MEPT Aircraft Systems 1 Revision Questions V2.0

Question 1

What is the maximum fuel load of the Phenom aircraft?

Answer 1

1292kg

Question 2

What is the total unusable fuel quantity?

Answer 2

20 Kg. 10 in each tank

Question 3

What is the capacity of each collector tank?

Answer 3

100kg

Question 4

What is the maximum fuel imbalance?

Answer 4

100kg

Question 5

When should the interwing transfer valve be closed?

Answer 5

Fuel cannot be transferred from one wing to another when fuel quantity reaches 140kg for single engine operation and 165 kg for two engines operating.

Question 6

How many fuel pumps of all kinds are utilised in the Phenom fuselage?

Answer 6

6 (2x DC pumps, 4x ejector pumps)

Question 7

Which busbar powers the DC fuel pumps?

Answer 7

The emergency busbar

Question 8

How many fuel pumps (of all types) are located in each collector tank?

Answer 8

2 (1x DC pump, 1x ejector pump)

Question 9

Which fuel pump is in operation during the engine start sequence up to 44% N2?

Answer 9

The DC pump

Question 10

Up to what capacity (fuel load) can the aircraft be safely refuelled via only one overwing refuel point
(filler) with the interwing transfer valve open?

Answer 10

60% (776kg)

Question 11

Which tank is designed to drain INTO the main integral tank?

Answer 11

The vent/surge tank

Question 12

At what fuel pressure will the CAS “FUEL LOW PRESS” caption illuminate?

Answer 12

<6psi

Question 13

What does this CAS caption indicate?
E1 FUEL IMP BYP

Answer 13

Engine 1 fuel filter is blocking and about to be by-passed

Question 14

How many fuel pumps are housed within the engine Fuel Management Unit?

Answer 14

2 (the LP centrifugal pump and the High Pressure pump)

Question 15

What is the minimum fuel temperature for operation?

Answer 15

What is the minimum fuel temperature for operation?
-37oC

Question 16

What is the maximum fuel temperature on the ground?

Answer 16

+52oC

Question 17

What does FUEL IMBALANCE caption mean?

Answer 17

Fuel imbalance is greater than 100kg

Question 18

What does FUEL EQUAL caption mean?

Answer 18

Fuel imbalance is less than 40kg

Question 19

WHAT does the “FUEL IMBALANCE” caption extinguish?

Answer 19

When the fuel imbalance is less than 60kg

Question 20

The PW617- FE engine is a two spool engine that employs how many turbine stages?

Answer 20

2 stages (1x High Pressure stage, 1x Low Pressure stage)

Question 21

How many oil cooler/s are employed by the Phenom engine?

Answer 21

2 (the Air Cooled Oil Cooler and the Fuel Oil Heat Exchanger)

Question 22

How are the ENGINE fuel pumps DRIVEN within the FMU?

Answer 22

A single shaft from the accessory gearbox

Question 23

What time limit is imposed upon the use of MAX power setting?

Answer 23

10 minutes

Question 24

What time limit is imposed upon the use of TO/GA power setting?

Answer 24

5 minutes (per sortie

Question 25

Pressing the TO/GA button on the side of the thrust lever whilst on the ground has what effect upon the engines?

Answer 25

No effect

Question 26

Which of the PW617 engine main bearings has its own oil scavenge pump?

Answer 26

Number 5 bearing

Question 27

Each of the engines has a FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control). How many channels does each FADEC have?

Answer 27

2 (A & B)

Question 28

Pressing the TO/GA button whilst airborne has what effect?

Answer 28

Activates a wings level, 50 pitch up steering cue on the flight director and disconnects the autopilot

Question 29

When on the ground and starting an engine, which ignitor (excitor) is used?

Answer 29

The FADEC uses alternate ignitors, if ignitor B was used during the previous start, ignitor A is used this start.

Question 30

In flight, if an engine ignition switch is set to “ON”; which ignitor is used?

Answer 30

Both ignitors in that engine (A & B)

Question 31

In flight, if an engine start/stop switch is selected to “STOP”, what will happen?

Answer 31

FADEC disregards the selection if the thrust lever is above idle within 5 seconds of the stop selection

Question 32

During engine start sequence, at an N2 RPM of 44%, the FADEC sends a signal to which component to command the starter/generator to cease being a starter motor?

Answer 32

The Generator control Unit (GCU)

Question 33

What are the 5 listed benefits of using a FADEC?

Answer 33

Automatic engine protection against out-of-tolerance operation, care free engine handling with guaranteed thrust settings, better fuel efficiency, better systems integration with engine and airframe systems, Long term health monitoring and diagnostics.

Question 34

FADEC provides 3 modes of protection on the ground during engine start, list them.

Answer 34

Hung start, Hot start, No light up.

Question 35

FADEC will abort an engine start on the ground if no light up is detected under what conditions?

Answer 35

The ITT (inter turbine temperature has not risen significantly after 15 seconds

Question 36

FADEC will abort an engine start on the ground if the time to reach idle exceeds how long?

Answer 36

FADEC will abort an engine start on the ground if the time to reach idle exceeds how long? > 45 seconds after light up

Question 37

Automatic Thrust reserve (ATR), is provided by FADEC automatically during take off whenever it is armed, thrust levers are at TOGA or greater and if at least one of the following 3 events occur:

Answer 37

Difference of N1 values >20%, Loss of communications between both engines, One engine fails during take off.

Question 38

When selecting ATR data for take-off, pressing “ACCEPT” completes the process, the data input changes from which colour to which other colour?

Answer 38

From blue to green

Question 39

What does E1 TLA Fail mean?

Answer 39

Thrust Lever Angle sensor fail

Question 40

What does E1 CTRL FAULT mean?

Answer 40

The affected engine may respond slowly and/or the pilot may be unable to modulate thrust

Question 41

How many fire detector loops are installed within each engine?

Answer 41

1

Question 42

Which busbar powers the engine fire detection system?

Answer 42

the EMERGENCY BUS

Question 43

The fire/overheat detector loop utilizes 2 gases, which are they?

Answer 43

hydrogen, helium

Question 44

How many ENGINE fire extinguisher bottles are fitted to the Phenom?

Answer 44

1

Question 45

What does ENG FIREX DISC mean?

Answer 45

The engine fire extinguisher has been successfully discharged

Question 46

What does E1(2) FIRE DET FAIL mean?

Answer 46

Fire detection system failure in engine 1 or 2

Question 47

How are the pilot’s inputs to the ailerons, rudder and elevator transmitted?

Answer 47

Mechanically, through cables, pulleys, torque tubes, bell cranks and push-pull rods.

Question 48

The secondary flight controls (flaps and trims) are controlled and actuated ………….

Answer 48

electronically

Question 49

The spoiler/speedbrake system is controlled …………… and actuated ……………..

Answer 49

Electronically, Hydraulically

Question 50

How does the left aileron differ in construction to the right aileron?

Answer 50

The left aileron has a trim tab attached to its inboard trailing edge.

Question 51

The control yoke has 2 large control springs attached, what is the function of these springs?

Answer 51

they provide feel and centering forces

Question 52

The aileron trim tab is controlled by which Trim Actuator Controller (TAC)?

Answer 52

TAC1

Question 53

The rudder trim is controlled by which Trim Actuator Controller ( TAC)?

Answer 53

TAC2

Question 54

How many settings are available for rudder pedal adjustment (Leg length)?

Answer 54

4

Question 55

The elevator control surfaces can be moved via 3 inputs, what are they?

Answer 55

Pilot input via the control yoke, Elevator pitch trim, Stall Warning Protection System (SWPS)

Question 56

Pitch trim can be achieved via which Trim Actuator Controller/s?

Answer 56

TAC 1 (Normal Pitch Trim) TAC 2 (Back up Pitch Trim)

Question 57

Each pilot’s yoke has a manual pitch trim switch, under what conditions might the left hand pilot need to release and then re-activate their pitch trim switch?

Answer 57

This may be necessary in order to override the right hand seat pilot’s inputs. ( LH seat has priority)

Question 58

When using Normal Pitch Trim, which trim actuator is the “Master”, and which is the “Slave”?

Answer 58

the LH elevator is “Master” and the RH is “Slave”

Question 59

Which Pitch trimmer operates at a fixed speed?

Answer 59

Back up Pitch Trim

Question 60

If the pitch trim indicators (triangles) turn yellow, what does this indicate?

Answer 60

Indicates pitch trim disagreement between the LH and RH pitch trim pointers

Question 61

What is the time limit imposed upon the pitch trim actuator single operation?

Answer 61

3 seconds operation

Question 62

Pressing the Quick Disconnect button on either pilot’s yoke has what effect upon the trim systems?

Answer 62

Interrupts all trim operation

Question 63

In Normal Pitch Trim mode, if the warning “Trim, Trim, Trim” is heard, what does this signify?

Answer 63

Either only 1 half of the trim switch has been operated or the trim switch has been pressed greater than 3 seconds

Question 64

The SWPS generates visual indications in the LSA (low speed advisory) zone of the ASI tape……….the top of the yellow band is what IAS above the red band?

Answer 64

3 kts

Question 65

what does the green circle indicate?

Answer 65

1.3 Vstall

Question 66

If IAS decreases towards the yellow band of the LSA, what aural warning is given?

Answer 66

INCREASE SPEED

Question 67

If IAS decreases into the yellow band, what effect does this have upon the IAS digits?

Answer 67

The IAS digits turn yellow

Question 68

What indications are given if IAS enters the red zone?

Answer 68

Aural “stall stall”, the ASI digits turn red

Question 69

With regard to stall warning indications, when is the “INCREASE SPEED” aural warning inhibited?

Answer 69

Whenever the aircraft is NOT in the clean configuration

Question 70

When is the SWPS system test function inhibited?

Answer 70

In flight

Question 71

When is the stick pusher inhibited?

Answer 71

on the ground except during testing, < 0.5g, within 20 seconds of take off, if the Pusher Cut Out is pressed, if one or both SWPS computer channel/s is inoperative,. >186KIAS

Question 72

What does SWPS ICE SPEED mean?

Answer 72

SPWS activation angles (AOA) have been decreased for icing conditions (Wing/Stab anti-icing in use)

Question 73

Which areas of the phenom are ELECTRICALLY de-iced/anti-iced?

Answer 73

Windshield 1 & 2, AOA vanes, Pitot probes/ static ports , engine inlet probe (TTO probe)

Question 74

Which 2 faults could cause WSHIELD1 (2) HTR FAIL

Answer 74

Associated windshield heating has failed or has overheated

Question 75

What does STBY HTR FAIL mean?

Answer 75

ADS-Standby heater is off or has failed

Question 76

What is the phenom’s MAX take off/landing altitude in icing conditions?

Answer 76

10,000ft

Question 77

What is the MINIMUM IAS for wingstab di-icing activation?

Answer 77

150KIAS

Question 78

What is the phenom’s MINIMUM allowable temperature for landing in icing conditions?

Answer 78

-33oC

Question 79

If prior to flight you require airframe chemical de-ice, which 2 areas must the application of de-icing fluid be kept to a minimum?

Answer 79

The landing gear and the wheel well bay

Question 80

If electrical control (power) is lost to an engine anti-icing circuit, how will the ENGINE anti-icing system react?

Answer 80

The affected engine will default ON (operates, fail SAFE)

Question 81

What are the conditions that require engine anti-icing to be turned on?

Answer 81

If SAT (TAT in flight) is +10C or below and there is visible moisture

Question 82

What are the conditions that require wingstab de-icing to be turned on?

Answer 82

If the SAT (TAT in flight) is below +5oC and there is visible moisture