Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LAIM Test > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

The basis of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) of Arabian horses is a homozygous defect of a gene involved in the production of what?

A. CD4+ and CD8+ T Lymphocytes
B. Immunoglobulins M, G, G(T) and A
C. Neutrophils and natural killer cells
D. T and B lymphocytes

A

D. T and B lymphocytes

Ref: Smith 4th Ed. LAIM pp1671.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is a common finding in calves with bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

A. Band neutrophilia
B. Lymphopenia
C. Mature neutrophilia
D. Monocytosis

A

C. Mature neutrophilia

Ref: Divers and Peek, Diseases of Dairy Cows, 2nd ed. 2008. P 70-71.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following CORRECTLY links a disease with the immune system component mainly responsible for the associated pathology?

A. Purpura hemorrhagica – IgE
B. Neonatal isoerythrolysis – IgM
C. Anaphylaxis – IgE
D. Culicoides hypersensitivity – IgG

A

C. Anaphylaxis – IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following characteristics of cancer cells and the “Hallmark of Cancer” that is characteristic enables CORRECTLY paired?

a. Aneuploidy; susteined angiogenesis
b. Activation of the Rb gene; insensitivity to anti-growth signals
c. Epithelial-mesenchymal transition; invasion and metastasis
d. Evasion of anoikis; limitless replicative potential

A

c. Epithelial-mesenchymal transition; invasion and metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The goal of transmucosal vaccination is to stimulate which type of immune response?

a. IgM
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgA

A

d. IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 3-y-o male castrated irish setter is presented to the hospital for signs of weakness and lethargy. Physical exam reveals a grade II/IV systolic heart murmur over the left heart base, weak pulses, icteric sclera, and pale yellow mucous membranes. The dog has been receiving oral cephalexin to treat superficial pyoderma for the past 7 days. PCV is 12% and macroscopic erythrocyte auto-agglutination is observed in blood collected into an EDTA tube. What does this represent?

a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

b. Type II hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following released by pulmonary mast cells during allergic reactions, are important mediators of bronchiolar constriction?

a. Epinephrine and bradykinin
b. Histamine and slow reactive substance of anaphylaxis
c. Heparin and serotonin
d. Eosinophil chemotactic factor and lysosomal enzymes

A

b. Histamine and slow reactive substance of anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

With immune-mediated hemolytic anemia, which of the following immunologic processes is involved in the destruction of the erythrocytes?

a. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
c. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
d. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following cytokines is NOT responsible for inducing a fever?

a. IL-1
b. IL-6
c. IL-10
d. TNF-α

A

c. IL-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The predominant immunoglobulin in bovine colostrum is:

a) IgG2
b) IgA
c) IgG1
d) IgM

A

c) IgG1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

One principle function of Class I and II MHC S proteins is to

a) Transduce the signal to the T cell interior following antigen binding.
b) Mediate Immunoglobulin class switching
c) Present antigen for recognition by the T-cell receptor
d) Stimulate production of interleukins

A

c) Present antigen for recognition by the T-cell receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells?

a) Interleukin-1
b) Gamma interferon
c) Interleukin-2
d) Interleukin-4

A

a) Interleukin-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of cells are affected in equine and bovine lymphoma?

A

In equine, both T and B cells have been reported, in bovine, specially in the juvenile form, T cells are most commonly associated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is contact dermatitis??

A

It is the reaction to a non-irritating substance or a non-irritating concentration of an agent. Tissue damage is immunologically mediated by delayed-type hypersensitivity (type IV).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of T cells?

A

Helper T cells (CD 4 T cells / produce cytokines), and cytotoxic T cells (CD8 T cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which are the pro-inflammatory interleukins?

A

IL-1, TNF-α, IL-8

IL-6 is related to acute phase response and fever
IL-12 releases natural killer (NK) cells

17
Q

Which is NOT a pro-inflammatory interleukins?

A

IL-10

18
Q

How is Type 1 hypersensitivity mediated?

A

Via IgE, it causes anaphylaxis:
– Systemic (systemic vasodilation and increased
vascular permeability)
– Local (asthma, food allergies)

It causes degranulation of mast cells and basophils
(histamine, proteases, chemokines) when
bound to Fc region of IgE.

For example: Milk allergy

19
Q

How is Type II hypersensitivity mediated?

A

Via antibodies.

• Antibody (IgG) mediated destruction of cells, complement activation, Antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC), and opsonization

For example: Transfusion reaction, myasthenia gravis,
neonatal isoerythrolysis

20
Q

How is Type III hypersensitivity mediated?

A

Immune complex mediated.

Immune complexes cause inflammation
through activation of the complement system and
massive infiltration of neutrophils.

For example: glomerulonephritis, lupus, localized Arthus
reaction (occurs several hours to days following the intradermal injection of a vaccine)

21
Q

How is Type IV hypersensitivity mediated?

A

Cell mediated.

Mediated by antigen-specific effector T cells, it has to have a previous exposure.

For example: tuberculin test, contact dermatitis, graft
rejection

22
Q

What are the 2 major histocompatibility complexes and what do they usually bind to?

A

MHC I and MHC II

MHC I is expressed by all nucleated cells (not in neurons) and present endogenously synthetized antigens. It binds to CD8 in cytotoxic T cells.

MHC II is expressed on dendritic cells (DCs), B cells and macrophages. It presents exogenously derived proteins and binds to helper T cells (CD4).

23
Q

Which blood group factors are considered highly immunogenic and are more commonly associated with nenonatal isoerythrolysis in foals?

a. Ca and Aa
b. Qc and Ca
c. Aa and Qa
d. Qc and Ua

A

c. Aa and Qa

24
Q

Following primary vaccination, which immunoglobulin will be produced in higher level as primary immune response?

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

d. IgM

25
Q

What type of hypersentivity is associated with allergic anaphylaxis due to production of excessive amounts of IgE antibodies?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

a. Type I

26
Q

How much purified LPS is sufficient to cause clinical signs? (In experimental situations)

A

<1 microgram of purified LPS

27
Q

What are DAMPs?

Give 2 examples.

A

Damage-associated molecular patterns. They are molecules that have the ability to recognize patterns that signal potential danger.

Within these, PAMPs and alarmins exist.

PAMPs - Pathogen-associated molecular patterns. They are microbial signals like endotoxin.

Alarmins - endogenously produced molecules that originate from damaged or inflamed tissues

28
Q

What does LPS interact with in order to create signaling?

A

It first interacts with LBP (an acute-phase protein); which facilitates binding with CD-14 (cell-associated receptor).

These complex (LPS/LBP/CD-14) recruits and activates TLR4 dimer (Toll-like receptor) and an accessory component MD-2 in preparation for LPS signaling.

TLR4 then initiates multiple downstream pathways including nuclear factor KB (NF-KB) and activator protein 1 (AP-1)

29
Q

What Toll-like receptor do the next components bind to?

Flagellin
Lipoprotein (G+ bacteria)
Peptidoglycan (G+ bacteria)
Viral double stranded RNA
Viral single stranded RNA
Herpesvirus DNA
Uropathogenic bacteria
A 
Flagellin - TLR5
Lipoprotein (G+ bacteria) - TLR2
Peptidoglycan (G+ bacteria) - TLR2
Viral double stranded RNA - TLR3
Viral single stranded RNA - TLR7/8
Herpesvirus DNA - TLR9
Uropathogenic bacteria - TLR11
30
Q

What coagulation factor does endotoxin bind to in order to set off the “contact” system of coagulation?

A

Coagulation factor XII - Hageman factor

Endotoxin binds to complement proteins to initiate the pectin-dependent and alternative pathways of complement activation which also activates the Hageman factor.

31
Q

What are some of the cytokines released by NF-KB after its activation by endotoxin?

A

Proinflammatory (IL-1B, TNF, IL-6, IL-8, IL-12, IL-18)

Acute-phase proteins, immunoreceptors, enzymes, chemokines, type 1 INFs, procoagulants, and adhesion molecules are also released.

32
Q

What mediators increase vascular permeability during endotoxemia?

A

Bradykinin, PAF, C3a, C5a, and leukotriene B4 (LTB4)

33
Q

Mention some of the mediators that act as neuroendocrine responses to sepsis?

A

Arginine, vasopressin, angiotensin II, serotonin, epinephrine and norepinephrine.

34
Q

Mention some of the inflammatory mediators that act during the response to sepsis?

A

Vasoconstrictors - Thromboxane A2 (TXA2), endothelin, C3a, C5a, C4a
Vasodilators - PGE2, PGI2, adenosine, bradykinin, NO

35
Q

What are the 3 primary suspected causes of CARS that are associated with immunosuppression during endotoxemia?

CARS - Compensatory Antiinflamatory Response Syndrome

A
  • Widespread apoptotic death of lymphocytes (particularly B cells and CD4-positive T-helper cells)
  • Dendritic cell loss and dysfunction, leading to inefficient or impaired antigen presentation
  • Impaired phagocyte chemotaxis and killing responses

LAIM Test (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions