Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phenom Info > Phenom SOP's > Flashcards

Phenom SOP's Flashcards

1
Q

When can you assume a V1/VR Unity?

A

V1/VR unity where possible and this must be proven through the use of
OPERA by selecting ‘Maximum V1’, and/or through the ‘Airport Analysis’ function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Under what circumstances is V1 not required?

A

When operating from the main runway at CWL, WAD or CGY (Dry or Wet)
with WingStab selected OFF for takeoff, and AUW ≤ 4500 for takeoff with a tailwind component ≤ 5 kts,

or

When AUW ≤ 4700 for takeoff, with no tailwind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the oxygen content required?

A

For local trg flights, the minimum oxygen to be carried is 1050 psi.
This is sufficient for all crew and passengers to be on oxygen for 30 mins.
For ac departing on landaways
and overseas flights, the normal minimum oxygen pressure is 1590 psi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where is the standard muster point?

A

100m off the nose of the ac unless
briefed otherwise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the Min Voltage for an Engine start?

A

24v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When should you check the Hydraulic Page?

A

The MFD Status synoptic page should be checked during, or shortly after, initial taxi, to confirm the hydraulic pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What checks can be complete on Taxi?

A

Other than the three minute check of the WingStab system, which must be conducted with the parking brake applied, checks may be performed whilst taxiing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the standard taxi fuel?

A

The standard taxi fuel for Rwy 26 is 40kgs (20kgs for Rwy 08)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is single engine taxiing available?

A

Taxiing should be conducted with both engines running.
However, in extremis and where operationally required, the ac may be taxied on a single engine; ground control and manoeuvrability is considered satisfactory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the PF’s Flight Crew Duties?

A

Fly, navigate and manage the ac and systems, monitor radios, and
initiate/action checklists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the tailwind starting limitation?

A

10kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain the lookout procedures

A

When either crew member is heads-in for a prolonged period (eg
Routine Checks), they will state ‘Heads in’ and the other crew member
should reply ‘Heads out’ whilst maintaining a lookout.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the PM’s Flight Crew Duties?

A

Monitor flying and navigation of pf
Manage the radios
action checklists and ensure that they are completed
gather weather information under the
direction of the PF
maintain any required navigation and fuel logs.
The PM should also complete any other duties as directed by the PF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should you do if engine anti icing is required for take off?

A

If Engine AI is required below 1500ft on the departure, it should be set to ON prior to takeoff to prevent any FADEC logic failures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the Normal Takeoff procedures?

A

Line up and stop on the runway centreline. Release the toe brakes and stand up the TLs to check symmetric response, then apply TOGA thrust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Rolling Takeoff procedures?

A

The rolling takeoff is the preferred Phenom technique. Instead of pausing when on the runway centreline, thrust is applied once the ac is rolling straight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Performance Takeoff?

A

The Performance takeoff may be carried out for reasons of increased ac takeoff performance and when briefed beforehand.

TLs are actioned as per a Normal takeoff but toe brakes are released only once TOGA thrust is achieved.

Caution should be applied in wet runway conditions, especially when
positioned on painted surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Minimum Acceleration Altitude?

A

620ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the Reasons for Low Speed Abort?

A

A takeoff below 70kts should be rejected for any abnormality or safety of flight issue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the Reasons for High Speed Abort?

A

CAS Message.
Sign of FIRE.
Undemanded loss of thrust.
Loss of directional control.
Any other situation that either pilot considers merits an abort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the PF’s abort duties?

A
  • Inform crew: ‘Stopping’.
  • Retard both TLs to Idle.
  • Use maximum braking as required to stop the ac within the distance
    available.
  • Maintain directional control.
  • Once stationary, apply the parking brake unless airmanship dictates
    otherwise.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the PM Abort Duties?

A
  • Monitor the PF’s abort actions. Call out the groundspeed and stopping
    distance to go until assured of doing so.
  • Call ATC: ‘Callsign stopping’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the Post Abort Actions?

A

Inform the crew of the reason for the rejected takeoff then (should an
emergency evacuation not be necessary) action the following:

o FRCs. Are there any FRCs that need to be actioned?
o After Landing checks.
o Brake cooling time? The minimum Phenom brake cooling time is 50 mins;
however, iaw the POH (3-45-50) the ac must undergo an engineer
inspection after any RTO as damage to the landing gear, wheels, brakes,
or tyres may have occurred.
* If it is safe to do so, consider vacating the runway then inform ATC of your
intent using the NITS1 message format.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the standard climb speeds?

A

180kts to FL200, 200kts to FL300 then
M.55.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the One Engine Inoperative Climb procedure?

A

Once the Net Flight Path is complete,
continue to climb at VFS with CON/CLB thrust set until all obstacles have been cleared.
After reaching a safe altitude, a climb at VFS+10kts can be employed to improve ac controllability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the Performance Climb speeds?

A

If operating with a ForeFlight Navlog (eg joining airways) a performance climb of 200kts to FL300 should be used, then M.55.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the maximum speed
for turning a CAT B?

A

165 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should be checked on the pressurisation climb checks?

A
  • Cabin altitude and rate of climb.
  • Differential pressure indications.
  • Switch positions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When should windshield 1 & 2 be on?

A

When climbing above FL150, or whenever fogging exists on the windshields, WSHLD 1 and 2 should be set to ON.
If necessary, set the Cockpit Fan
switch to HI position to avoid fog on the cockpit side windows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What Radar service should you be under outside CAS?

A

Phenom crews should operate under a Traffic Service (or higher)for all trg activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

To preclude avoidable RAs during climb or descent when flying in CAS, or when traffic dictates, the final 1000ft to any cleared level should be flown at…

A

1500ft/min or less.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the standard cruise technique?

A

Long Range cruise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Long Range Cruise (LRC)?

A

LRC gives the best compromise of speed and range.

Set the N1% for the given FL and ac weight using the Ready Reckoner at Annex L.

If conditions differ from ISA, the POH or Rapid Planning Document (RPD) must be consulted and a performance check
should be completed in the cruise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Max Speed Cruise (MSC)?

A

MSC offers the shortest flight time but at the expense of increased fuel usage. Caution is required at lower altitudes, as
VMO can easily be exceeded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is an overview of the Drift Down Procedure?

A

In the event of an engine failure during the cruise (or an in flight engine shutdown) the drift-down procedure is to be employed to ensure that altitude loss is minimised. Where terrain clearance may become an issue, ac cdrs should alter track to minimise risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is the Drift down procedure flown?

A
  • PF: Select CON/CLB on the operating engine.
  • PF: Maintain level until a nominal drift down speed is achieved (140-130kts).
  • PM: Calculate an accurate drift down speed and OEI altitude iaw the
    RPD/POH.
  • PF: Set the Alt Sel to the calculated altitude and select FLC on reaching the
    calculated drift down speed
35
Q

In the event of the drift down procedures at higher cruising altitudes the ac may slow rapidly towards the stalling speed, what must you do?

A

Rapid selection of Alt Sel and FLC will be required to initiate the descent.

36
Q

What is Phenom’s normal descent profile?

A

Phenom descent performance data is based on aM0.68/250kts profile (max 3000ft/min) using thrust as required, although other descent profiles are often used. Unless briefed otherwise, the ‘standard’ descent profile is 200kts, TLs at idle.

37
Q

What is the Phenom’s Emergency Descent Mode EDM?

A

EDM is armed when ac pressure altitude is
greater than 25,000ft with AP engaged. It is automatically activated with the CAB
ALTITUDE HI warning CAS message and will operate iaw the POH.

38
Q

The ac cdr is responsible for separation from terrain at all times except when in
receipt of a ….?

A

Radar Control Service

39
Q

What is the process for calculating SALT?

A
  • For route planning, terrain and obstructions within 30nm of the planned track must be considered.
  • For terminal procedures, the published minimum sector altitudes (MSA) should
    be used.
  • Both pilots should display synthetic terrain for all operation below safety
    altitude.

SVS is intended to be used as an aid to situational awareness only.

Use of SVS as primary information to navigate, or to avoid terrain, is prohibited.

40
Q

Descent below SALT is
prohibited unless either:

A
  • In visual contact with the surface.
  • Let down by means of an approved radio or radar terminal approach procedure provided by ATC units.
  • Compelled to do so in an emergency.
41
Q

At what height should the stabilised call be made?

A

The ‘stabilised’ declaration should be made by the PF between heights 400ft and 200ft above touchdown when in the visual circuit, and by 200ft on other approaches.

42
Q

In order to be ‘stabilised’, the ac must be:

A
  • On the runway centreline.
  • On the desired approach path.
  • Appropriate trim in all three axes.
  • Established in the briefed landing configuration.
  • At VREF - VREF +20kts with a stable thrust setting
43
Q

What should you do if not stabilised by 200ft?

A

The approach should be discontinued and go around.

44
Q

What are the Final Checks once ATC have provided clearance?

A
  • Clearance. Is appropriate.
  • ALT SEL. Is set and appropriate
  • Checks. All checklists have been completed
45
Q

What is the Final Turn Speed?

A

The min speed for the final turn is VREF F3 +15kts and applies until wings level at the 400ft point. This is to be bugged as VAP for ease of reference.

46
Q

What is the Hand Position During Final Approach?

A

When on short finals, the PF should have
one hand on the control column and the other hand on the TLs, where possible. This will minimise the risk of TL mishandling and allow for a timely go-around execution.

47
Q

What is the approach cat for the phenom?

A

CAT B

48
Q

Can the Approach CAT be changed?

A

The ac cdr has the discretion to move the ac into a higher category when circumstances dictate a significantly higher or lower approach speed than normal.

49
Q

What speed is to be used for a missed approach?

A

To comply with APCat B, a 150kts climb
speed is to be used for a missed approach, until the point where a new approach,
holding or a return to en-route flight is initiated.

50
Q

When should Constant Descent Final Approach (CDFA) Technique be used?

A

All 2D (Non-Precision) approaches flown in the ac should be flown using the CDFA technique and flown to a Derived Decision Altitude/Height (DDA/H).

The DDA/H is to be the appropriate MDA/H + 50ft.

The lateral part of the missed approach procedure must be flown via the MAPt unless otherwise stated on the TAP.

51
Q

What are the circling approach minima criteria?

A

Approaches to circle should be flown CDFA to the published MDA/H circling minima; there is no requirement to add 50ft to produce a DDA/H.

52
Q

When the AP is engaged for an approach, the PF is to have at least one hand on the pilot yoke below what height?

A

1000ft agl.

53
Q

When must altimeters be checked on an instrument approach?

A

1000ft AGL
If operating on QNH, the approach brief must include the altitude (nearest 100ft) at which this check is to be made.

54
Q

What are the Wingstab Performance Considerations?

A

An approach and landing with WingStab ON, requires a significantly greater LDA and higher VREF.

However, a transition to WingStab OFF prior to landing will enable a significantly shorter field performance.

55
Q

What are the weight limitations on a Wingstab on approach?

A

At the commencement of the approach, the AUW must be less than or equal to the WingStab ON Climb Limited Weight (CLW).

56
Q

What are the weather limitations for a wingstab on approach?

A

o Either:

Cloud base is ≥500ft aal and clear of visible moisture below.

o Or:

Cloud base <500ft aal with OAT at 500ft aal of +3°C or greater. This
equates to an assumed TAT of +5°C or greater.

57
Q

What is the normal flap setting for landing?

A

The normal flap setting for a full-stop landing is FFULL, although the ac cdr retains the discretion to land with F3 should weather conditions, or other circumstances, dictate.

58
Q

Explain the process of a full stop landing from an Asymmetric approach

A

If the intention is to land (full stop) from a simulated asymmetric approach, crews are to use F3 Factored Landing Distance multiplied by 1.07 to determine the LDR.

59
Q

What is the tyre limiting speed?

A

139kts

60
Q

Explain the process of landing on a wet runway

A

To affect a safe landing on wet or slippery runways, conduct a positive landing to
ensure initial wheel spin-up and achieve wheel load as quickly as possible.

Lower the nose-wheel immediately after touchdown as this will decrease lift and increase main gear loading.

Apply smooth and symmetrical brake pressure (moderate-to-firm) and let the anti-skid do its job.

If no braking action is felt, aquaplaning may be the cause - maintain runway centreline and brake pressure until the ac is decelerated.

61
Q

Can you land on an Icy runway?

A

Landing on an icy runway should not be attempted unless the crosswind component is less than 10kts.

62
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

4480kgs

63
Q

What must be considered when carrying out an overweight landing?

A

Where possible, select the longest runway available and consider the runway slope, runway braking action and surface wind conditions.

64
Q

What is maximum rate of descent for an overweight landing?

A

The maximum rate
of descent is 300ft/min at touchdown.

65
Q

What are the LDA conditions required for a Touch and Go?

A

o DRY runway: LDA ≥ 4500ft / 1372m.
o WET runway: LDA ≥ 5200ft / 1585m.
o Tailwind component ≤ 5 kts.

66
Q

Explain the Touch and go procedures for a Simulated Asymmetric approach

A

If the intention is to T&G from a simulated asymmetric approach, the emergency scenario will terminate once the ac is on the runway with TLs at idle.

The PM is to ensure that during the ‘go’ element, both TLs are symmetrically advanced to TOGA and N1 indications are normal.

67
Q

Who has responsibility for setting the altimeter?

A

After any change to the altimeter setting, both pilots must compare altimeter readings. This check is initiated by the PM and acknowledged by the PF.

68
Q

When should altimeters be checked on a climb?

A

Altimeters should be checked at FL100/10,000ft and every 5,000ft above.

69
Q

When should altimeters be checked on a descent?

A

.Altimeter should be checked every 5,000ft above FL100/10,000ft and every 1000ft below. SALT should be acknowledged by the crew.

70
Q

What is the weather avoidance criteria?

A

Major weather returns, such as active CB cells, should be avoided
by at least 10nm.

71
Q

What are the TCAS TA Procedures?

A
  • PF: Place hands on the flying controls and be prepared to adjust the ac vector. This may also include deselecting the AP iot carry out avoiding action.

Assess the location of conflicting traffic via the MFD/PFD and provide guidance to the PM on where to lookout.

  • PM: Immediately assess which quadrant in which to look iot gain an early visual on
    the threat. Adjust lookout iaw the range and bearing as provided by the PF.
72
Q

What are the TCAS RA Procedures?

A
  • PF: Comply with all TCAS vector guidance (eg climb or descend).
  • PM: Immediately alert ATC of your vector change by ‘TCAS RA’. Make note of your
    current position and follow up the TCAS RA event with a DASOR on landing.
73
Q

What should you do following a TCAS RA?

A

PF should commence a return to the previous clearance and the PM should advise ATC by transmitting ‘clear of conflict, returning to (assigned clearance)’. Any amended clearance issued by ATC should be complied with.

74
Q

When can TA Only be selected?

A
  • During stalling exercises (iaw the HASELL checks).
  • As lead ac when flying in a formation.
  • In the visual circuit pattern.
75
Q

What is the equipment requirements for RVSM procedures?

A
  • Two ADC driven altimeters.
  • Autopilot.
  • Altitude hold.
  • Altitude selector and alerting system.
  • Transponder Mode S or Mode C altitude reporting
76
Q

What are the In-Flight Procedures and Height Monitoring Requirements for RVSM?

A
  • Immediately prior to entry into RVSM airspace the serviceability of the required equipment is to be confirmed, recording the delta between the altimeters on the
    NavLog.
  • Crews are to monitor the primary altimeters hourly and record the delta on the NavLog. The two altimeters must remain within +/- 200ft of each other.
  • Vertical Speed is to be reduced to 1500fpm when within 5nm and 2000ft of other ac.
  • During level offs the ac must not overshoot/undershoot by more than 150ft.
77
Q

What difficulties arise for Hot Weather procedures?

A

High ITT during engine starting;

overheating of brakes;
longer takeoff and landing runs;

reduced climb performance because of the lower density associated with hot air.

78
Q

Is flying in severe turbulence allowed?

A

Flight in severe turbulence is prohibited.

79
Q

What should you do if you inadvertently enter Severe Turbulence?

A

If severe turbulence conditions are inadvertently encountered a target speed of 180kts should be used to
vacate the conditions. This speed will minimise airframe stress associated with high gust loads, and also provide a safe margin above the stall.

80
Q

If storm penetration is unavoidable, what preparations should be made before entry?

A
  • Aim for an airspeed of 180kts iot minimise gust loading. The maximum speed is 230kts when below FL280 and 0.59M when operating above.
  • Set thrust for penetration and avoid large thrust variations. Set trim for target speed
    and do not change it.
  • Secure loose articles and fasten harnesses and seatbelts.
  • Select all ice protection equipment ON.
81
Q

What is Pilot incapacitation?

A

Incapacitation is defined as any physiological or psychological condition which adversely affects flight crew performance in flight.

82
Q

What are two categories of incapacitation?

A

Obvious Incapacitation
Subtle Incapacitation

83
Q

What is Obvious Incapacitation?

A

Frequently sudden, usually prolonged
and usually results in a complete loss of operating function; by definition, it is immediately apparent to the remaining flight crew member(s).

84
Q

What is Subtle Incapacitation?

A

Frequently partial in nature and often
transient (for periods of seconds or minutes). It presents a significant operational hazard because it is difficult for the other crew member(s) to detect. The affected pilot may look well and be conscious, but with their brain only functioning partially. They may be unaware
of, or incapable of assessing the consequence of their condition.

85
Q

What is the ‘Two Communication Rule’?

A

Crew members should have a very high degree of suspicion of a subtle incapacitation whenever a pilot does not respond appropriately to two verbal communications, or responds inappropriately to any verbal communication, especially when associated with the expected flight profile.

86
Q

What are the actions if Incapacitation is suspected?

A

Take control of the aircraft

Take care of the incapacitated pilot

Reorganise the flight deck

Declare an emergency

87
Q
A

Phenom Info (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions