Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phenom Info > MEPT Aircraft Systems 1 Revision Questions V2.0 > Flashcards

MEPT Aircraft Systems 1 Revision Questions V2.0 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum fuel load of the Phenom aircraft?

A

1292kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the total unusable fuel quantity?

A

20 Kg. 10 in each tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the capacity of each collector tank?

A

100kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance?

A

100kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When should the interwing transfer valve be closed?

A

Fuel cannot be transferred from one wing to another when fuel quantity reaches 140kg for single engine operation and 165 kg for two engines operating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many fuel pumps of all kinds are utilised in the Phenom fuselage?

A

6 (2x DC pumps, 4x ejector pumps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which busbar powers the DC fuel pumps?

A

The emergency busbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many fuel pumps (of all types) are located in each collector tank?

A

2 (1x DC pump, 1x ejector pump)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which fuel pump is in operation during the engine start sequence up to 44% N2?

A

The DC pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Up to what capacity (fuel load) can the aircraft be safely refuelled via only one overwing refuel point
(filler) with the interwing transfer valve open?

A

60% (776kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which tank is designed to drain INTO the main integral tank?

A

The vent/surge tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At what fuel pressure will the CAS “FUEL LOW PRESS” caption illuminate?

A

<6psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does this CAS caption indicate?
E1 FUEL IMP BYP

A

Engine 1 fuel filter is blocking and about to be by-passed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many fuel pumps are housed within the engine Fuel Management Unit?

A

2 (the LP centrifugal pump and the High Pressure pump)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the minimum fuel temperature for operation?

A

What is the minimum fuel temperature for operation?
-37oC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the maximum fuel temperature on the ground?

A

+52oC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does FUEL IMBALANCE caption mean?

A

Fuel imbalance is greater than 100kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does FUEL EQUAL caption mean?

A

Fuel imbalance is less than 40kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When does the “FUEL IMBALANCE” caption extinguish?

A

When the fuel imbalance is less than 60kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The PW617- FE engine is a two spool engine that employs how many turbine stages?

A

2 stages (1x High Pressure stage, 1x Low Pressure stage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many oil cooler/s are employed by the Phenom engine?

A

2 (the Air Cooled Oil Cooler and the Fuel Oil Heat Exchanger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How are the ENGINE fuel pumps within the FMU DRIVEN?

A

A single shaft from the accessory gearbox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What time limit is imposed upon the use of MAX power setting?

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What time limit is imposed upon the use of TO/GA power setting?

A

5 minutes (per sortie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pressing the TO/GA button on the side of the thrust lever whilst on the ground has what effect upon the
engines?

A

No effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the PW617 engine main bearings has its own oil scavenge pump?

A

Number 5 bearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Each of the engines has a FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control). How many channels does each
FADEC have?

A

2 (A & B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pressing the TO/GA button whilst airborne has what effect?

A

Activates a wings level, 50
pitch up steering cue on the flight director and disconnects the autopilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When on the ground and starting an engine, which ignitor (excitor) is used?

A

The FADEC uses alternate ignitors, if ignitor B was used during the previous start, ignitor A is used this
start.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In flight, if an engine ignition switch is set to “ON”; which ignitor is used?

A

Both ignitors in that engine (A & B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In flight, if an engine start/stop switch is selected to “STOP”, what will happen?

A

FADEC disregards the selection if the thrust lever is above idle within 5 seconds of the stop selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

During engine start sequence, at an N2 RPM of 44%, the FADEC sends a signal to which component to
command the starter/generator to cease being a starter motor?

A

The Generator control Unit (GCU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 5 listed benefits of using a FADEC?

A

Automatic engine protection against out-of-tolerance operation,
care free engine handling with
guaranteed thrust settings,
better fuel efficiency,
better systems integration with engine and airframe
systems,
Long term health monitoring and diagnostics.

34
Q

FADEC provides 3 modes of protection on the ground during engine start, list them.

A

Hung start, Hot start, No light up.

35
Q

FADEC will abort an engine start on the ground if no light up is detected under what conditions?

A

The ITT (inter turbine temperature has not risen significantly after 15 seconds

36
Q

FADEC will abort an engine start on the ground if the time to reach idle exceeds how long?

A

FADEC will abort an engine start on the ground if the time to reach idle exceeds how long?
> 45 seconds after light up

37
Q

Automatic Thrust reserve (ATR), is provided by FADEC automatically during take off whenever it is
armed, thrust levers are at TOGA or greater and if at least one of the following 3 events occur:

A

Difference of N1 values >20%, Loss of communications between both engines, One engine fails during
take off.

38
Q

When selecting ATR data for take-off, pressing “ACCEPT” completes the process, the data input changes
from which colour to which other colour?

A

From blue to green

39
Q

What does E1 TLA Fail mean?

A

Thrust Lever Angle sensor fail

40
Q

What does E1 CTRL FAULT mean?

A

The affected engine may respond slowly and/or the pilot may be unable to modulate thrust

41
Q

How many fire detector loops are installed within each engine?

A

1

42
Q

Which busbar powers the engine fire detection system?

A

the EMERGENCY BUS

43
Q

The fire/overheat detector loop utilizes 2 gases, which are they?

A

hydrogen, helium

44
Q

How many ENGINE fire extinguisher bottles are fitted to the Phenom?

A

1

45
Q

What does ENG FIREX DISC mean?

A

The engine fire extinguisher has been successfully discharged

46
Q

What does E1(2) FIRE DET FAIL mean?

A

Fire detection system failure in engine 1 or 2

47
Q

How are the pilot’s inputs to the ailerons, rudder and elevator transmitted?

A

Mechanically, through cables, pulleys, torque tubes, bell cranks and push-pull rods.

48
Q

The secondary flight controls (flaps and trims) are controlled and actuated ………….

A

electronically

49
Q

The spoiler/speedbrake system is controlled …………… and actuated ……………..

A

Electronically, Hydraulically

50
Q

How does the left aileron differ in construction to the right aileron?

A

The left aileron has a trim tab attached to its inboard trailing edge.

51
Q

The control yoke has 2 large control springs attached, what is the function of these springs?

A

they provide feel and centering forces

52
Q

The aileron trim tab is controlled by which Trim Actuator Controller (TAC)?

A

TAC1

53
Q

The rudder trim is controlled by which Trim Actuator Controller ( TAC)?

A

TAC2

54
Q

How many settings are available for rudder pedal adjustment (Leg length)?

A

4

55
Q

The elevator control surfaces can be moved via 3 inputs, what are they?

A

Pilot input via the control yoke, Elevator pitch trim, Stall Warning Protection System (SWPS)

56
Q

Pitch trim can be achieved via which Trim Actuator Controller/s?

A

TAC 1 (Normal Pitch Trim) TAC 2 (Back up Pitch Trim)

57
Q

Each pilot’s yoke has a manual pitch trim switch, under what conditions might the left hand pilot need to
release and then re-activate their pitch trim switch?

A

This may be necessary in order to override the right hand seat pilot’s inputs. ( LH seat has priority)

58
Q

When using Normal Pitch Trim, which trim actuator is the “Master”, and which is the “Slave”?

A

the LH elevator is “Master” and the RH is “Slave”

59
Q

Which Pitch trimmer operates at a fixed speed?

A

Back up Pitch Trim

60
Q

If the pitch trim indicators (triangles) turn yellow, what does this indicate?

A

Indicates pitch trim disagreement between the LH and RH pitch trim pointers

61
Q

What is the time limit imposed upon the pitch trim actuator single operation?

A

3 seconds operation

62
Q

Pressing the Quick Disconnect button on either pilot’s yoke has what effect upon the trim systems?

A

Interrupts all trim operation

63
Q

In Normal Pitch Trim mode, if the warning “Trim, Trim, Trim” is heard, what does this signify?

A

Either only 1 half of the trim switch has been operated or the trim switch has been pressed greater than
3 seconds

64
Q

The SWPS generates visual indications in the LSA (low speed advisory) zone of the ASI tape……….the top
of the yellow band is what IAS above the red band?

A

3 kts

65
Q

what does the green circle indicate?

A

1.3 Vstall

66
Q

If IAS decreases towards the yellow band of the LSA, what aural warning is given?

A

INCREASE SPEED

67
Q

If IAS decreases into the yellow band, what effect does this have upon the IAS digits?

A

The IAS digits turn yellow

68
Q

What indications are given if IAS enters the red zone?

A

Aural “stall stall”, the ASI digits turn red

69
Q

With regard to stall warning indications, when is the “INCREASE SPEED” aural warning inhibited?

A

Whenever the aircraft is NOT in the clean configuration

70
Q

When is the SWPS system test function inhibited?

A

In flight

71
Q

When is the stick pusher inhibited?

A

on the ground except during testing, < 0.5g, within 20 seconds of take off, if the Pusher Cut Out is
pressed, if one or both SWPS computer channel/s is inoperative,. >186KIAS

72
Q

What does SWPS ICE SPEED mean?

A

SPWS activation angles (AOA) have been decreased for icing conditions (Wing/Stab anti-icing in use)

73
Q

Which areas of the phenom are ELECTRICALLY de-iced/anti-iced?

A

Windshield 1 & 2, AOA vanes, Pitot probes/ static ports , engine inlet probe (TTO probe)

74
Q

Which 2 faults could cause WSHIELD1 (2) HTR FAIL

A

Associated windshield heating has failed or has overheated

75
Q

What does STBY HTR FAIL mean?

A

ADS-Standby heater is off or has failed

76
Q

What is the phenom’s MAX take off/landing altitude in icing conditions?

A

10,000ft

77
Q

What is the MINIMUM IAS for wingstab di-icing activation?

A

150KIAS

78
Q

What is the phenom’s MINIMUM allowable temperature for landing in icing conditions?

A

-33oC

79
Q

If prior to flight you require airframe chemical de-ice, which 2 areas must the application of de-icing
fluid be kept to a minimum?

A

The landing gear and the wheel well bay

80
Q

If electrical control (power) is lost to an engine anti-icing circuit, how will the ENGINE anti-icing system
react?

A

The affected engine will default ON (operates, fail SAFE)

81
Q

What are the conditions that require engine anti-icing to be turned on?

A

If SAT (TAT in flight) is +10C or below and there is visible moisture

82
Q

What are the conditions that require wingstab de-icing to be turned on?

A

If the SAT (TAT in flight) is below +5oC and there is visible moisture

Phenom Info (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions