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Physiology > Physio LE2 (Batch 2025) - Reflex-Blood Physiology > Flashcards

Physio LE2 (Batch 2025) - Reflex-Blood Physiology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the MOST COMMON stimulus for the flexor reflex?

A. degree of muscle force

B. noxious stimuli

C. stretch

D. pressure

A

B. noxious stimuli

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following afferent/sensory endings in the muscle spindle is sensitive to both amount and rate of stretch and is therefore most sensitive to sudden changes in muscle length?
A

Group 1a afferent nerve fiber

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following components of the reflex arc collects and carries sensory information to the CNS?

A. afferent/sensory limb

B. central component

C. effector cells

D. efferent limb

A

A. afferent/sensory limb

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4
Q
  1. When the extrafusal muscle contracts or shortens, how does the muscle spindle after being unloaded eventually regain its sensitivity?
A

only polar ends of the intrafusal muscle contracts resulting to stretch of equatorial region

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5
Q
  1. What is being detected by muscle spindle?
A

Change in muscle length

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6
Q
  1. TRUE about muscle spindles?
A

They lie parallel to regular muscle fibers to enable them to detect changes in muscle length

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7
Q
  1. The neurons that are also part of the central generator pattern (CGP) which generates locomotion also subserves which of the following reflexes?

A. inverse myotatic

B. flexor

C. myotatic

D. tonic

A

E. flexor

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8
Q
  1. Group 1b afferent fibers in golgi tendon organs has which of the following characteristics?

A. mainly detects changes in muscle length

B. mainly detects muscle force

C. slow conducting than group 1a fibers

A

B. mainly detects muscle force

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9
Q
  1. A man stepped on a broken glass while wading in the flood, the reflex reaction to this stimulus will be:
A

as the affected limb flexes, the contralateral limb extends

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10
Q
  1. Intrafusal 1a fibers or primary endings innervate which of the following:

A. nuclear chain fibers

B. bag 1 fibers

C. bag 2 fibers

D. all of these

A

D. all of these

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11
Q
  1. Intrafusal 1a fibers or primary endings innervate which of the following:

A. nuclear chain fibers

B. bag 1 fibers

C. bag 2 fibers

D. all of these

A

B. bag 1 fibers

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12
Q
  1. The golgi tendon organs detect which of the following?
A

amount of force in the tendon where it is linked

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following stretch reflexes is responsible for maintenance of posture and muscle tone?

A. myotatic reflex

B. tonic stretch reflex

C. flexor reflex

A

B. tonic stretch reflex

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14
Q
  1. The reflex response to a decrease in muscle force resulting to stretch that is brought about by fatigue will be:
A

Ans: activation of 1a neuron that will excite alpha motor neurons

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15
Q
  1. stretch reflexes such as the patellar tension reflex is elicited by which of the following?
A

Ans: 1a primary endings

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16
Q
  1. Still on the stretch or myotatic reflex, if the doctor taps the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer, the expected result will be:
A

Ans: activation of extensor muscle and inhibition of flexor muscles

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17
Q
  1. In the inverse myotatic reflex, sustained force in the rectus femoris, a knee extensor muscle activates the golgi tendon organ which will result to:
A

Ans: inhibition of the knee extensor and activation of antagonist flexor muscle

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following reflexes acts as a feedback system that help maintain force levels in a muscle?

A. inverse myotatic reflex

B. myotatic reflex

C. flexor reflex

D. tonic stretch reflex

A

A. inverse myotatic reflex

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19
Q
  1. This is said to be a powerful reflex because afferent fibers synapse directly (a monosynapse) with a motor neuron that will supply the homonymous muscle and all its synergists?

A. flexor reflex

B. phasic stretch reflex

C. tonic stretch reflex
D. inverse myotatic stretch reflex

A

B. phasic stretch reflex

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20
Q
  1. Dynamic gamma motor activation leads to which of the following?
A

Ans: response of group 1a afferent is enhanced

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21
Q
  1. The sympathetic nervous system is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

A. postganglionic neurons originates from the thoracic and lumbar segments

B. postganglionic neurons are at the paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia

C. postganglionic neurons are at a distance from target organs

A

D. are free from influence of acetylcholine

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22
Q
  1. A man suffered severe allergic reaction after being injected with Penicillin. One of the manifestations is difficulty of breathing. He was immediately injected with Epinephrine to induce bronchodilation through activation of which of the following receptors?

A. alpha 1

B. alpha 2

C. beta 1

A

D. beta 2

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is adrenergic?
A

Ans: Majority of sympathetic postganglionic fibers

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is CORRECT about the adrenal medulla?

B. is a source if preganglionic fibers

C. release catecholamine and a synapse

D. secreted catecholamine had short term effects

A

A. 80=90% of secretion is epinephrine

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25
Q
  1. A lesion to the lateral hypothalamus or to the hypothalamic feeding center will result to:
A

Ans: emaciation

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26
Q
  1. Injury to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus will affect which of the following?
A

Ans: pupillary size

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27
Q
  1. Adrenergic response will lead to which of the following?

A. bradycardia

B. micturition

C. pupillary constriction

D. vasoconstriction

A

E. vasoconstriction

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28
Q
  1. Binding of epinephrine to one of the

following adrenergic receptors will result to increase heart rate and increased force of myocardial contraction:

A. alpha 1

B. alpha 2

C. beta 1
D. beta 2

A

C. beta 1

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29
Q
  1. 75% or majority of parasympathetic fibers supplying the heart, liver and gastrointestinal tract are coming from this cranial nerve:
A

Ans: CN X

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30
Q
  1. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers are:
A

Ans: Cholinergic

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following is a parasympathetic action?

A. cardio-acceleration

B. Fight or flight response

C. increase GIT mobility and secretion

D. pupillary dilation

A

E. increase GIT mobility and secretion

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32
Q
  1. What will be the sympathetic response to a FALL IN ARTERIAL PRESSURE as detected by baroreceptors?
A

Ans: increase in heart rate

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following will be the response of the body to INCREASE in body temperature?
A

Ans: sweating

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34
Q
  1. Binding of catecholamines like epinephrine or norepinephrine to beta receptors will activate which signaling mechanism?

A. G protein that increases cAMP

B. inositol triphosphate and DAG
C. calcium

D. tyrosine kinase

A

A. G protein that increases cAMP

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35
Q
  1. All preganglionic neurons of both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers are:
A

Ans: Cholinergic

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36
Q
  1. Increase in plasma osmolality stimulate:
A

Ans: Thirst sensation

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37
Q
  1. One of the following is supplied by postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers that are cholinergic:

A. heart

B. bronchial smooth muscle

C. piloerector muscle

D. smooth muscle of GIT

A

E. piloerector muscle

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38
Q
  1. Stress can depress the immune system because it triggers the hypothalamus to release:

A. corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH)

B. gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GRH)

C. growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH)

A

A. corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH)

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39
Q
  1. The parasympathetic division stimulates urination/micturition by causing which of the following?
A

Ans: contraction of the detrusor muscle of urinary bladder

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40
Q
  1. The following are part of the fight or flight response of the sympathetic nervous system

EXCEPT?

A. increased blood pressure

B. bronchodilation

C. increased glucose metabolism

D. vasodilation of cutaneous and splanchnic blood vessels

A

E. vasodilation of cutaneous and splanchnic blood vessels

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41
Q
  1. Upon experiencing trauma, reduction of blood flow by vascular contraction arises from?

A. Adherence of blood proteins

B. Contractile protein release granules

C. Local autacoid factors

D. Fibrin formation

A

C. Local autacoid factors

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of the role of platelets in Hemostasis?

A. Glycoprotein on its surface allow adherence to normal epithelium

B. Contains phospholipids that activate the clotting process

C. Its fibrin stabilizing factor causes fibroblast to multiply

D. Growth factors form fibrin threads

A

B. Contains phospholipids that activate the clotting process

43
Q
  1. Which of the following mechanisms of hemostasis may occur last?
    A. Vasoconstriction of blood vessel

B. Formation of blood clot

C. Fibrous organization

D. Formation of platelet plug

A

C. Fibrous organization

44
Q
  1. In the process of formation of the platelet plug, what would compel other platelets to adhere to other platelets?

A. Contact with damaged vascular walls

B. Secretion of intracellular granules

C. Secretion of large qualities of thromboxane A2

D. Formation of fibrin threads

A

C. Secretion of large qualities of thromboxane A2

45
Q
  1. Essential steps in blood coagulation includes the following, except:

A. A complex cascade of chemical reaction occurs

B. An activated substance is formed called prothrombin

C. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin

D. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin fibers

A

B. An activated substance is formed called prothrombin

46
Q
  1. In clot formation, positive feedback promotes more clotting by:

A. Proteolytic action of thrombin

B. Fibrin stimulates more prothrombin

C. Fibrinogen accelerates factor VII, X

D. Fibrin fibers draw in more thrombin

A

A. Proteolytic action of thrombin

47
Q
  1. Which of these is true of the mechanisms in the initiation of coagulation?

A. Vascular trauma initiates the Intrinsic pathways.
B. Exposure of blood to collagen initiates the Extrinsic pathways.
C. Traumatized extravascular tissues initiates the Intrinsic pathways
D. Blood clotting factors are converted to active forms.

A

D. Blood clotting factors are converted to active forms.

48
Q
  1. Actions of clotting factors in the initiation of clotting

A. Factor X is activated from trauma to the blood

B. Factor XII is activated from extravascular trauma

C. Factor IX activation is common to both pathways

D. Factor V combines with platelets phospholipids

A

D. Factor V combines with platelets phospholipids

49
Q
  1. Also called Antihemophilic factor:
    A. Factor VII

B. Factor VIII

C. Factor X

D. Factor XII

A

B. Factor VIII

50
Q
  1. The following are true regarding classic hemophilia?
    A. Most common cause is deficiency in factor IX

B. Bleeding usually occur after trauma

C. Transmitted by the male chromosome

D. The extrinsic pathway is more affected

A

B. Bleeding usually occur after trauma

51
Q
  1. What is the blood type of a person with agglutinogen B?
A

Ans: Type B

52
Q
  1. What is the blood type of a person with agglutinin anti-A?
A

Ans: Type B

53
Q
  1. A person with no agglutinins will have a blood type?
A

Ans: Type AB

54
Q
  1. A person with no agglutinogens will have a blood type?
A

Ans: Type O

55
Q
  1. Erythroblastosis fetalis is characterized by?

A. Rh negative infant is born to a Rh-positive mother

B. The mother develops Rh agglutinogens

C. The newborn may develop kernicterus as a result of complications
D. Anti-D antibody is given to Rh positive mother for prevention

A

C. The newborn may develop kernicterus as a result of complications

56
Q
  1. Transplantation of tissue from one identical twin to another is called?
A

Ans: isograft

57
Q
  1. The most important antigens for causing graft rejection?
A

Ans: Human Leukocyte Antigen

58
Q
  1. A person living in high altitudes will have an increase in which of the following parameters, except?

A. Red blood cells concentration

B. Hemoglobin per RBC cell

C. Hematocrit per milliliter

D. White blood cells concentration

A

B. Hemoglobin per RBC cell

59
Q
  1. After the age of 30 years, which of the following body parts produces RBCs?

A. Liver

B. Femur

C. Vertebrae

D. Spleen

A

E. Vertebrae

60
Q
  1. Which statement is correct for pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells?

A. Not all cells of the circulating blood are derived from PHSC
B. All cells that are different from the original remains in the bone marrow

C. All committed stem cells are exactly the same as PHSC

D. All PHSC differentiate to form other cell types

A

C. All committed stem cells are exactly the same as PHSC

61
Q
  1. What are the factors that accelerate differentiation of red blood cells?

A. Minor trauma

B. Development of infections

C. Decrease nutrition

D. Hypoxia

A

D. Hypoxia

62
Q
  1. Which of the following do not stimulate the release of erythropoietin

A. High blood volume

B. Pulmonary disease

C. Cardiac failure

D. High altitudes

A

A. High blood volume

63
Q
  1. Which of the following processes with the synthesis of erythropoietin is correct?

A. May occur without hypoxia

B. Hypoxic response element serves as the transcription factor

C. CFU-E cells are stimulated with increased production

D. RBC production can increase up to 10x

A

D. RBC production can increase up to 10x

64
Q
  1. Essential for RBC maturation except?
  2. A. Vitamin B12

B. Folic acid
C. Thymidine

D. Iron

A

D. Iron

65
Q
  1. First to be formed from CFU-E cells, increased in the presence of hypoxia?
A

Ans: Proerythroblast

66
Q
  1. First generation formed from rbc differentiation which contains a very small amount of hemoglobin?

A. Proerythroblast

B. Basophilic erythroblast

C. Polychromatophilic erythroblast

D. Reticulocyte

A

E. Basophilic erythroblast

67
Q
  1. Contains small amounts of basophilic materials and have the shortest stage life?

A. Proerythroblast

B. Basophilic erythroblast

C. Polychromatophilic erythroblast

D. Reticulocyte

A

E. Reticulocyte

68
Q
  1. What is the advantage of a biconcave disc shape:

A. Deformable

B. Unbreakable

C. Stretchable

D. Modifiable

A

A. Deformable

69
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is not a correct function of hemoglobin?

A. Carries O2 to the lungs from the tissues

B. Reversibly binds CO2 to be expelled

C. Acts as an acid-base buffer

D. Catalyzes the reaction between CO2 and H20

A

A. Carries O2 to the lungs from the tissues

70
Q
  1. Other substances that send signals to the kidneys to increase production of EPO, except?

A. Prostaglandins

B. Cytokines

C. Norepinephrine

D. Epinephrine

A

E. Cytokines

71
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best

describe the relationship between vitamin B12 and intrinsic factor?

A

Ans: Defective B12 absorption will cause anemia 2 years from onset

72
Q
  1. The most common form of hemoglobin in an adult human being is:
A

Ans: Two alpha chains and two beta chains

73
Q
  1. Storage form of iron?
    A. Apoferritin

B. Apotransferrin

C. Ferritin

D. Transferrin

A

E. Ferritin

74
Q
  1. Form of iron once absorbed from the intestines and transported to the liver?

A. Apoferritin

B. Apotransferrin

C. Ferritin

D. Transferrin

A

E. Transferrin

75
Q
  1. Total body iron is regulated mainly in the?

A. Intestine

B. Liver

C. Red blood cells

D. Plasma

A

E. Intestine

76
Q
  1. Bone marrow dysfunction will cause?
    A. Megaloblastic anemia

B. Aplastic anemia

C. Idiopathic anemia

D. Microcytic anemia

A

B. Aplastic anemia

77
Q
  1. Polycythemia vera can be caused by?
    A. High altitudes

B. Cardiac failure
C. Genetic aberration in erythroblast

D. Pulmonary diseases

A

C. Genetic aberration in erythroblast

78
Q
  1. Which white blood cell type has the highest percentage in the body?
A

Ans: Neutrophils

79
Q
  1. Which white blood cells have the longest life span?
A

Ans: Lymphocytes

80
Q
  1. Which white blood cells are mostly stored in the bone marrow?
A

Ans: Neutrophils

81
Q
  1. Which white blood cells mature in lymphogenous tissues?
A

Ans: Lymphocytes

82
Q
  1. Which white blood cells directly attack and destroy bacteria, viruses and other injurious agents?
A

Ans: Neutrophils

83
Q
  1. Which among the following have the shortest life span?
A

Ans: Platelets

84
Q
  1. Attracts neutrophils and macrophages to move them towards the source of infection, except?
    A. Smooth surfaced endothelium

B. Degenerative products

C. Complement complex

D. Plasma clotting

A

A. Smooth surfaced endothelium

85
Q
  1. Chemotaxis are greatly influenced by which of the following?

A. Concentration gradient of chemotactic substances

B. Products formed from inflamed tissue

C. Permeability of endothelium

D. Distance from the chemotactic substances

A

A. Concentration gradient of chemotactic substances

86
Q
  1. Failure of phagocytosis will occur with?
    A. Rough cell surface

B. Protein protective coats

C. Presence of antibodies

D. Combination with C3

A

B. Protein protective coats

87
Q
  1. What are the characteristics of phagocytosis by neutrophils?

A. Neutrophils enter the tissues as immature cells, unable to begin phagocytosis

B. Neutrophils mature in tissues then proceed to begin phagocytosis

C. Neutrophils first project pseudopodia then attach themselves

D. A single neutrophil can ingest 3-20 bacteria before inactivation

A

D. A single neutrophil can ingest 3-20 bacteria before inactivation

88
Q
  1. Macrophages are characterized by the following, except?

A. They are enlarged, mature monocytes

B. Able to engulf only small sized particles

C. Does not get inactivated after phagocytosis

D. Capable of ingesting 100 bacteria

A

B. Able to engulf only small sized particles

89
Q
  1. Features of monocytes in the reticuloendothelial system are which of the following?

A. Monocytes attach to tissues for days inactively

B. Monocytes perform no functions in tissues

C. Once activated monocytes break off and enlarge

D. Macrophages are inactivated monocytes

A

C. Once activated monocytes break off and enlarge

90
Q
  1. Inflamed tissue release cytokines which causes endothelial cells to secrete selectins and ICAM-1 which reacts with neutrophils integrin causing adhesion?

A. Phagocytosis

B. Diapedesis

C. Margination

D. Chemotaxis

A

E. Margination

91
Q
  1. Features of eosinophils are the following, except?

A. Increases in humans with parasitic infections

B. Most parasites are phagocytized by eosinophils
C. Eosinophils attach to juvenile parasites and release major basic protein

D. Eosinophils migrate towards inflamed allergic tissues

A

B. Most parasites are phagocytized by eosinophils

92
Q
  1. Acquired immunity is best exemplified by?
    A. Non-IgE allergy

B. Asthma
C. Parasitism

D. Immunization

A

D. Immunization

93
Q
  1. Preprocessing of T lymphocytes occurs in the?

A. Liver

B. Bone marrow

C. Lymph nodes

D. Thymus

A

E. Thymus

94
Q
  1. The following statements are the objectives of preprocessing of lymphocytes, except:

A. Preprocessing adds capability to lymphocyte stem cells to form activated lymphocytes and antibodies

B. Lymphocytes develop extremely diverse reactions to different specific antigens

C. Preprocessed cells reacts against antigens from transplant tissues from another person’s

D. Preprocessing makes certain that lymphocytes will react on the antigens present

in the body’s own tissues

A

D. Preprocessing makes certain that lymphocytes will react on the antigens present

in the body’s own tissues

95
Q
  1. Which of the following secretes antibodies that reacts with foreign invaders?

A. T cytotoxic lymphocytes

B. T helper lymphocytes

C. T suppressor lymphocytes

D. B lymphocytes

A

D. B lymphocytes

96
Q
  1. These are greatly enhanced forms of B lymphocytes, once exposed to specific antigens causes a much more rapid and potent antibodies response?

A. Memory cells

B. Lymphoblast

C. Plasmablast

D. Antigen presenting cells

A

A. Memory cells

97
Q
  1. Which portion of antibodies attaches to specific antigen?

A. Variable portion

B. Constant portion

C. Light chain

D. Heavy chain

A

A. Variable portion

98
Q
  1. This immunoglobulin is formed during the primary response to infections?

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgE

A

E. IgM

99
Q
  1. Direct attack lymphocyte cells that binds to invasive organisms which secretes perforins?
    A. T cytotoxic lymphocytes

B. T helper lymphocytes

C. T suppressor lymphocytes

D. B lymphocytes

A

A. T cytotoxic lymphocytes

100
Q
  1. Specific antigens that reacts with basophil and mast cells causing widespread allergic reaction to the vascular system?
    A. Urticaria

B. Asthma

C. Hay fever

D. Anaphylaxis

A

E. Anaphylaxis

Physiology (20 decks)

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