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LAIM Test > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

How does Mg potentiate local anesthetic effects and with which drug?

A

With lidocaine, it antagonizes NMDA receptors and their associates ion channels. Reducing central sensitization caused by peripheral novice probe stimulation.

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2
Q

COX-1 is expressed in …
COX-2 is expressed in …

How do they work?

A

COX-1 is expressed in peripheral nervous system and CNS, expression enhanced by pain and inflammation

COX-2 is expressed only in CNS, it takes 2-8 hrs after insult to be a major PG synthesis enzyme

COX-1 initiates the release of Prostaglandins (PG) that release substance P, histamine, calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) and bradykinin and produce inflammation

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3
Q

Which of the following can predispose dairy cattle to clinical hypokalemia?

a. Repeated doses of dexamethasone
b. Repeated doses of isoflupredone acetate
c. Repeated doses of flunixin meglumine
d. Repeated doses of aspirin

A

Repeated doses of isoflupredone acetate

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4
Q

Acute hepatic necrosis has been reported 1-3 months after administration of all of the following except:

a. Tetanus antitoxin
b. Vaccination for encephalomyelitis
c. Commercial plasma
d. Rabies vaccination

A

d. Rabies vaccination

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5
Q

Typical lesions associated with Fumonisin B1 in the liver are:

a. Centrivascular fibrosis
b. Centrilobular necrosis
c. Hepatic congestion
d. Hemorrhage

A

b. Centrilobular necrosis

Lesions in the visceral organs including hepatic congestion, centrilobular hepatic necrosis, hemorrhagic enteritis, and cystitis are found in some horses.

The relationship between these lesions in the CNS and those in the liver, urinary bladder, and GI tract is unknown.

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6
Q

The best list of adverse reactions associated with quindine is:

a. Tachycardia, colic, diarrhea, ataxia, nasal edema, laminitis
b. Tachycardia, colic, nasal edema, urticaria, laminitis
c. Tachycardia, colic, laminitis
d. Colic, ataxia, nasal edema, urticaria, laminitis

A

a. Tachycardia, colic, diarrhea, ataxia, nasal edema, laminitis

Prolonged QRS complex (by more than 25%), fast ( > 80 to 100 beats/min) sustained supraventricular arrhythmia, ventricular rhythm, colic, diarrhea, ataxia, nasal edema, neurologic signs or laminitis warrant discontinuation of the therapy. Laminitis is a frequently reported complication of quinidine sulfate therapy in older literature, but the actual incidence of laminitis associated with quinidine administration is rare.

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7
Q

Cattle grazing on fescue pastures can commonly develop all of the following except:

a. Gangrene
b. Fat necrosis
c. Hyperthermia
d. Perinatal agalactia

A

b. Fat necrosis

Tall fescue ( Lolium arundinaceum) is one of the most widely grown perennial grasses in the world. It can be infected with an endophytic fungus, Neotyphodium coenophialum, which produces potentially toxic alkaloids. Ergopeptines, lysergic acid amines, and clavines, are the principle toxins responsible for fescue toxicosis in livestock.

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8
Q

Where is dopamine secreted and what is usually its effect?

A

It is mostly secreted in the substantia nigra

It is a chemoreceptor, usually INHIBITS norepinephrine release

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9
Q

Where is the substantia nigra located?

A

It is a basal ganglia located in the midbrain

*Has high levels of neuromelanin

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10
Q

What is glycine?

A

An amino acid that acts as a neurotransmitter.

Released as an inhibitory transmitter in the spinal cord.

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11
Q

What is Glutamate??

A

Main excitatory neurotransmitter, released from presynaptic terminals and precursor of GABA

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12
Q

What is GABA?

A

Ganna- aminobutyric acid. Main inhibitory neurotransmitter.

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13
Q

What is Nitric Oxide?

A

It is a neurotransmitter released to help regulate vision and memory (for long term behaviour)

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14
Q

Which of the following is a time-dependent antimicrobial?

a. Amikacin
b. Clindamycin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Metronidazole

A

b. Clindamycin

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15
Q

Which of the following should be administered as an antidote for organophosphate toxicity?

a. 4-methylpyrazole (4-MP)
b. Calcium EDTA
c. Pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM)
d. Meso-2.3 dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)

A

c. Pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM)

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16
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT a known substrate of p-glycoprotein?

a. doxorubicin
b. dexamethasone
c. butorphanol
d. erythromycin
e. cyclophosphamide

A

e. cyclophosphamide

Used as chemotherapy and to suppress the immune system (to treat lymphoma, multiple myeloma, leukemia, etc.). As an immune suppressor it is used in nephrotic syndrome, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and following organ transplant.

17
Q

Which of the following is NOT an action of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (Vitamin D)?

a. Increased formation of a Ca-binding protein in the intestinal epithelial cells to promote intestinal calcium absorption
b. When administered in extreme quantities, promotes bone calcification
c. Promotes intestinal phosphate absorption
d. Decreased renal Ca and phosphate excretion

A

b. When administered in extreme quantities, promotes bone calcification

18
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding diuretics?

a. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that decreases active Na-Cl-K reabsorption in the thick ascending loop of Henle
b. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist that competes with aldosterone for receptor sites in the proximal tubule
c. Chlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits Na-Cl reabsorption in the collecting tubule.
d. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors block Na-HCO3 reabsoption in the distal tubule.

A

a. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that decreases active Na-Cl-K reabsorption in the thick ascending loop of Henle

19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of a Loop diuretic?

a. Inhibits water and solute reabsorption by increasing osmolarity of tubular fluid
b. Inhibits Na+Cl co-transport in luminal membrane
c. Blocks the entry of Na+ into Na+ channels of luminal membrane
d. Inhibits Na+K+Cl- co-transport in the luminal membrane

A

d. Inhibits Na+K+Cl- co-transport in the luminal membrane

20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the tetracycline class of antibiotics?

a. Interference with bacterial cell wall formation
b. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding of the 30s ribosomal subunit
c. Disruption of DNA synthesis by blocking the pathway for folic acid synthesis
d. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding of the 50s subunit of the ribosomal subunit

A

b. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding of the 30s ribosomal subunit

21
Q

Which one of the following antibiotics is excreted in the bile in the active form?

a. Ampicillin
b. Amikacin
c. Erythromycin
d. Trimethroprim-sulfamethoxazole

A

c. Erythromycin

22
Q

The mechanism of action of furosemide is to inhibit:

a. Na-K ATPase pump
b. Na-Cl co-transporter
c. Na-2Cl-K co-transporter
d. Na-Ca-K co-transporter

A

c. Na-2Cl-K co-transporter

23
Q
  1. Neomycin can be given in high doses orally without the risk of nephrotoxicity because:

a. It cannot penetrate the tight junctions of the GI tract due to its positive charge and hydrophilic nature
b. following systemic administration it undergoes hepatic metabolism and is excreted in the bile
c. it is highly protein-bound after systemic absorption
d. its negative charge prevents active transport into cells of the kidney during glomerular filtration

A

a. It cannot penetrate the tight junctions of the GI tract due to its positive charge and hydrophilic nature

24
Q
  1. Which of the following chemotherapeutics is cytotoxic during the S-phase of the cell cycle?

a. Doxorrubicin
b. Vinblastine
c. 5-Fluoruracil
d. Cyclophosphamide

A

c. 5-Fluoruracil

An antimetabolite fluoropyrimidine analog of the nucleoside pyrimidine with antineoplastic activity.
Inhibits RNA processing, thereby inhibiting cell growth. Also inhibits thymidylate synthase, resulting in the depletion of thymidine triphosphate (TTP), one of the four nucleotide triphosphates used in the in vivo synthesis of DNA. Can also incorporate into both RNA and DNA; incorporating into RNA resulting in major effects on both RNA processing and functions.

25
Q

Itraconazole achieves good penetration in which of the following?

a. Central nervous system
b. Aqueous humor
c. Saliva
d. Skin

A

d. Skin

26
Q

Which of the following best describes the potential drug-drug interactions when quinidine and digoxin are co-administered?

a. Digoxin concentrations will be increased leading to potential toxicity
b. Digoxin concentrations will be decreased leading to potential treatment failure
c. Quinidine concentrations will be increased leading to potential toxicity
d. Quinidine concentrations will be decreased leading to potential treatment failure

A

a. Digoxin concentrations will be increased leading to potential toxicity

LAIM Test (20 decks)

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