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Physiology_Lesson_2_-_Reflexes-Blood_Physiology_Batch_2024 Flashcards

1
Q

Which types of WBCs are formed in lymphogenous tissue?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Platelets

A

B. Lymphocytes

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2
Q

Which types of WBCs are formed and mature in the bone marrow?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Plasma cells
D. None of the above

A

A. Neutrophils

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3
Q

The first cell that can be identifies as belonging to the erythroblast series;
A. Basophil erythroblast
B. Polychromatophil erythroblast
C. Orthochromatic erythroblast
D. Proerythroblast

A

A. Basophil erythroblast

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4
Q

What is the first step in neutrophil invasion?
A. Intercellular attachment loosens, neutrophils crawl through spaces
B. Release of inflammatory cytokines by inflamed tissues
C. Neutrophils crawl toward injured tissues
D. Adhesion molecules re

A

A. Intercellular attachment loosens, neutrophils crawl through spaces

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5
Q

What is the advantage of a biconcave disc shape?
A. Deformable
B. Unbreakable
C. Stretchable
D. Modifiable

A

A. Deformable

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6
Q

Which of the following statements describe the relationship of acquired immunity and lymphocytes?
A. Acquired immunity is the product of lymphocytes
B. Acquired immunity may proceed with genetic lack of lymphocytes
C. Acquired immunity will develop without lymphocytes
D. All of the above

A

A. Acquired immunity is the product of lymphocytes

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7
Q

Which of the following are the highlights of a phagocytosis by neutrophils:
A. Neutrophils enter the tissues as immature cells, unable to begin phagocytosis.
B. Neutrophils mature in tissues then approach a particle to be phagocytized.
C. Neutrophils first projects pseudopodia, then attaches itself
D. A single neutrophil can ingest 3-20 bacteria before inactivation.

A

D. A single neutrophil can ingest 3-20 bacteria before inactivation.

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8
Q

The most common form of hemoglobin in an adult human being is a combination of:
A. Two alpha chains and two gamma chains
B. Two alpha chains and two beta chains
C. Two alpha chains and two delta chains
D. Two beta chains and two delta chains

A

B. Two alpha chains and two beta chains

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9
Q

Objectives of pre-processing of lymphocytes include the following, except:
A. Pre-processing adds capability to lymphocyte stem cells to form activated T lymphocytes or antibodies.
B. Lymphocytes develop extreme diversity for reacting to different specific antigens.
C. Pre-processing makes certain that lymphocytes will react on the antigens and proteins present in the body’s own tissues.
D. Pre-processed cells react against antigen from transplanted tissue from another person.

A

C. Pre-processing makes certain that lymphocytes will react on the antigens and proteins present in the body’s own tissues.

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10
Q

Functions of the Monocyte-Macrophage system are following, except;
A. Lymph nodes have small numbers of macrophages that they partially prevent particle dissemination in the body
B. The spleen is the next line of defense if the organism enter the circulation
C. Kupffer cells prevent invasion from the gastrointestinal tract
D. Alveolar macrophages form giant cell capsule for indigestible particles

A

A. Lymph nodes have small numbers of macrophages that they partially prevent particle dissemination in the body

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11
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the hemoglobin molecule?
A. Synthesis of hemoglobin occurs and ends in the proerythroblast stage.
B. A hemoglobin chain is a subunit of hemoglobin and four chains form the hemoglobin molecule.
C. Each hemoglobin molecule contains one atom of iron which binds with one molecule of oxygen.
D. The binding affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen is independent of the type of hemoglobin chain.

A

B. A hemoglobin chain is a subunit of hemoglobin and four chains form the hemoglobin molecule.

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12
Q

Growth and reproduction of the different stem cells are controlled by the following factors causing increased rate of production, except;
A. High altitudes
B. Prolonged cardiac failure
C. Hyperventilation
D. Infectious diseases

A

C. Hyperventilation

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13
Q

Adaptive immunity consist of the following features
A. Formation of large numbers of lymphocytes B. Phagocytosis of bacteria by macrophages
B. Destruction of organisms by digestive enzymes
D. All of the above

A

A. Formation of large numbers of lymphocytes

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14
Q

The following are true statements of the genesis of red blood cells, except:
A. As the PHSC reproduce, all cells differentiate to form the circulating cell types.
B. A small portion of PHSC remains exactly like the original to maintain supply.
C. PHSC are retained in the bone marrow, inside their numbers decline with age
D. PHSC are very much like the intermediate-stage stem cells but have committed to a particular line of cells.

A

A. As the PHSC reproduce, all cells differentiate to form the circulating cell types.

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15
Q

After approximately 120 days, RBCs burst and release their hemoglobin which is phagocytize in the:
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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16
Q

The mechanisms by which the body recognizes invasion:
A. Proteins that have a small molecular weight B. Epitopes on surfaces of large molecules
B. Toxins with the same chemical compounds as the body’s cells
D. All of the above

A

B. Epitopes on surfaces of large molecules

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17
Q

Which of the following secretes antibodies that are reactive agents against foreign antigens?
A. T cytotoxic lymphocytes
B. T helper lymphocytes
C. T suppressor lymphocytes
D. B lymphocytes

A

D. B lymphocytes

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18
Q

In an atmosphere of low O2, which of the following will occur?
A. Erythropoietin forms after 24 hours.
B. Red blood cells appears in the circulation within 5 days
C. EPO causes proerythroblast to pass more rapidly through different stages
D. Few RBCs are formed by the bone marrow

A

C. EPO causes proerythroblast to pass more rapidly through different stages

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19
Q

Which of the following have the greatest diversity?
A. T cytotoxic lymphocytes
B. T helper lymphocytes
C. T suppressor lymphocytes
D. B lymphocytes

A

B. T helper lymphocytes

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20
Q

After the age of 20 years, RBCs are produced by which of the following?
A. Vertebrae
B. B. Humerus
C. Femur
D. Liver

A

A. Vertebrae

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21
Q

Which of the following combination is correct? A. Bone marrow dysfunction - aplastic anemia B. Rapid haemorrhage - megaloblastic anemia C. RBC abnormalities - idiopathic aplastic anemia
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency - idiopathic aplastic anemia

A

A. Bone marrow dysfunction - aplastic anemia

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22
Q

Inflamed tissues releases cytokines which causes endothelial cells to secrete selectins and ICAM-1 which reacts with neutrophils’ integrin causing adhesion:
A. Diapedesis
B. Margination
C. Chemotaxis
D. Phagocytosis

A

B. Margination

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23
Q

Monocytes in the Reticuloendothelial system are described as:
A. Monocytes attached to tissues for months or years
B. Monocytes perform specific local function in tissues
C. Once activated Monocytes break off and enlarge to be come macrophages
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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24
Q

Chemical substances that may function as chemotactic signals:
A. Degenerative tissue product
B. Activated complement complex
C. Products caused by plasma clotting
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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25
Q

The following statements characterized macrophages, which statement is not true?
A. End- stage product of monocytes.
B. Capable of ingesting a hundred bacteria.
C. They are able to engulf only small particles. D. Does not get inactivated after phagocytosis.

A

C. They are able to engulf only small particles

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26
Q

Bone marrow produces few WBC?
A. Leukemia
B. Leukopenia
C. Lymphoma
D. Leukocytosis

A

B. Leukopenia

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27
Q

Which of the following is/are responsible for humoral immunity?
A. T cytotoxic lymphocytes
B. T helper lymphocytes
C. T suppressor lymphocytes
D. B lymphocytes

A

D. B lymphocytes

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28
Q

Which of the following are examples of acquired immunity?
A. Immunization
B. Non-IgE allergy
C. Asthma
D. Parasitism

A

A. Immunization

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29
Q

When iron (Fe++) combines with a beta globulin in the blood plasma and transported to tissue cells:
A. Ferritin
B. Transferrin
C. Apotransferrin
D. Apoferritin

A

B. Transferrin

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30
Q

What are the responses of neutrophils and macrophages to acute bacterial infection?
A. Within minutes of infection, tissue macrophages provide the first line of defense. B. Within the 1 hour, second macrophage invasion due to monocytes from the blood entering the tissues provides the 2nd line of defense.
B. Several days later, neutrophilia occurs, providing the 3rd line of defense.
D. Formation of pus is the 4th line of defense.

A

A. Within minutes of infection, tissue macrophages provide the first line of defense

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31
Q

Undifferentiated cells in leukemia would mean? A. The cancerous process is more chronic
B. The disease is developing slowly
C. The cancerous process is acute
D. Some are functional, providing normal protection

A

C. The cancerous process is acute

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32
Q

Which type of WBC has the longest life span?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Basophils
D. Platelets

A

B. Lymphocytes

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33
Q

What are the roles of Vitamin B12 and Vitamin B9, in the development of RBCs?
A. Lack of these cause failure to proliferate rapidly.
B. Essential for the synthesis of RNA.
C. Significant with rate but not with maturation. D. Abundance of Vit. B12 and B9 causes macrocytes

A

A. Lack of these cause failure to proliferate rapidly

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34
Q

The following statements describe eosinophils, except:
A. Produced in large numbers in humans with parasitic infections.
B. Most parasites are phagocytize by eosinophils
C. Eosinophils attach to juvenile forms and release major basic protein.
D. Eosinophils migrate towards inflamed allergic tissues.

A

B. Most parasites are phagocytize by eosinophils

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35
Q

Which of the following statement best describe the relationship between Vitamin B12 and intrinsic factor, except;
A. Intrinsic factor gives vitamin B12 protection from digestion from gastrointestinal secretion. B. Lack of intrinsic factor causes faulty absorption of the vitamin B12.
C. Vitamin B12 is transported with intrinsic factor through the brush border membranes in the ileum.
D. A few days of defective B12 absorption will cause maturation failure anemia.

A

D. A few days of defective B12 absorption will cause maturation failure anemia.

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36
Q

Aside from hypoxia, other sensors that send signal to the kidneys to produce erythropoietin include which one?
A. Cytokines
B. Bradykinins
C. Prostaglandins
D. Acetylcholine

A

B. Bradykinins

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37
Q

. Directly attacks and destroy bacteria, viruses and other injurious agents:
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Plasma cells
D. Platelets

A

A. Neutrophils

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38
Q

Of the total white blood cells, which type has the highest percentage?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Basophils
D. Eosinophils

A

A. Neutrophils

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39
Q

The following are the roles by which macrophages activates T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes
A. They phagocytize and partially digest invading organisms.
B. Antigenic products are liberated in the macrophage cytosol.
C. Pass the antigens via direct cell to cell contact directly to lymphocytes.
D. Secretion of Interleukin-1 is in essential for further growth and reproduction of lymphocytes.

A

D. Secretion of Interleukin-1 is in essential for further growth and reproduction of lymphocytes

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40
Q

Which of the following best describes the human body’s innate Immunity?
A. Develop after the body is first attack by bacteria, viruses or toxins.
B. Often weeks or months are required for the immunity to develop.
C. Powerful and specific response to an individual invading agent.
D. Presence in the blood of certain substances and cells that attaches to foreign organisms and destroy them.

A

D. Presence in the blood of certain substances and cells that attaches to foreign organisms and destroy them.

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41
Q

Mature RBCs do not have cell organelles but contain 3 whose functions include the following, except:
A. Maintain flexibility of the cell membrane.
B. Maintain membrane transport of ions.
C. Keep the iron of the cell’s hemoglobin in the ferric form.
D. Prevent oxidation of the proteins in the RBC.

A

C. Keep the iron of the cell’s hemoglobin in the ferric form.

42
Q

Regulation of total body iron occurs in the;
A. Liver
B. RBC
C. Intestine
D. Plasma

A

C. Intestine

43
Q

Which of the following are functions of hemoglobin?
A. Carries oxygen to the lungs from the tissues B. Reversibly binds CO2 to be expelled from the tissues to the lungs
C. Acts as an acid-base buffer
D. Catalyzes the reversible reaction between CO2 and H2O

A

C. Acts as an acid-base buffer

44
Q

Polycythemia can be caused by:
A. High altitudes
B. Genetic aberration in erythroblast
C. A and B
D. None of the above

A

C. A and B

45
Q

Inflammatory cytokines includes the following: A. Tumor necrosis factor
B. Interleukin 1
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

A

C. All of the above

46
Q

Red blood cells production at the time of birth occurs in which of the following?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Bone marrow

A

D. Bone marrow

47
Q

What are the effects of anemia to the circulatory system?
A. Blood viscosity increase 1.5x of water
B. Decreases the peripheral blood flow to the vessels.
C. Decreases the peripheral blood flow to the vessels.
D. Increase in return of blood to the heart will decrease cardiac output.

A

mia to the circulatory system? A. Blood viscosity increase B. Decreases the peripheral blood flow to the vessels

48
Q

Selective phagocytosis to prevent ingestion of normal cells of the body by neutrophils and macrophages takes place by:
A. Tissues and cells have smooth surfaces.
B. Absence of protective coat of normal cell structures.
C. Antibodies targeting normal tissues.
D. Non selective opsonisation by C3.

A

A. Tissues and cells have smooth surfaces.

49
Q

Specifically activates the blood clotting mechanism?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Platelets

A

D. Platelets

50
Q

Pre-processing of T lymphocytes occur in the: A. Liver
B. Bone marrow
C. Thymus
D. Lymph nodes

51
Q

Which component of reflex arc produces the motor response.
A. Afferent limb
B. Central component
C. Effector cell
D. Efferent limb

A

D. Efferent limb

52
Q

A student taps the patellar tendon of his classmate using a reflex hammer. This brief change in muscle length will stimulate which sensory fiber in the muscle spindle?

A

Type IA / Annulospiral Fiber

53
Q

Sensitivity of muscle spindle is increased when? A. Extrafusal muscle contract and intrafusal muscle unloaded
B. Gamma Motor neuron is inhibited
C. Polar regions of the intrafusal muscle contracts
D. Both intrafusal and extrafusal muscle contracts

A

C. Polar regions of the intrafusal muscle contracts

54
Q

Which of the following statements are true about muscle spindle?
A. Receives sensory and motor innervation
B. Equatorial portion of the spindle is capable of venous contraction
C. Limited only to muscles with fine control
D. Arranged in series in tendinous insertion

A

A. Receives sensory and motor innervation

55
Q

Noxious or painful stimuli is the usual stimuli for:
A. Flexion reflex
B. Inverse myotatic
C. Myotatic
D. Tonic stretch

A

A. Flexion reflex

56
Q

Golgi tendon organ that detects muscle force is the sensory receptor in which of the following reflexes?
A. Flexion
B. Myotatic
C. Tonic stretch reflex
D. Inverse myotatic reflex

A

D. Inverse myotatic reflex

57
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system, bronchodilation and increased glycogenolysis are effects of;
A. Acetylcholine
B. Epinephrine
C. Norepinephrine
D. All of these

A

B. Epinephrine

58
Q

One of the following tissues is supplied by cholinergic postganglionic sympathetic fibers: A. Bronchial smooth muscle
B. Cardiac muscle
C. Piloerector muscle
D. Intestinal sphincter

A

C. Piloerector muscle

59
Q

Agglutination of cells; positive anti-A agglutinins; positive Anti-B agglutinins
A. Type O
B. Type A
C. Type B
D. Type AB

A

D. Type AB

60
Q

Neurotransmitter of both preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers is:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Substance P

A

A. Acetylcholine

61
Q

Which of the following will be the response of the body to increased temperature?
A. Increased release of thyroid hormones
B. Increased metabolic rate
C. Heat conservation mechanism activation
D. Sweating

A

D. Sweating

62
Q

One of the following IS CORRECT about the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Also known as craniosacral division
B. Postganglia is often found in the walls of organs to be innervated
C. Often responds with highly localized response
D. Preganglionic neurons are found in the thoracic and upper lumbar segments

A

D. Preganglionic neurons are found in the thoracic and upper lumbar segments

63
Q

Which of the following will be the sympathetic response to a DECREASE OR FALL in blood pressure as detected by baroreceptors?
A. Increased intestinal motility
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Bronchoconstriction
D. Vasoconstriction

A

D. Vasoconstriction

64
Q

Injury to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus will affect which of the following:
A. Eye movement
B. Intestinal motility
C. Sweating
D. Urinary bladder emptying

A

A. Eye movement

65
Q

Copious sweating is expected with excitation of the Heart
A. Sympathetic nervous system
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Sympathetic nervous system

66
Q

Cardioacceleration will be the response with activation of which of the following?
A. Alpha 1
B. Alpha 2
C. Beta 1
D. Beta 2

67
Q

One of the following organs is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibers that are cholinergic;
A. Heart
B. Smooth muscle GIT
C. Bronchial smooth muscle
D. Smooth muscle of blood vessels

A

D. Smooth muscle of blood vessels

68
Q

Inositol triphosphate and DAG mediate the effects of catecholamines in which of the following receptors?
A. Alpha 1
B. Alpha 2
C. Beta 1
D. Beta 2

A

A. Alpha 1

69
Q

Neurotransmitter of all postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers is;
A. Acetylcholine
B. Epinephrine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Dopamine

A

A. Acetylcholine

70
Q

This portion of the antibodies attaches to a particular type of antigen:
A. Variable portion
B. Constant portion
C. Light chain
D. Heavy chain

A

A. Variable portion

71
Q

Most numerous T cells and major regulator of the immune system forming Lymphokines:
A. T helper cells
B. B. T cytotoxic cells
C. T suppressor cells
D. All of the above

A

A. T helper cells

72
Q

This portion of the antibodies determines adherence to specific structures within the tissues:
A. Variable portion
B. Constant portion
C. Light chain
D. Heavy chain

A

B. Constant portion

73
Q

Transplant between identical twins are called: A. Autografts
B. Isografts
C. Allografts
D. Xenografts

A

B. Isografts

74
Q

A decrease in blood volume and an increase in plasma osmolality will trigger which of the following responses;
A. Increased urine volume
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Thirst mechanism

A

D. Thirst mechanism

75
Q

These are greatly enhanced forms of B lymphocytes, once exposed to specific antigen cause a much rapid and potent antibody response:
A. Plasmablast
B. Lymphoblast
C. Memory cells
D. Antigen presenting cells

A

C. Memory cells

76
Q

Which of the following will be the response of the body to increased temperature?
A. Increased release of thyroid hormones
B. Increased metabolic rate
C. Heat conservation mechanism activation
D. Sweating

A

D. Sweating

77
Q

Which of the following statements about B lymphocytes are not true?
A. Accepts presented antigen from macrophages.
B. Enlarges to become plasmablast which are precursor of plasma cells.
C. Plasmablast release antibodies to destroy invading organism.
D. Memory cells mounts a more rapid and potent response to invaders.

A

C. Plasmablast release antibodies to destroy invading organism

78
Q

The following are characteristic of the adrenal medulla with regards the sympathetic response EXCEPT:
A. Provides a back-up system or safety factor to sympathetic nerve endings
B. Releases catecholamines directly into the bloodstream
C. 80% of its production is norepinephrine
D. Released catecholamines have more prolonged effects

A

C. 80% of its production is norepinephrine

79
Q

Specific antigens that reacts with basophils and mast cells causing widespread allergic reaction to the vascular system;
A. Urticaria
B. Anaphylaxis
C. C. Asthma
D. Hay fever

A

B. Anaphylaxis

80
Q

The following are correct about the autonomic nervous system EXCEPT:
A. Controls most visceral functions
B. Effects are intense and rapid
C. Divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
D. Sympathetic is always excitatory while parasympathetic is inhibitory

A

D. Sympathetic is always excitatory while parasympathetic is inhibitory

81
Q

Which of the following is adrenergic?
A. Postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers B. Majority of postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers
B. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers to the piloerector muscle
D. Preganglionic of both sympathetic and parasympathetic

A

B. Majority of postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers

82
Q

A lesion in this portion of the hypothalamus will result to (satiety) hyperphagia and obesity.
A. Anterior
B. Lateral
C. Posterior
D. Ventromedical nucleus

A

D. Ventromedical nucleus

83
Q

Constitutes about 75% of a normal person:
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA

84
Q

Rate limiting factor in coagulation:
A. Thrombin
B. Prothrombin
C. Prothrombin activator
D. Fibrin

A

C. Prothrombin activator

85
Q

This portion of the antibodies determines the ease by which the antibodies pass through membrane:
A. Variable portion
B. Constant portion
C. Light chain
D. Heavy chain

A

B. Constant portion

86
Q

Formed during the primary response:
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA

87
Q

75% of all parasympathetic nerve fibers supplying the heart, liver and GIT are coming from:
A. CN VII
B. CN X
C. T3 - T6
D. S3 - S4

88
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when;
A. Rh positive mother gives birth to a Rh negative offspring for the first time
B. Rh positive mother gives birth to a subsequent Rh negative baby
C. Rh negative mother gives birth to a Rh positive baby for
D. Rh negative mother gives birth to a 3rd Rh positive baby

A

D. Rh negative mother gives birth to a 3rd Rh positive baby

89
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when;
A. Rh positive mother gives birth to a Rh negative offspring for the first time
B. Rh positive mother gives birth to a subsequent Rh negative baby
C. Rh negative mother gives birth to a Rh positive baby for the first time
D. Rh negative mother gives birth to a 3rd Rh positive baby

A

D. Rh negative mother gives birth to a 3rd Rh positive baby

90
Q

If epinephrine binds to beta receptors, this will lead to;
A. Decrease in the release of neurotransmitters B. Generation of DAG and InsP3
B. Increase in cAMP thru G protein activation
D. Increase in the synthesis of nitric oxide

A

C. Increase in cAMP thru G protein activation

91
Q

A man suffered from a severe allergic reaction after being injected with Penicillin. He manifested with difficulty of breathing, He was immediately injected with Epinephrine to induce bronchodilation which is mediated by which receptor?
A. Alpha 1
B. Alpha 2
C. Beta 1
D. Beta 2

92
Q

Direct attack cells that binds to invasive organisms which secretes perforins:
A. T helper cells
B. T cytotoxic cells
C. T suppressor cells
D. All of the above

A

B. T cytotoxic cells

93
Q

Neurotransmitter of both preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers is;
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopmaine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Substance P

A

A. Acetylcholine

94
Q

With regards the enteric nervous system, which of the following is a function of the myenteric nervous system?
A. Regulates ion transport
B. Regulates water secretion
C. Controls GIT motility
D. Increases absorption of nutrients

A

C. Controls GIT motility

95
Q

A lesion in this hypothalamic center will result to refusal of food (aphagia) and drink with eventual starvation and emaciation;
A. Anterior
B. Lateral
C. Posterior
D. Ventromedial nucleus

A

B. Lateral

96
Q
  1. Complement for lysis:
    A. Fragment C3b
    B. Fragment C4a
    C. Fragment C5a
    D. Fragment C5b
A

D. Fragment C5b

97
Q

Complement for opsonization and phagocytosis;
A. Fragment C3b
B. Fragment C4a
C. Fragment C5a
D. Fragment C5b6789

A

A. Fragment C3b

98
Q

Which of these conditions does not cause excessive bleeding?
A. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Thrombocytosis
C. Hemophilia
D. Thrombocytopenia

A

B. Thrombocytosis

99
Q

One of the following is an effect of norepinephrine.
A. Increased intestinal motility
B. Pupillary constriction
C. Bronchoconstriction
D. Vasoconstriction

A

D. Vasoconstriction

100
Q

Complement for chemotaxis;
A. Fragment C3b
B. Fragment C4a
C. Fragment C5a
D. Fragment C5b6789

A

C. Fragment C5a

Physiology (20 decks)

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