Pharmacology for I&I Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the difference btw an infection and a contaminant?

A

growth of pathogen found in sterile area; contaminant would have far less than an infection. Ex) 10,000 ml E. coli in urine vs. 100,000 ml

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2
Q

Whats the benefit of a gram stain over urine culture to ID

A

stain can allow for rapid prelim. ID vs. hrs or months to ID culture

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3
Q

Whats the benefit of urine culture vs. gram stain

A

more definitive

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4
Q

When in the cell cycle life does it cause an endotoxin (referring to lipolysaccharide of gram -)

A

after death and lysis

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5
Q

list the 3 categories of anti-infectives therapies

A

Prophylactic, Empiric, and Definitive

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6
Q

If you were to choose an alternative form of a drug due to a known allergin, u’d be practicing which category of anti-infective therapy?

A

Empiric

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7
Q

Choosing a bacteriocidal drug over a bacateriostatic for a pt who is immunocompromised would be an example of which anti-infective therapeutic category?

A

Empiric

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8
Q

altering the choice of you drug due to factors like location, age, hepatic/renal function and pregnancy would be an example of what type of category for anti-infective therapy

A

Empiric

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9
Q

describe how u can have a superinfection

A

when giving overly broad spectrum antibiotics (an infection on top of another that’s resistant) most often seen with definitive therapy

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10
Q

Whats the biggest concern for beta-lactam toxicity particularly in renal impaired patients?

A

seizures

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11
Q

What class of drug does imipenem belong too if an overdose can lead to seizures in renally impaired pts.

A

a beta-lactam

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12
Q

What is tetracycline’s MOA

A

a protein synthesis inhibitor (binds to 30S ribosome blocks tRNA attachment for addition to elongating protein chain.

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13
Q

Would tetracycline be considered bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

bacteriostatic b/c protein synthesis inhibitor.

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14
Q

Clindamycin (Lincosamines) are known to most commonly cause:

A

C. diff.

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15
Q

This drug can cause red man syndrome, hypersensitivity, ototoxicity, and nephrotoxicity

A

Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)

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16
Q

This drug class works effectively against gram + organisms. It can also treat MRSA, pneumonia, endocarditis, osteomyelitis, and soft tissue abscess.

A

Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)

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17
Q

How does tetracycline act as a bacteriostatic antibiotic

A

inhibits protein synthesis

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18
Q

Doxycycline works to inhibit protein synthesis, which drug class does it belong too

A

tetracyclines

19
Q

what are the ADR’s of tetracyclines

A

dental stains, black hairy tongue, and photosensitivity

20
Q

why would you not want to give tetracyclines to children (except doxycycline)

A

dental stains

21
Q

what types of foods may decrease the effect of tetracyclines

A

cations such as calcium, mg++ etc.

22
Q

these drugs have a high risk for tendon rupture

A

Fluroquinolones

23
Q

How do fluroquinolones act as a bacteriocidal drug class.

A

Bind to DNA gyrase & topoisomerase, breaking DNA and leading to cell death

24
Q

Which type of bugs would fluroquinolones treat

A

gram + and -

atypicals

25
Q

Sulfonamides are a class of drugs that work as what

A

folate antagonists

26
Q

why are SMX & TMP often paired as synergistics?

A

inhibit folate synthesis in bacteria at different steps enhancing the affect

27
Q

What toxic effects although rare are of concern for overdosing sulfamethoxazole (SMX)

A

Steven Johnson Syndrome, N&V, and diarrhea

28
Q

What pt population are we most concerned about when prescribing SMX-TMP folate antagonists and why?

A

newborns, pregnant women and malnourished because they have low folate reserves which may lead to anemia.

29
Q

This drug class works against anaerobic and protozoa infections

A

Metronidazole (Nitroimidazoles)

30
Q

how do Nitroimidazoles (Metronidazoles) work against anaerobic and protozoa infections?

A

Part of the drug molecule forms free radicals which lead to damage DNA and cell death.

31
Q

What is the Black box warning for metronidazoles?

A

don’t take alcohol when on the drug. another ADR is peripheral neuropathy

32
Q

How does rifampin act against mycobacterial TB

A

inhibits RNA synthesis

33
Q

How does Isoniazid act against Mycobacterial TB

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

34
Q

How does Ethambutol act against mycobacterial TB

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

35
Q

How does Pryazinamide act against mycobacterial Tb

A

disrupts plasma membrane and energy metabolism

36
Q

Which class of drug would be most important to give within 72 hours of infection…. why?

A

Antivirals- Acyclovir because that’s when virus are most ferociously replicating.

37
Q

Which drug would could you treat malaria with….

A

Quinoline

38
Q

Which of the antimicrobacterial drugs would work most effectively against a latent form of TB

A

Isoniazid

39
Q

What drug interactions are we concerned about with Rifamycins

A

inducing CYP450 enzyme

40
Q

How does antiviral drugs such as acyclovir work

A

acts as nucleoside analog halting viral DNA replication

41
Q

Which drug would be best at treating fungal infection

A

Fluconazole

42
Q

How does Fluconazole work?

A

inhibits CYP450 enzyme, preventing production of ergosterol

43
Q

Which drug would be best against Candida albicans, Cryptococcus neoformans, and Coccidioidies immitis (valley fever)

A

Fluconazole

44
Q

how do probencids enhance the effect of beta-lactams

A

inhibit tubular secretions of antibiotic