MEPT Aircraft Systems 2 Revision Questions V2.1 Flashcards

1
Q

The Air management System comprises which 3 systems?

A

Pneumatic System, Cabin Pressurisation and Control System (CPCS) and
Environmental Control System (ECS)

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2
Q

The Pressure regulation and shutoff valves (PRSOV) regulate bleed air to what
pressure?

A

28psig(+/-3)

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3
Q

What regulates the bleed air pressure from the engine?

A

The pressure regulating and shutoff valve

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4
Q

What is the a/c ceiling limits with both bleed supplies and a single bleed supply
available?

A

41,000ft and 31,000ft

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5
Q

What effect does the MFD being in reversionary mode have on the pressurisation
system?

A

The system must be controlled manually by the crew

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6
Q

When controlling the pressurisation manually how long should the pilot operate the
UP/DOWN switch?

A

0.5 secs

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7
Q

What happens when the DUMP button is pressed?

A

The outflow valve opens and the recirculation fans are turned off

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8
Q

What is the cabin altitude depressurisation limits in AUTO and Manual DUMP?

A

AUTO – 12,000ft, manual DUMP – 14,500ft

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9
Q

What is the normal operating differential pressure range between cabin interior and
outside?

A

-0.1 to +8.4psi

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10
Q

How is ram air used in the Phenom?

A

To supply fresh air to the cockpit/cabin and to decrease the bleed air temperature in the
heat exchanger

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11
Q

Where is the oxygen cylinder located?

A

In the nose baggage compartment

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12
Q

What happens when the oxygen supply control knob is selected to PAX AUTO?

A

Enables automatic deployment of passenger oxygen masks when cabin pressure
altitude is above 14 700 ft (+300/-300 ft)

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13
Q

What does a white colour indicate on the oxygen display MFD Systems Synoptic page?

A

Oxygen pressure is lower than 1590 PSI and higher than or equal to 730 PSI

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14
Q

What is the purpose of the oxygen supply handle on the oxygen control panel?

A

To open and close the oxygen cylinder regulator valve

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15
Q

What happens when the oxygen supply control knob is selected to PAX OVRD?

A

Immediate deployment of passenger masks regardless of cabin altitude, if the cable
actuator is in the PUSHED position

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16
Q

Above what pressure will the EICAS display a green oxygen pressure?

A

1590psi

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17
Q

With AUTO selected on the Hydraulic System Panel, what system pressure range is
maintained by the hydraulic pump?

A

2400 – 3000 ± 50 PSI

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18
Q

On the MFD System Status Synoptic page, what colour does the readout and pointer
become when the hydraulic pressure drops below 1500psi?

A

Yellow

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19
Q

At what pressure does the Emergency Brake Accumulator Pressure turn yellow on the
synoptic page?

A

1800psi

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20
Q

Where are the hydraulic power pack and reservoir located?

A

Behind the larger of the 2 forward hatches on the right-hand side of the a/c

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21
Q

The electric cooling fan operates when?

A

Weight On Wheels (WOW) is made, Nose gear down and locked, 1 generator online

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22
Q

What is the effect if the hydraulic pump is selected to ON?

A

The pump runs continuously, plus, the electric motor thermal cut-out and hydraulic oil
over temp protections are lost

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23
Q

Where is the electric motor cooling fan located?

A

Behind the small panel on the right-hand side of the nose

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24
Q

What is the function of the shimmy damper?

A

It moderates rapid left-to-right wheel movement, at high taxy speeds

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25
Q

What is the maximum steering angle of the nosewheel using rudder pedals?

A

18.3°

26
Q

Below what speed is anti-skid protection deactivated?

A

10kts

27
Q

What is the drop out speed for anti-lock protection, and why?

A

30kts, to allow differential braking for steering

28
Q

The anti-skid system is unavailable when which part of the braking system is being
used?

A

The emergency/parking brake system

29
Q

When is the touchdown protection system deactivated on both wheels?

A

Speed greater than 35kts or 3secs after WOW has sensed the ground

30
Q

How many actuations of the emergency/parking brake does the accumulator allow?

A

6

31
Q

Which 2 safety components are fitted to the main undercarriage wheels?

A

Fusible plugs and wheel speed transducers.

32
Q

What is the maximum undercarriage VLO?

A

180 KIAS (Normal) / 250 KIAS (Emergency)

33
Q

How is the landing gear held in place when retracted?

A

Hydraulic pressure

34
Q

The crew can cancel a landing gear aural warning alert at which flap positions?

A

Flaps at 0 or 1

35
Q

Where is the PBE located?

A

The PBE is located behind the co-pilots seat

36
Q

How long will the oxygen cylinders supply last in normal use?

A

15 minutes

37
Q

Where are the first aid kit and water barrier located?

A

In the lavatory cabinet

38
Q

Where are the life preservers located?

A

They are located under all passenger and pilot seats and in the left arm compartment of
the side-facing seat

39
Q

Under normal conditions which position is the ELT switch in?

A

ARMED

40
Q

How is the Emergency Door opened?

A

By pulling the internal handle and it should be thrown outwards to prevent obstruction in
the a/c

41
Q

What are the missing key words to correctly complete this sentence?
The main door has _____ green latch and _____ green lock indications.

A

8 and 2

42
Q

How is the red beacon light is turned on?
When either ENG START/STOP switch is

A

set to the RUN or START position

43
Q

How are the baggage compartment lights turned on and off?

A

The lights are activated by a press switch and they stay on for 5 minutes or until the
door is closed

44
Q

In the event of an electrical emergency which busbar supplies power to the dome light?

A

Emergency Bus

45
Q

What does the inspection light illuminate?

A

The left wing leading edge

46
Q

What is the minimum GPU voltage for battery charging?

A

27V

47
Q

Between what voltages should the GPU operate to prevent the GCU isolating the
external power source?

A

24.5V to 29V DC

48
Q

What is the sequence in the cockpit to connect the GPU to the aircraft system, and start
the engine?

A

Switch ON BATT 1 and BATT 2
Press the GPU button (AVAIL) to connect the GPU to the aircraft system
Confirmation is given by the GPU button IN USE indication; the PFD displays the CAS
Advisory Message, GPU CONNECTED
When the engine has completed the start-up cycle, disconnect the GPU from the
system by pushing the GPU switch again.

49
Q

With one engine running, what is the effect of plugging the GPU into the a/c?

A

Nothing. The GPU cannot supply power to the a/c as the operating generator has
priority

50
Q

How long should be left between each engine start to allow the batteries recover some
charge?

A

2 minutes

51
Q

When the pilot pushes the GPU switch IN, which busbar is the GPU connected to and
what are the indications in the cockpit?

A

Central Bus, GPU switch indicates IN USE(green), ELEC synoptic shows GPU symbol
green with green line to Central Bus.

52
Q

What action should the pilot take if the BATT DISCHARGE CAS message is triggered
during ground operation with GPU connected?

A

BATT 1 & 2 SWITCHES OFF

53
Q

Which busbars have a power supply in the electrical emergency configuration?

A

HOT BATT BUS 1 & 2, EMERG BUS and CENTRAL BUS

54
Q

What are the power supply/generation requirements in order for the SHED BUS to be
energised?

A

A GPU must be connected or BOTH generators must be on-line.

55
Q

In the event of total loss of the main power generating system how long does the battery
system guarantee power for and which busbar does it power?

A

45mins, EMERG BUS

56
Q

What electrical system action should be taken if there is a prolonged wait to start the
first engine when starting using batteries power only?

A

Select ELEC EMER to conserve batteries voltage as only the EMER BUS is energised

57
Q

In normal operation which busbars does SG1 power?

A

DC BUS 1, EMERGENCY BUS and HOT BATT BUS 1

58
Q

In normal operation which busbars does SG2 power?

A

DC BUS 2, CENTRAL BUS, SHED BUS and HOT BATT BUS 2

59
Q

SHED BUS also provides DC power for which systems?

A

Air conditioning compressor, Audio/video entertainment system, Cabin evaporator fan,
Compartment light, Toilet flush

60
Q

What are the generator load limits in flight above/below 34 000 ft?

A

250 A/300 A

61
Q
A