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Phenom Info > MEPT Avionics & Instruments Revision Questions V2.0 > Flashcards

MEPT Avionics & Instruments Revision Questions V2.0 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the automatic reversion for the Garmin display units when PFD 1 fails?

A

The MFD mode is reversionary (it becomes a PFD with engine indication system included) and the PFD 2
mode remains normal.

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2
Q

What is the automatic reversion for the Garmin display units when the MFD fails?

A

PFD 1 and PFD 2 modes are reversionary (they include engine indication system)

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3
Q

What is the automatic reversion for the Garmin display units when PFD 2 fails?

A

PFD 1 and the MFD remain in normal mode.

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4
Q

Which components of the Garmin Prodigy EFIS normally provide data for display of ASI, Mach, altimeter,
VSI and temperature on PFD 1 and PFD 2 respectively?

A

Air Data Computer (ADC) 1 for PFD 1 and ADC 2 for PFD 2.

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5
Q

Which components of the Garmin Prodigy EFIS provide data for the display of attitude, turn rate, turn
coordination and heading on the PFDs?

A

Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) 1 (normally to PFD 1) and AHRS 2 (normally to PFD 2).

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6
Q

When the MFD is in reversionary mode, which components of the Garmin Prodigy EFIS provide data for
the primary flight instrument indications?

A

ADC 1 and AHRS 1.

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7
Q

If PFD 1 fails, what other avionics equipment also indicates as FAIL (red X).

A

GIA 1 (which includes COM 1, NAV 1, GPS 1, AFCS/FD 1) and also XPDR, TCAS, RADALT and DME which
all interface to GIA 1.

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8
Q

Which components of the Garmin Prodigy EFIS process the data that gives indications for aircraft
systems and engine instruments?

A

Garmin Engine/Airframe Units (GEA 1, 2 & 3).

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9
Q

When the MFD is in reversionary mode (i.e. it becomes a PFD), which components of the Garmin Prodigy
EFIS provide data for the primary flight instrument indications?

A

ADC 1 and AHRS 1.

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10
Q

Which display unit failure does NOT result in any loss of other avionics or data sources?

A

Failure of PFD 2

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11
Q

In addition to the PFDs, which other systems/components use ADC 1 and ADC 2 outputs?

A

ADC outputs are used by the Transponder, the AFCS, the on-side AHRS. ADC 1 outputs data to the
FADEC 1b, GIA 1 and MFD (when in reversionary mode).
ADC 2 interfaces with GIA 2 and FADEC 2b but not the MFD.

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12
Q

Which components of the Garmin Prodigy EFIS contain solid state 3 axis rate sensors and 3 axis
accelerometers, 2 axis tilt sensors and 2 temperature sensors?

A

AHRS 1 and 2.

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13
Q

In the event of both AHRS failing, how do the PFDs receive attitude information?

A

The PFDs revert to ATT STBY with information coming from the IESI via the data concentrator and HSDB.

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14
Q

Why does GIA 1 interface with the IESI?

A

So that the IESI can utilise NAV 1 receiver for VOR/ILS navigation or approach

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15
Q

Which avionics components interface to the Garmin Prodigy EFIS via the Data Concentrator Unit and
then the SAT Wx Rx using avionics HSDB to connect to the MFD and then the PFDs?

A

The ADF receiver, the Cockpit Voice and Data Recorder, the Emergency Location Transmitter (ELT) and
the Weather Radar.

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16
Q

How can the flight crew manually switch the PFDs/MFD into reversionary modes in the event of
automatic reversionary switching due to PFD or MFD failure?

A

By pressing the DISPLAY BACKUP buttons on the audio panels.

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17
Q

What is the minimum height of obstacles that are displayed in the Synthetic Vision System on the PFD?

A

200 feet agl.

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18
Q

What is indicated by the red and white ‘barber pole’ in the media below? What is indicated by the
magenta bar on the right hand side?

A

The red and white barber pole shows Vmo/Mmo (overspeed) for the current aircraft configuration.
The magenta bar is the airspeed trend vector which extends to the airspeed in 6 seconds based on
current acceleration or deceleration.

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19
Q

What speed after take-off are the take-off speeds disabled/removed from the ASI display?

A

Above 160 kts.

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20
Q

What are the tuning mode options for the Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)?

A

NAV 1, NAV 2 or HOLD

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21
Q

How is the format of the Flight Director command bar configured (between single cue or cross-pointer)?

A

Switching between each format is via the MFD ‘AUX’ page group, sub-page ‘SYSTEM SET UP’.

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22
Q

What is the maximum radar height above ground level that the RADALT reading is displayed?

A

2500 feet.

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23
Q

How does the RADALT sensitivity vary from least to most sensitive in respect of height above the
ground?

A

It is more sensitive as the height above the ground decreases from +/- 15 ft between 1500-2500ft to +/-
5 ft between 0 and 200 ft.

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24
Q

What happens to the RADALT indication when the radar height above the ground is at or below the
RADALT minimums set in the TMR/REFs function?

A

The readout is displayed in yellow instead of green.

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25
When the Messages Window is open, what happens when the trigger condition for a message no longer exists and what happens if a new message is generated or the state of a displayed message changes?
When a trigger condition for a message no longer exists, it ‘greys out’ and with the window open a new message does not display automatically but causes the ‘MSG’ softkey to flash again and on pressing it again, the new message(s) are displayed.
26
Which aircraft systems have dedicated synoptic pages and which page shows hydraulic system pressures?
Dedicated system synoptic pages are provided for the Environmental Control System (ECS), the Electrical System, the Fuel System and the Ice Protection System. Hydraulic system pressures are displayed on the SYS-STATUS page.
27
Which MFD page group or groups gives access to the following sub-pages or information: a. Weather Radar. b. TCAS display. c. Information about airports, NDBs and VORs. d. Weight data e. System Set Up. f. GPS status
a. The MAP page group. b. The MAP page group. c. The WPT and NRST page groups. d. The AUX page group. e. The AUX page group. f. The AUX page group.
28
What are the options for MAP-NAVIGATION MAP orientation?
North up, Track up, Desired Track up and Heading up.
29
What communications (radio) equipment and what navigation equipment is the Phenom T Mk1 fitted with?
2 x VHF COM transceivers, 1 x UHF COM transceiver 2 x VHF NAV receivers (VOR/ILS), 1 x DME transceiver, 1 x ADF receiver, 2 x GPS receivers and 1 x Marker Beacon receiver.
30
What selections are made on the audio panel to in order to transmit on the VHF radios and UHF radio?
COM 1 MIC to transmit on VHF 1 radio, COM 2 MIC to transmit on VHF 2 radio and COM 3 MIC to transmit on the UHF radio.
31
What are the functions of the audio panel buttons DME, ADF, NAV 1 and NAV 2?
They select audio from the associated navigation receiver for ident of the correct beacon.
32
What happens if PA is selected on the audio panel when a VHF or UHF radio transmitter was previously selected?
The previously selected radio transmitter is automatically deselected and is reselected again when PA is deselected.
33
What is the difference between selections of COM 1 MIC and COM 1?
COM 1 MIC selects selects the VHF 1 radio transmitter and receiver whereas COM 1 only selects the VHF 1 radio receiver (listen only).
34
What is the purpose of the audio panel keys NAV 1, NAV 2, ADF and DME?
They select audio to the pilot’s headset for the associated navigation receiver in order to ‘ident’ the navigation aid/beacon the equipment is tuned to.
35
What are the possible COM CONFIG (frequency spacing) settings and which setting provides the most channels?
COM CONFIG can be either 25kHz or 8.33kHz; the latter provides the most channels (3040 vs 760)
36
Which avionics radios use a frequency range of 118.000 to 136.990 MHz and which avionics radios use a frequency range of 108.00 to 117.95 MHz?
COM 1 and COM 2 operate on the frequency range of 118.000 to 136.990 MHz (VHF) and NAV 1 and NAV 2 operate on the frequency range of 108.00 to 117.95 MHz.
37
What is the frequency range of the UHF radio?
225.000 to 399.975 MHz
38
What does a setting of ‘GD’ and ‘MN’ signify on the UHF controller?
It signifies that the Guard frequency (243.000 MHz) and the Main frequency (the set/displayed frequency or channel/stud) are each being scanned by the UHF receiver. Scanning stops if a transmission in received on either frequency or when transmitting on the Main frequency.
39
Apart from the Mode S transponder itself failing, which other avionics component(s) failures will result in loss of transponder operation?
Failure of PFD 1 or GIA 1.
40
The GTX 33 is an enhanced Mode S transponder which sends downlinked aircraft parameters to air traffic control stations. These parameters include TAS, IAS, GS, Mach, vertical speed, true and mag heading, turn rate, roll angle, altitude and GPS position. What other parameters are also downlinked which are settings made by the pilot?
Flight id/callsign (set in TMR/REFs on the PFD) and Selected Altitude (ALT SEL on the AFCS control unit).
41
What is the minimum number of satellite signals that the GPS receivers need for accurate 3D navigation?
4
42
What is the principle used in VOR magnetic bearing determination?
Phase comparison of the two signals transmitted by the VOR beacon.
43
How does Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measure the aircraft’s range from a DME beacon and what is the geometry of the actual range measured?
DME range geometry is slant range measured by a transponder based principle where UHF line of sight transmission from the aircraft interrogates the DME beacon which replys to the aircraft and the time from transmission to receiving the reply enables range to be calculated.
44
What other types of navigation aid are DME beacons typically located with?
VOR beacons and ILS
45
DME operates on UHF frequencies (962-1213 MHz) but how is the DME transceiver tuned in the Phenom Garmin avionics?
The DME is tuned by pairing it with a VHF NAV frequency (either VOR or ILS) and the UHF frequency for DME co-located with the VOR/ILS is automatically selected but only the VHF NAV frequency is displayed in the DME information window.
46
What type of navigation beacon does the aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment use to indicate bearing to the beacon?
Non-Directional Beacons (NDBs) or Locater Beacons.
47
What is the frequency range of NDB/Locater Beacons?
200 to 1800 kHz (LF/MF).
48
What is the indication on the Phenom’s Garmin avionics display(s) when GPS position cannot be determined?
The system enters into Dead-Reckoning mode which is indicated by ‘DR’ in yellow over the aircraft symbol on the MFD Navigation Map and also on the HSI on each PFD.
49
What is the level of protection provided if your own aircraft is TCAS II equipped and the conflicting traffic is equipped as follows:
a. Mode A Transponder b. Mode A/C Transponder with no altitude reports. c. Mode C or Mode S Transponder. d. TCAS 1. e. TCAS II. a. Not detected. b. TA without altitude. c. TA and RA. d. TA and RA. e. TA and coordinated RA.
50
TCAS II generates two types of alert, TA and RA; what is the time thresholds for closest point of approach when a TA is triggered and when an RA is triggered?
TA = 20-48 seconds and RA = 15-35 seconds.
51
What 3 avionics or instrument failures will cause TCAS II to also fail?
Failure of the RADALT, Mode S Transponder and input from the ADC/barometric altimeter.
52
What alerts are unavailable if conflicting traffic has a closure speed of over 1200kts or vertical rates of over 10,000 ft/minute?
No Tas or Ras are generated.
52
What type of manoeuvre is permitted in response to a TA?
The pilot should not manoeuvre in response to a TA.
53
How soon should a pilot respond to a Resolution Advisory (RA)?
Within 5 seconds.
54
What are the ALT RNG (altitude range) options that can be set on the Phenom TCAS II system?
Above, Normal, Below and Unrestricted.
55
What are the 2 options for TCAS II display of altitude information about other aircraft that are detected by the system?
Relative altitude or Absolute altitude
56
What is the altitude range for display of non-threat and proximity traffic if ABOVE is selected?
9900 ft above to 2700ft below.
57
What is the altitude range for display of non-threat and proximity traffic if NORMAL is selected?
2700ft above to 2700ft below
58
What is the vertical speed that should be flown when a climb or descend (“CLIMB, CLIMB!” or “DESCEND, DESCEND!”) RA is generated?
1500 to 2000 feet per minute.
59
What is the vertical speed that should be flown when an increase climb or increase descent (“INCREASE CLIMB, INCREASE CLIMB!” or “INCREASE DESCENT, INCREASE DESCENT!”) RA is generated?
2500 to 3000 feet per minute.
60
What height (agl) is “INCREASE DESCENT” RA inhibited?
1550ft agl +/- 100ft.
61
What height (agl) is “DESCEND, DESCEND!” RA inhibited?
1100ft agl +/-100ft.
62
What height (agl) are all RAs inhibited?
1000ft agl +/- 100ft
63
What height (agl) are all TCAS aural alerts inhibited?
500ft agl +/-100ft.
64
What are the categories of of Crew Alerting System (CAS) messages?
Warnings, Cautions and Advisories.
65
Which top level PFD softkey becomes the master warning or master caution indication when the relevant CAS message is triggered?
The ‘MSG’ softkey.
66
What is the maximum number of CAS messages that can be displayed at one time and what happens if there are more than this limit?
Up to 14 messages can be displayed at one time; if there are more than this a ‘CAS’ softkey becomes available (between SYSTEM and SENSOR softkeys) to allow scrolling of the message list and viewing of the messages in excess of the 14 limit.
67
Some CAS messages are inhibited during flight phases such as take-off, approach and landing; after take-off, when does inhibition cease?
Inhibition ceases as the aircraft climbs through 400ft (based on the LFE input)
68
What are the aural alerts for warnings and cautions?
Aural alerts for warnings are a triple chime every 3 seconds and aural alerts for cautions are a single chime every 5 seconds.
69
What is the definition of a CFIT accident?
An airworthy aircraft, under pilot control, is unintentionally flown into the ground, a mountain, body of water or an obstacle.
70
Which system has made the largest difference in preventing CFIT?
TAWS.
71
What is the difference between GPWS and TAWS?
TAWS has a forward-looking element whereas GPWS relies on the RADALT only.
72
What 4 information inputs does TAWS require to operate?
Valid SATNAV (GPS) 3D Position Valid RADALT height above terrain Valid Digital Terrain/Obstacle/Airfield Elevation Database Valid Flap and Landing Gear Position
73
What colour does TAWS display terrain/obstacles above or within 100ft below the a/c altitude?
Red.
74
What colour does TAWS display terrain/obstacles between 100ft and 1000ft below the a/c altitude?
Yellow.
75
What aural command is always issued with a TAWS Warning alert?
Pull up.
76
What height does the radalt operate between?
0-2500ft
77
What aural warning does the crew hear if the a/c descends below the set radalt minimums?
MINIMUMS x3
78
In what phase of flight do the majority of CFIT accidents occur?
During the approach and landing phases.
79
What type of TAWS alerts, issued as cautions or warnings include Reduced Terrain Clearance (RTC), Reduced Obstacle Clearance (ROC), Imminent Terrain Impact (ITI) and Imminent Obstacle Impact?
Forward Looking Terrain Alerts.
80
What type of TAWS alert can be issued when the aircraft is below 700ft agl and within 15nms of the destination airfiled and until 0.5nms from the runway threshold? (Aural alert “TOO LOW TERRAIN”)
Premature Descent Alert.
81
What type of TAWS alert triggers the caution voice alert and MFD map page pop up of “SINK RATE”?
Excessive Descent Rate
82
What type of TAWS alert can be activated when the aircraft is within 5nm of the departure airfield, less than 700ft agl, within 110 deg of the departure heading and the aircraft is configured for take-off? What is the voice alert given?
Negative Climb Rate after Take-Off. Voice alert: “DON’T SINK”
83
Altitude Voice Callout (VCO) alerts are based on the height above terrain or the height above the nearest runway threshold, within what range of an airfield are the alerts based on height above the nearest runway threshold?
5nms.
84
What PFD/MFD annunciations or pop-up alerts are given for VCO alerts?
None.
85
Excessive Closure Rate (ECR) cautions and warnings are issued based on height above terrain, gear and flap configuration and what other parameter?
Closure rate in feet per minute
86
What factors, apart from the aircraft being too low with respect to terrain, are also criteria which will trigger Flight into Terrain (FIT) alerts?
Gear or flaps are not configured for landing and aircraft above or below the recommended approach speed.
87
FIT alerts can occur during take-off or go-around if the aircraft’s height (agl) is too close to rising terrain, how is this being determined?
By the RADALT (RADALT height loss vs height above terrain).
88
Excessive Below Glideslope/Glidepath Deviation (GSD) alerts are triggered when the aircraft is significantly below the glideslope/glidepath, within 5nm of the runway (but greater than 1000ft from the runway if GPS position is available) and what other conditions need to be met?
An ILS approach or GPS approach (with vertical guidance) is active and vertical guidance indications are displayed. Aircraft altitude is below 1000ft agl. Landing gear is down and locked.
89
How can nuisance FIT alerts based on flap position be disabled on approaches where flap extension is not desired or is intentionally delayed?
By selecting FLAP OVR softkey on the TAWS-A MFD page or selecting the same option by pressing MENU or by pressing FLAP OVRD on the TAWS panel on the left seat cockpit panel.
90
What are the 3 main components of the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)?
The Autopilot, the Yaw Damper and the Flight Director
91
Which major components of the Garmin Prodigy G1000 avionics system are interfaced directly to the elevator, aileron and rudder servos to provide automatic flight control?
GIA 1 and GIA 2
92
Along with the Flight Management System, which sensors and navigation receivers are interfaced to the Flight Director in order for it to provide commands to the autopilot and yaw damper or Flight Director indications to the pilot?
ADC 1 & 2, AHRS 1 & 2, the GPS receivers and the NAV (VOR/ILS) receivers
93
What selection can the pilot make which overides the autopilot servos to allow manual manoeuvring for pitch and roll without any effect on the yaw damper?
The Control Wheel Steering (CWS) button
94
What is the indication of which Flight Director is active (coupled to the autopilot)?
The green arrow in the FMA area.
95
What are the AFCS lateral modes?
Roll (ROL), heading (HDG), GPS, VOR, localiser (LOC), VOR approach (VAPP) and back course (BC)
96
What are the AFCS vertical modes?
Pitch (PIT), altitude hold (ALT), altitude select (ALTS), flight level change (FLC), vertical speed (VS), vertical nav (VPTH), take-off (TO) and go around (GA).
97
What are the AFCS basic modes which are selected from ‘standby’ by the initial press of the flight director button?
ROL and PIT
98
Which AFCS lateral mode(s) and vertical mode(s) become active immediately on selection and are never armed modes?
ROL and HDG lateral modes and PIT, FLC, VS, TO and GA vertical modes.
99
Which button on the AFCS panel allows switching of the active flight director between FD 1 and FD 2?
The CPL button (couple)
100
What selections will cause the FD to turn on automatically? Pressing the TOGA button and selecting (engaging) the AP button.
Pressing the TOGA button and selecting (engaging) the AP button.
101
What happens if sensor (ADC or AHRS) information is lost or navigation data is lost when a HDG, NAV, APR or vertical flight director mode was active before the loss of information?
The active FD mode flashes yellow, an aural “Flight Director” warning is given and the FD reverts to basic mode for the affected axis (ROL or PIT).
102
What are the roll and pitch attitude limits for engaging the autopilot?
+/- 45 deg roll and +/- 25 deg pitch.
103
What actions are considered normal autopilot disengagement?
Pressing Quick Disconnect buttons, pressing TOGA button and pressing the AP button
104
What are the causes of abnormal autopilot disengagement?
AP failure, selecting BACKUP pitch trim, either half of pilot or co-pilot manual pitch trim switch is pressed or stall warning is active.
105
When ROL lateral mode is actived, what bank angle is the resulting bank angle?
If activated with less than 6 deg AOB, wings level is achieved and between 6 and 30 deg AOB, the existing AOB is maintained.
106
What is the purpose of the BANK button?
It toggles turn angles of bank between 15 or 30 deg
107
What conditions will cause Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) to arm?
The aircraft is flying higher than 25,000 ft, the autopilot is engaged and a CABIN ALTITUDE HI CAS message is triggered.
108
Which Flight Director modes become active as a result of EDM and what is automatically selected for HDG SEL, ALT SEL and SPD SEL?
HDG and FLC flight director modes become active, HDG SEL is set 90 deg left of current heading, ALT SEL is set to 15,000 ft and SPD SEL is set to VMO/MMO
109
What version TCAS II Software are we on?
7.1

Phenom Info (34 decks)

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