Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phenom Info > MEPT Scheduled Performance Revision Questions V2.0 > Flashcards

MEPT Scheduled Performance Revision Questions V2.0 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of Mean Aerodynamic Chord?

A

The chord of an imaginary rectangular aerofoil with the same area and aerodynamic
properties of the actual wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the definition of Centre of Gravity (CofG)?

A

This is the position where the mass of the airplane is considered concentrated for
balance purposes. It is normally referred to in terms of %MAC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is the Ramp Weight (RW) calculated?

A

Add the fuel weight to the Actual Zero Fuel Weight (AZFW).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MAC length of the Phenom?

A

1.640m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which items make up the Phenom aircraft payload?

A

Weight of occupants, baggage, and cabinet contents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the definition of Moment Arm in the Phenom weight and balance calculations?

A

The distance from the aircraft’s Datum to its Centre of Gravity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the definition of Aircraft Datum in the Phenom weight and balance calculations?

A

A plane perpendicular to the fuselage centerline from which all arm measurements are
taken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the length of the balance arm to the Leading Edge of the wing Mean
Aerodynamic Chord (LEMAC) in the Phenom T1?

A

5.325 m from the Airplane Datum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What comprises the Actual Zero Fuel Weight (AZFW)?

A

The Basic Empty Weight (BEW) plus actual payload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is metal fatigue?

A

The reduction of structural integrity under repeated cycles of stress due to the growth of
cracks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the maximum allowable probability of structural failure during an aircraft’s
planned life in its intended role?

A

1/1000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the definition of Stress on a structure?
The load force per unit of a structures cross-sectional area.

A

The load force per unit of a structures cross-sectional area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the definition of Strain on a structure?

A

The deformation per unit length in a material under stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of repeated stress is the main cause of fatigue damage, especially in the
lower skin of wings and lower wing spar booms?

A

Tensile stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the name of the graphical curve that illustrates the relationship between applied
alternating stress levels and the endurance to failure of a material?

A

S-N Curve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which design philosophy aims to establish a fixed structural lifetime during which no
significant fatigue damage will occur?

A

Safe life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which design philosophy aims to build with sufficient structural redundancy such that
any single point of failure will not lead to catastrophic loss?

A

Fail Safe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which aircraft design philosophy and maintenance procedure ensures cracks will be
detected long before they reach CCL?

A

Damage Tolerance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the aim of Scheduled Performance Planning?

A

To ensure that the space available for any manoeuvre always exceeds the space
required to complete the manoeuvre.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the performance classification of a multi-engine turbo-prop aircraft with a take-off weight under 5700kg and less than 9 passengers?

A

Perf Group B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which performance group do multi-engine turbo-jet passenger aircraft belong?

A

Perf Group A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the performance classification of a multi-piston-engine propeller aircraft with a take-off weight over 5700kg and carrying more than 9 passengers?

A

Perf Group C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the definition of Net or Factored performance?

A

Gross performance diminished by the amount considered necessary to allow for
various contingencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What defines an aircraft’s required take-off distance?

A

The ground run from the brake release point to lift off from the runway, plus the
distance for the initial climb to the regulated screen height.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the definition of Stopway?

A

A defined rectangular area at the end of and the same width as the runway, designated
as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned
take-off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the definition of Clearway?

A

A defined rectangular area either side of the centreline at the end of the runway, under
control of the airport authority, clear of any obstacles that would affect an aircraft’s initial
climb to its screen height.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the definition of TORA?

A

The available length of surface able to bear the weight of an aircraft during take-off.
Normally this is the length of the paved runway between the thresholds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the definition of TODA?

A

The combined length of the runway and clearway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the definition of ASDA?

A

The combined length of the stopway and runway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In SP planning what is the maximum value of TODA?

A

1.5 times TORA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which V speed is used to signify decision speed during take-off?

A

V1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the definition of VR?

A

The speed at which the pilot initiates rotation during the take-off ground run with the
intention of becoming airborne.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Perf A take-off screen height?

A

35 ft dry or 15 ft wet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the WAT limit?

A

The initial climb performance limit imposed by aircraft weight, pressure altitude and
static air temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the definition of balanced field?

A

TODA equals ASDA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is the headwind component factored for take-off calculations?

A

No more than 50% of the headwind component can be factored in the calculations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does V1 signify?

A

V1 is the speed above which the take-off must be continued in the event of a critical
engine failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why is V1 speed decreased when the runway is wet?

A

To increase stopping distance available following an abort on a wet runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What speed is the minimum limit for V1?

A

VMCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the field length deemed available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft
during take-off?

A

TORA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What speed must an aircraft achieve at screen height following a critical engine failure?

A

V2.

42
Q

What is the definition of VMBE?

A

The maximum speed on the ground from which the aircraft can be stopped within the
energy capabilities of the brakes.

43
Q

What speeds impose a maximum limit for V1?

A

VR or VMBE, whichever is least.

44
Q

At what point does the Take-Off Climb stage of Scheduled Performance planning
begin?

A

When the aircraft passes 35ft at the end of TODR.

45
Q

At which point in the flight does the Net Take-Off Flight Path (NTOFP) stage of SP
planning end?

A

When the aircraft attains a safe height of 1500 ft above surface datum.

46
Q

Which of the following terms would correctly express a % climb gradient?

A

(Height ÷ Distance) × 100.

47
Q

y what vertical distance must obstacles on the take-off flight path be cleared?

A

35ft or 50ft if bank angle is greater than 15°

48
Q

What is the maximum horizontal clearance of obstacles in the take-off flight path if the
aircraft has “good” navigation systems with track changes during the take-off climb less
than 15°?

A

300m either side of the take-off flight path.

49
Q

What is the maximum horizontal clearance of obstacles in the take-off flight path if the
aircraft has only basic radio navigation systems (NDB/VOR) with track changes during
the take-off climb greater than 15°?

A

900m either side of the take-off flight path.

50
Q

What is the maximum horizontal clearance of obstacles in the take-off flight path if the
aircraft has “good” navigation systems with track changes during the take-off climb flight
path greater than 15°?

A

600m either side of the take-off flight path.

51
Q

What is the maximum horizontal clearance of obstacles in the take-off flight path for an
aircraft with a wingspan in excess of 60m as it passes TODA?

A

90m either side of the take-off flight path.

52
Q

What is the maximum horizontal clearance of obstacles in the take-off flight path for an
aircraft with a wingspan less than 60m as it passes TODA?

A

½ Wingspan plus 30m either side of the take-off flight path.

53
Q

What does SP take-off climb stage planning ensure?

A

SP planning ensures that, following a critical engine failure, an aircraft’s net climb
gradient will enable it to clear all obstacles by at least 35ft during the take-off climb
stage.

54
Q

What factors define each segment of the Take-Off Climb?

A

The climb gradient changes when the aircraft changes configuration, speed or thrust.

55
Q

How many Segments are there in the Take-Off Climb stage of SP?

A

Up to six gradient segments, but usually four can be clearly identified for Perf A aircraft.

56
Q

What speed is an aircraft accelerated to in the third segment of the Take-Off Climb?

A

VFS.

57
Q

In the Phenom POH, which take-off climb segment gradients are given in the take-off
climb data tables?

A

Second segment net gradients to 400ft and 1500ft.

58
Q

Which obstacles should be considered relevant to the Take-Off Climb?

A

All obstacles within the defined Take-Off Climb obstacle domain.

59
Q

At what height above the airfield do standard noise abate procedures end?

A

3000ft.

60
Q

At what initial speed should Noise Abatement Procedures be flown in the Phenom T1?

A

V2 + 10kt with take-off flap set.

61
Q

Where does the En-Route Stage of SP planning begin and end for Perf A aircraft?

A

Begins at 1500ft above departure airfield datum and ends at 1500ft above destination
airfield.

62
Q

How is the best rate of climb achieved?

A

By climbing at a TAS that gives the best margin of power available over power required.

63
Q

What is the difference between absolute and service ceiling?

A

The absolute ceiling is the highest altitude achievable with the power available, at the
service ceiling an aircraft would still be able to achieve a rate of climb of about
300ft/min.

64
Q

Following an en-route engine failure in an aircraft with good navigation systems, what is
the required horizontal and vertical obstacle clearance during a drift-down descent?

A

2000ft vertical and 5nm horizontal.

65
Q

Following an en-route engine failure in an aircraft with good navigation systems, what is
the required horizontal and vertical obstacle clearance once the stabilized altitude is
reached?

A

1000ft vertical and 5nm horizontal.

66
Q

Following an engine failure En-route, at what speed and with what power set should an
aircraft be flown during a drift down to its stabilisation altitude?

A

Drift down speed with Max Continuous thrust set.

67
Q

What is the Phenom T1 normal descent speed and configuration as per POH?

A

250kt (Mach 0.68 above 30900 ft) with thrust at idle in minimum drag configuration.

68
Q

What does ETOPs stand for (CAA definition)?

A

Extended Range Twin Operations.

69
Q

What does it mean if an aircraft has a ETOPS180 capability?

A

That a twin-engine passenger aircraft is legally able to fly up to 180 minutes still-air
single-engine flight time from an appropriate en-route diversion airfield.

70
Q

What are the two steps in obtaining approval for ETOPs?

A

Type Approval and Operational Certification.

71
Q

What is the definition of an aircraft’s landing distance?

A

The horizontal distance from a point 50 ft above the runway threshold to the point on
the runway when the aircraft comes to a halt.

72
Q

When should runway slope be considered for LDR calculations?
.

A

Only a downhill (negative) slope is considered in determining LDR

73
Q

Can any approach be considered stable as long as ATC landing clearance is obtained?

A

No.

74
Q

Can any approach be considered stable as long as both pilots agree it is safe to continue?

A

No.

75
Q

Can any approach be considered stable as long as the final approach brief is completed after
landing?

A

No.

76
Q

Can any approach be considered stable as long as both pilots are in visual contact with the
runway?

A

No.

77
Q

What action should be taken if an approach is still unstable at the designated minimum height
above touchdown?

A

The pilots must initiate a go-around

78
Q

At what height does the landing stage of SP planning commence for Perf A aircraft?

A

1500 ft above the landing surface.

79
Q

In SP Landing planning, what target speed should be flown at the point 50ft above the runway
threshold?

A

VREF.

80
Q

What should the relationship be between an aircraft’s ACN and runway PCN if the runway is
strong enough to support the aircraft operations?

A

PCN must be greater than or equal to ACN.

81
Q

Can an aircraft be operated from a runway if its ACN is greater than the runway PCN?

A

Yes, if agreement is obtained from the airfield operating authority

82
Q

How is the tail wind component factored for landing distance calculations?

A

≥150% of the tail wind component.

83
Q

What is determined in calculating the Approach Climb Gradient?

A

The ability of an aircraft to safely execute a go-around on an engine-out approach in the given conditions.

84
Q

What speed is flown to maintain the required Approach Climb Gradient?

A

VAC.

85
Q

What is determined in calculating the Landing Climb Gradient?

A

The ability of an aircraft with all engines operating to safely execute a go-around from 50ft
above the threshold in the given conditions if the runway is blocked.

86
Q

What speed should be flown to maintain the required Landing Climb Gradient?

A

VREF (same speed as VLC).

87
Q

What is the principal landing hazard when operating large ME aircraft with a high eye-to-wheel
height?
y

A

If a visual aim point for landing is selected too close to the threshold the main landing
gear may touch down short of the runway

88
Q

By how much is the unfactored (gross) dry landing distance factored before checking that it is
less than or equal to LDA?

A

×1.67.

89
Q

By how much is the unfactored (gross) dry landing distance factored before checking that it is
less than or equal to LDA if the runway is wet?

A

×1.92.

90
Q

What is the term for the total fuel required for any flight?

A

Block Fuel.

91
Q

What is the term for the total fuel used from take-off until landing at the intended destination?

A

Trip Fuel.

92
Q

What is the term for the fuel carried to account for any unplanned en-route fuel consumption
due to adverse winds, routing changes or ATC restrictions?

A

Contingency Fuel.

93
Q

What is the term for the fuel carried to enable an aircraft to go-around from an approach at its
destination, fly to a planned diversion airfield and carry out an approach and landing there?

A

Alternate Fuel.

94
Q

What is the term for the fuel carried to enable an aircraft to hold for 30 minutes at 1500 ft
above the alternate aerodrome?

A

Final Reserve Fuel.

95
Q

What is the term for the fuel carried to fulfil any operational requirements or comply with
specific regulations, such as ETOPS or Island Holding Fuel?

A

Additional Fuel.

96
Q

What is the term for the point between two en-route diversion airfields from which it would
take the same time to fly to either airfield?
Critical Point (CP).

A

Critical Point (CP).

97
Q

What is the term for the point along an aircraft’s route beyond which it is impossible to reach
the destination and still divert safely to an alternate airfield?

A

Last Point of Diversion (LPD).

98
Q

What is the term for the point furthest removed from base from which an aircraft can still
return to base within safe endurance?

A

Point of No Return (PNR).

99
Q

How is maximum endurance achieved in a turbo-jet aircraft?

A

By flying at VIMD at an optimum altitude for Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC).

100
Q

How is maximum range achieved in a turbo-jet aircraft?

A

By flying at 1.32 VIMD at high altitude with optimum power set for best Specific Fuel
Consumption (SFC).

Phenom Info (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions