MEPT Aircraft Systems 2 Revision Questions V2.1 Flashcards

1
Q

The Air management System comprises which 3 systems?

A

Pneumatic System, Cabin Pressurisation and Control System (CPCS) and
Environmental Control System (ECS)

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2
Q

The Pressure regulation and shutoff valves (PRSOV) regulate bleed air to what
pressure?

A

28psig(+/-3)

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3
Q

What regulates the bleed air pressure from the engine?

A

The pressure regulating and shutoff valve

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4
Q

What is the a/c ceiling limits with both bleed supplies and a single bleed supply
available?

A

41,000ft and 31,000ft

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5
Q

What effect does the MFD being in reversionary mode have on the pressurisation
system?

A

The system must be controlled manually by the crew

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6
Q

When controlling the pressurisation manually how long should the pilot operate the
UP/DOWN switch?

A

0.5 secs

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7
Q

What happens when the DUMP button is pressed?

A

The outflow valve opens and the recirculation fans are turned off

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8
Q

What is the cabin altitude depressurisation limits in AUTO and Manual DUMP?

A

AUTO – 12,000ft, manual DUMP – 14,500ft

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9
Q

What is the normal operating differential pressure range between cabin interior and
outside?

A

-0.1 to +8.4psi

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10
Q

How is ram air used in the Phenom?

A

To supply fresh air to the cockpit/cabin and to decrease the bleed air temperature in the
heat exchanger

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11
Q

Where is the oxygen cylinder located?

A

In the nose baggage compartment

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12
Q

What happens when the oxygen supply control knob is selected to PAX AUTO?

A

Enables automatic deployment of passenger oxygen masks when cabin pressure
altitude is above 14 700 ft (+300/-300 ft)

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13
Q

What does a white colour indicate on the oxygen display MFD Systems Synoptic page?

A

Oxygen pressure is lower than 1590 PSI and higher than or equal to 730 PSI

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14
Q

What is the purpose of the oxygen supply handle on the oxygen control panel?

A

To open and close the oxygen cylinder regulator valve

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15
Q

What happens when the oxygen supply control knob is selected to PAX OVRD?

A

Immediate deployment of passenger masks regardless of cabin altitude, if the cable
actuator is in the PUSHED position

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16
Q

Above what pressure will the EICAS display a green oxygen pressure?

A

1590psi

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17
Q

With AUTO selected on the Hydraulic System Panel, what system pressure range is
maintained by the hydraulic pump?

A

2400 – 3000 ± 50 PSI

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18
Q

On the MFD System Status Synoptic page, what colour does the readout and pointer
become when the hydraulic pressure drops below 1500psi?

A

Yellow

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19
Q

At what pressure does the Emergency Brake Accumulator Pressure turn yellow on the
synoptic page?

A

1800psi

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20
Q

Where are the hydraulic power pack and reservoir located?

A

Behind the larger of the 2 forward hatches on the right-hand side of the a/c

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21
Q

The electric cooling fan operates when?

A

Weight On Wheels (WOW) is made, Nose gear down and locked, 1 generator online

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22
Q

What is the effect if the hydraulic pump is selected to ON?

A

The pump runs continuously, plus, the electric motor thermal cut-out and hydraulic oil
over temp protections are lost

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23
Q

Where is the electric motor cooling fan located?

A

Behind the small panel on the right-hand side of the nose

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24
Q

What is the function of the shimmy damper?

A

It moderates rapid left-to-right wheel movement, at high taxy speeds

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25
What is the maximum steering angle of the nosewheel using rudder pedals?
18.3°
26
Below what speed is anti-skid protection deactivated?
10kts
27
What is the drop out speed for anti-lock protection, and why?
30kts, to allow differential braking for steering
28
The anti-skid system is unavailable when which part of the braking system is being used?
The emergency/parking brake system
29
When is the touchdown protection system deactivated on both wheels?
Speed greater than 35kts or 3secs after WOW has sensed the ground
30
How many actuations of the emergency/parking brake does the accumulator allow?
6
31
Which 2 safety components are fitted to the main undercarriage wheels?
Fusible plugs and wheel speed transducers.
32
What is the maximum undercarriage VLO?
180 KIAS (Normal) / 250 KIAS (Emergency)
33
How is the landing gear held in place when retracted?
Hydraulic pressure
34
The crew can cancel a landing gear aural warning alert at which flap positions?
Flaps at 0 or 1
35
Where is the PBE located?
The PBE is located behind the co-pilots seat
36
How long will the oxygen cylinders supply last in normal use?
15 minutes
37
Where are the first aid kit and water barrier located?
In the lavatory cabinet
38
Where are the life preservers located?
They are located under all passenger and pilot seats and in the left arm compartment of the side-facing seat
39
Under normal conditions which position is the ELT switch in?
ARMED
40
How is the Emergency Door opened?
By pulling the internal handle and it should be thrown outwards to prevent obstruction in the a/c
41
What are the missing key words to correctly complete this sentence? The main door has _____ green latch and _____ green lock indications.
8 and 2
42
How is the red beacon light is turned on? When either ENG START/STOP switch is
set to the RUN or START position
43
How are the baggage compartment lights turned on and off?
The lights are activated by a press switch and they stay on for 5 minutes or until the door is closed
44
In the event of an electrical emergency which busbar supplies power to the dome light?
Emergency Bus
45
What does the inspection light illuminate?
The left wing leading edge
46
What is the minimum GPU voltage for battery charging?
27V
47
Between what voltages should the GPU operate to prevent the GCU isolating the external power source?
24.5V to 29V DC
48
What is the sequence in the cockpit to connect the GPU to the aircraft system, and start the engine?
Switch ON BATT 1 and BATT 2 Press the GPU button (AVAIL) to connect the GPU to the aircraft system Confirmation is given by the GPU button IN USE indication; the PFD displays the CAS Advisory Message, GPU CONNECTED When the engine has completed the start-up cycle, disconnect the GPU from the system by pushing the GPU switch again.
49
With one engine running, what is the effect of plugging the GPU into the a/c?
Nothing. The GPU cannot supply power to the a/c as the operating generator has priority
50
How long should be left between each engine start to allow the batteries recover some charge?
2 minutes
51
When the pilot pushes the GPU switch IN, which busbar is the GPU connected to and what are the indications in the cockpit?
Central Bus, GPU switch indicates IN USE(green), ELEC synoptic shows GPU symbol green with green line to Central Bus.
52
What action should the pilot take if the BATT DISCHARGE CAS message is triggered during ground operation with GPU connected?
BATT 1 & 2 SWITCHES OFF
53
Which busbars have a power supply in the electrical emergency configuration?
HOT BATT BUS 1 & 2, EMERG BUS and CENTRAL BUS
54
What are the power supply/generation requirements in order for the SHED BUS to be energised?
A GPU must be connected or BOTH generators must be on-line.
55
In the event of total loss of the main power generating system how long does the battery system guarantee power for and which busbar does it power?
45mins, EMERG BUS
56
What electrical system action should be taken if there is a prolonged wait to start the first engine when starting using batteries power only?
Select ELEC EMER to conserve batteries voltage as only the EMER BUS is energised
57
In normal operation which busbars does SG1 power?
DC BUS 1, EMERGENCY BUS and HOT BATT BUS 1
58
In normal operation which busbars does SG2 power?
DC BUS 2, CENTRAL BUS, SHED BUS and HOT BATT BUS 2
59
SHED BUS also provides DC power for which systems?
Air conditioning compressor, Audio/video entertainment system, Cabin evaporator fan, Compartment light, Toilet flush
60
What are the generator load limits in flight above/below 34 000 ft?
250 A/300 A
61