parvocellular neurons release:.
a. TSH
b. TRH
c. Triiodothyronine
d. GPCR

A

b. TRH

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22
Q

22.During the digestive phase, hepatocytes metabolize glucose for the following reason. Which is not included?.
a. Utilization for ATP
b. Stored as glycogen
c. De Novo Lipogenesis
d. Use of alternative fuel for ATP

A

d. Use of alternative fuel for ATP

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23
Q

23.Which of the following is a feature of a response-driven negative feedback loop?.
a. A hormone acts on target organs to induce a change in circulating component and the circulating component inhibits secretion of the hormone.
b. Secretion of a hormone is stimulated or inhibited by a change in the level of a specific extracellular parameter and the change in parameter inhibits further secretion of the hormone.
c. A hormone increases levels of a specific component, and this component stimulates secretion of the hormone.
d. Releasing hormones are secreted which stimulates or inhibits the production and secretion of trophic hormones, which stimulates or inhibits secretion of peripheral hormones which inhibits releasing or trophic hormones

A

b. Secretion of a hormone is stimulated or inhibited by a change in the level of a specific extracellular parameter and the change in parameter inhibits further secretion of the hormone.

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24
Q

24.Corticotropin secretion is a function of:.
a. MC2R
b. POMC
c. CRH
d. MSH

A

c. CRH

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25
Q

25.Which of the following classes of hormones are sparingly soluble in blood and aqueous fluids?.
a. Proteins
b. Peptides
c. Catecholamines
d. Iodothyronines

A

d. Iodothyronines

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26
Q

26.The hypophysiotrophic region are characterized by which of the following:.
a. Composed of parvocellular bodies which project axons to the median eminence.
b. Releasing hormones enter a primary plexus then a secondary plexus of capillaries
c. Fenestrated capillaries are linked by the hypothalamohypophyseal portal vessels.
d. Releasing hormones diffuse out and bind to receptors on specific cell types.

A

c. Fenestrated capillaries are linked by the hypothalamohypophyseal portal vessels.

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27
Q

27.Which of these classes of hormones circulate in the blood mostly in unbound form?.
a. Proteins
b. Catecholamines
c. Steroids
d. Iodothyronines

A

a. Proteins

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28
Q

28.The following stimulates appetite except:.
a. Neuropeptide γ
b. Norepinephrine
c. α MSH
d. Ghrelin

A

d. Ghrelin

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29
Q

29.During the fasting phase, hepatocytes, skeletal myocytes and adipocytes:.
a. Function largely independently of each other.
b. Provide alternative energy substrates.
c. Maintain blood glucose below 60mg/dl.
d. Convert glucose into FFA.

A

b. Provide alternative energy substrates.

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30
Q

30.Which hormone are synthesized and secreted by dedicated endocrine glands:.
a. ACTH
b. Oxytocin
c. ANP
d. Ghrelin

A

c. ANP

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31
Q

31.Mechanism of osteoporosis in Cushing’s syndrome is INCREASED:
A. Bone resorption
B. Intestinal Ca++ absorption
C. Osteoblast function
D. All of these

A

A. Bone resorption

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32
Q

32.Hyperglycemia in cortisol excess is due to DECREASED
A. Amino acid mobilization
B. Enzyme activity
C. Glucose transporters
D. Insulin secretion

A

C. Glucose transporters

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33
Q

33.Metabolic effect of glucocorticoids to INCREASE ____ proteins.
A. Cellular
B. Muscle
C. Plasma
D. All of these

A

C. Plasma

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34
Q

34.One of these is the clinical manifestation of excess aldosterone:
A. Altered sensorium
B. Deep rapid breathing
C. High blood pressure
D. Irregular heart rate

A

C. High blood pressure

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35
Q

35.Which of these is elevated in primary hypercortisolism?
A. ACTH
B. CRH
C. Cortisol
D. All of these

A

C. Cortisol

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36
Q

36.Cushing’s disease is associated with LOW:
A. ACTH
B. CRF
C. Cortisol
D. All of these

A

C. Cortisol

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37
Q

37.Aldosterone secretion is INCREASED in one of these conditions:
A. Decreased renal blood flow
B. Decreased serum K+
C. Increased serum Na+
D. Increased ACTH secretion

A

A. Decreased renal blood flow

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38
Q

38.Destruction of zona glomerulosa leads to reduction of one of these hormones:
A. Aldosterone
B. Androgen
C. Cortisol
D. Estrogen

A

A. Aldosterone

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39
Q

39.One of these conditions is associated with cortisol effect:
A. Elevated ACTH secretion
B. Elevated serum K+
C. Reduced ADH secretion
D. Reduced serum Ca++

A

D. Reduced serum Ca++

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40
Q

40.Hyperpigmentation In Addison’s is disease is due:
A. High ACTH
B. High aldosterone
C. Low cortisol
D. Low MSH

A

A. High ACTH

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41
Q

41.Which of these hormones has the least affinity to mineralocorticoid receptors of renal epithelial cells?
A. Aldosterone
B. Cortisol
C. Cortisone
D. Fluorocortisol

A

C. Cortisone

42
Q

42.Most important anti-inflammatory effect of glucocorticoids is to DECREASE:
A. Diameter of capillaries
B. Formation of leukotrienes
C. Migration of leukocytes
D. Release of proteolytic enzymes

A

D. Release of proteolytic enzymes

43
Q

43.Primary regulator of cortisol secretion is:
A. ACTH
B. Renin-angiotensin.
C. Serum K+
D. Serum Na+

A

A. ACTH

44
Q

44.Mechanism of metabolic acidosis in adrenocortical deficiency is DECREASED:
A. Glomerular filtration rate due to sympathetic nervous stimulation
B. H+ secretion due to aldosterone reduction
C. H+ reabsorption due to cortisol reduction
D. Renal blood flow due to renin-angiotensin stimulation

A

B. H+ secretion due to aldosterone reduction

45
Q

45.Addison’s disease is associated with:
A. High blood sugar due to high cortisol
B. High serum Na+ due to low cortisol
C. Low blood pressure due to low aldosterone
D. Low plasma H+ due to high aldosterone

A

C. Low blood pressure due to low aldosterone

46
Q

46.Conn’s syndrome has one of these clinical manifestations:
A. Hypotension
B. Muscle paralysis
C. Palpitations
D. Rapid, deep breathing

A

B. Muscle paralysis

47
Q

47.Physiologic effect of aldosterone is increased reabsorption of:
A. H+
B. K+
C. Na+
D. All of these

A

C. Na+

48
Q

48.Muscle weakness in cortisol excess is due to INCREASED:
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycolysis
C. Lipolysis
D. Proteolysis

A

D. Proteolysis

49
Q

49.Hirsutism in Cushing’s syndrome is due to HIGH:
A. ACTH
B. Androgen
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Mineralocorticoids

A

B. Androgen

50
Q

50.Hypertension associated with hypersecretion of aldosterone is due to INCREASED:
A. Na+ and water excretion
B. Plasma volume
C. Serum K+
D. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
Inc Na+ reab > inc plasma [Na+] > inc osmolality (blood) > activates thirst receptors; inc ADH secretion > stimulate water reab (DCT & CD) = inc ECFV - Aldosterone mediated inc ECFV (>1 day) > inc BP

A

B. Plasma volume

51
Q

51.What is the True statement regarding the thyroid gland?
A. It is drained by two sets of thyroid veins on each side
B. It receives a sympathetic innervation that is vasomotor
C. It receives a sympathetic innervation that is secretomotor
D. The lobes are connected by midventral lingula

A

It receives a sympathetic innervation that is vasomotor

52
Q

52.What is the major (90%) iodothyronine produces by the thyroid gland?
A. 3,5,3,5’ tetraiodothyronine
B. 5,3,5,3’ tetraiodothyronine
C. 3,3,5’ triiodothyronine
D. 3,5,3’ triiodothyronine

A

3,5,3,5’ tetraiodothyronine

53
Q

53.What enzyme is produced in the glial cells in the CNS and thyrotropes of the pituitary which acts as a “thyroid axis sensor”?
A. Type 2 deiodinase
B. Type 4 deiodinase
C. Type 3 deiodinase
D. Type 1 deiodinase

A

Type 2 deiodinase

54
Q

54.What enzyme is produced in the thyroid and is responsible for conversion of T4 to T3 in the liver, kidneys and skeletal muscle?
A. Type 3 deiodinase
B. Type 1 deiodinase
C. Type 4 deiodinase
D. Type 2 deiodinase

A

Type 1 deiodinase

55
Q

55.This enzyme converts T4 to reverseT3 which is increased during hyperthyroidism.
A. Type 1 deiodinase
B. Type 2 deiodinase
C. Type 4 deiodinase
D. Type 3 deiodinase

A

Type 3 deiodinase

56
Q

56.What process is the ability to trap and incorporate iodine into thyroglobulin?
A. Incorporation
B. Acidification
C. Iodination
D. Organification

A

Organification

57
Q

57.A patient with a thyroid condition is under your care underwent RAIU. To can confirm hyperthyroidism, what should be his RAIU result?
A. more than 50% after 24 hours
B. more than 15% after 24 hours
C. More than 60% after 24 hours
D. more than 25% after 24 hours

A

More than 60% after 24 hours

58
Q

58.Your patient suffering from Grave’s disease .What will have RAIU result?
A. 6 hours and 24 hours will be both low
B. 6 hours is low and 24 hours is high
C. 6 hours and 24 hours will be both high
D. 6 hours is high and 24 hours is low

A

6 hours is high and 24 hours is low

59
Q

59.A patient came in with tremors, palpitations, bulging eyes and is sweaty. If you are considering Hyperthyroidism, what would be the result of his thyroid work-up?
A. Low TSH, high T3 and T4
B. Normal TSH, high T3 and low T4
C. Normal TSH, low T3 and high T4
D. High TSH , low T3 and T4

A

Low TSH, high T3 and T4

60
Q

60.A patient came in with facial and pedal edema, coarse skin, brittle nails and noted to be constipated. You suspect a primary hypothyroidism. What will you expect her thyroid work-up to be ?
A. High TSH, low T3 and high T4
B. Low TSH, high T3 and low T4
C. High TSH, both T3 and T4 are low
D. Normal TSH , both T3 and T4 are low

A

High TSH, both T3 and T4 are low

61
Q

61.What is the minimum daily Iodine requirement of pregnant women?
A. 120 ug
B. 90 ug
C. 200 ug
D. 150 ug

A

200 ug

62
Q

62.What is the average daily Iodine intake of a person?
A. 150ug
B. 400 ug
C. 200 ug
D. 100 ug

A

400 ug

63
Q

63.What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in Iodine-sufficient areas?
A. Congenital hypothyroidism
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C. Iodine excess
D. Ectopic thyroid

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

64
Q

64.What protein binds most of the Thyroid hormones?
A. Thyroxine-binding Globulin
B. Lipoprotein
C. Albumin
D. Transthyretin

A

Thyroxine-binding Globulin

65
Q

65.What is the effect of T3 to the cardiac output to ensure sufficient delivery of O2 to the tissues?
A. Has limiting effect
B. No effect
C. Decreases
D. Increases

A

Increases

66
Q

66.What is the effect of thyroid hormone to the heart rate and stroke volume?
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. No effect
D. Has limiting effect

A

Increases

67
Q

67.What is the effect of thyroid hormone on the lactate-glucose and fatty acid-triglycerides recycling?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Has limiting effect
D. No effect

A

Increases

68
Q

68.What will be the manifestation of a patient with Hypothyroidism?
A. heat intolerance
B. Irritable
C. Sweaty
D. cold intolerance

A

cold intolerance

69
Q

69.What is the effect of T3 in the heart beta-adrenergic receptor numbers that will enhance symthetic nervous system activity?
A. Has limiting effect
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. No effect

A

Increases

70
Q

70.What iis the most common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide?
A. Ectopic thyroid
B. Hypopituitarism
C. Congenital anomaly
D. Iodine deficiency

A

Iodine deficiency

71
Q

71.What hormone opposes the action of PTH thereby reducing serum calcium?
A. Cholecalciferol
B. Calcitriol
C. 1,2-hydroxyvitamin D
D. Calcitonin

A

Calcitonin

72
Q

72.Which IS NOT considered as a process of removing calcium and Pi from the blood?
A. Renal excretion
B. Osteoblastic action
C. Osteoclastic action
D. Bone formation

A

Osteoclastic action

73
Q

73.What hormone decreases serum calcium?
A. Calcitonin
B. Calcitriol
C. Cholecalciferol
D. 1,2-hydroxyvitamin D

A

Calcitonin

74
Q

74.Aside the bone, what other organ does PTH targets?
A. Intestine
B. Kidney
C. Parathyroid
D. Skeletal muscle

A

Kidney

75
Q

75.Which cells produce Calcitonin ?
A. Parafolicular cells of parathyroids
B. Osteoclast
C. C-cells of Thyroid
D. Osteoblast

A

C-cells of Thyroid

76
Q

76.Which of the following statements regarding calcium is a fact?
A. hypocalcemia results to tetany
B.hypocalcemia results to decreased neuromuscular activity
C. hypercalcemia results to tetany
D. hypercalcemia increases excitability of nerves

A

hypercalcemia results to tetany

77
Q

77.An average adult ingests 1500mg of calcium daily and 200 mg will be absorbed which will be used in bone formation and metabolic processes. How much calcium will be excreted daily in the kidney ?
A. 1500 mg
B. 200 mg
C. 1000 mg
D. 500 mg

A

200 mg

78
Q

78.What regulates the level of PTH?
A. Intracellular Ca++ level
B. Ca++ in ECF level
C. Amount of dietary Ca++
D. Ca++ resorption in the kidneys

A

Ca++ in ECF level

79
Q

79.What condition can decrease calcium resorption in the distal tubule?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Phosphate loading
D. Metabolic acidosis

A

Metabolic acidosis

80
Q

80.Which is the following is NOT a process mediated by calcitonin in relation to Pi ?
A. inhibit renal excretion
B. Facilitates bone formation
C. Increases renal excretion
D. Decreases plasma Pi

A

inhibit renal excretion

81
Q

81.Aside from bone formation, what is the other primary route of removal of Ca and Pi from the blood?
A. Liver conjugation
B. Intestinal excretion
C. Osteoclastic activity
D. Renal excretion

A

Renal excretion

82
Q

82.Where does the FIRST hydroxylization of 7-dehydrocholesterol occur?
A. Parathyroid glands
B. Duodenum
C. Kidney
D. Liver

A

Liver

83
Q

83.The Renal Hydroxylation represent what sequence of hydroxylation of 7-hydroxycholesterol?
A. Fourth
B. Third
C. Second
D. First

A

Second

84
Q

84.What is the plant based Vitamin D?
A. Cholecalciferol
B. Vit D2
C. Vit D3
D. 1,2 hydroxyvitamin D

A

Vit D2

85
Q

85.Which of the following choices is true regarging calcitonin?
A. Increases serum calcium and Pi
B. Primarily act on the bones and kidneys
C. Induces bone resorption
D. Produced in the parathyroid gland

A

Primarily act on the bones and kidneys

86
Q

86.For optimal sperm development, the testes lies outside the body and its temperature is lower by (in degree centigrade)
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2

A

2

87
Q

87.What is the main function of the interstitial cells of Leydig?
A. Assist the spermatogonium to go to the lumen
B. Serve as structural support to spermatocytes
C. Provide nutrition to spermatogonia
D. Produce testosterone

A

Produce testosterone

88
Q

88.Aside from the tail of epididymis, where else can viable sperms can be stored for months?
A. Rete testis
B. Body of epididymis
C. Vas deferens
D. Seminal vesicles

A

Vas deferens

89
Q

89.Which of the following cells expresses both androgen receptors and FSH receptors?
A. Basal Cells
B. Sperm cells
C. Leydig cells
D. Sertoli Cells

A

Sertoli Cells

90
Q

90.The effect of testosterone on the liver
A. Decrease IDL
B. Decrease VLDL
C. Decrease LDL
D. Decrease HDL

A

Decrease HDL

91
Q

91.What effect do you expect when a body builder injects testosterone for muscle building?
A. Increased levels of LH
B. Increased Leydig cell activity
C. Increased Intratesticular androgen production
D. Increased negative feedback on release of LH

A

Increased negative feedback on release of LH

92
Q

92.What enzyme deficiency does a tall osteoporotic male have?
A. 17-hydroxylase
B. 5-alpha reductase
C. Dihydrotestosterone
D. Aromatase enzyme

A

D. Aromatase enzyme

93
Q

93.What is the effect of Dihydrotestosterone ?
A. Deposition of Visceral fat
B. Increase Sebum formation
C. Increase in VLDL in the liver
D. Lowering of tone in male voice

A

B. Increase Sebum formation

94
Q

94.What is the site of production of FSH?
Ovaries
Posterior pituitary
Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary

A

Anterior pituitary

95
Q

95.What cell represents the ovarian reserve?
Mature preantral follicle
Primary follicle
Primordial follicle
Mural granulosa cells

A

Primordial follicle

96
Q

96.Which cell produces LDH,HDL and LH receptors?
Preantral follicle
Theca cells
Mural granulosa cells
Cumulus cells

A

Theca cells

97
Q

97.Which hormone is predominantly produced by Corpus luteum ?
LH
Estrogen
Progesterone
FSH

A

Progesterone

98
Q

98.Which IS NOT true regarding Corpus luteum?
After ovulation, remnant of the antral cavity
Programmed to live for only around 28 days unless hCG sustains it
Regression changes it to corpus albicans
Regression is due to rise in prostaglandins in response to declining progesterone at the 2nd week of luteal phase
Corpus Luteum live for only around 14 days unless hCG sustains it.

A

Programmed to live for only around 28 days unless hCG sustains it

99
Q

99.Which hormone aims to produce a secretory endometrium with nutrients to nourish fertilized ovum when it implants ?
Estrogen
Inhibin
Progesterone
Estriol

A

Progesterone

100
Q

100.Which is the most potent estrogen and is of ovarian origin?
Estradiol
estriol
Androstenedione
Estrone

A

Estradiol

Physiology (20 decks)

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