Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

Camelids commonly have a higher and more prolonged stress-induced hyperglycemia when compared
to other domestic herbivores.

This is MOST commonly due to which of the following?

A. Decreased insulin response
B. Decreased urinary excretion of glucose
C. Higher epinephrine release
D. Higher glucocorticoid release

A

A. Decreased insulin response

Ref: Cebra C. VCNA Food Animal. 2009: 25:339-52.

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2
Q

In addition to increased NEFA’s, increases in which of the following clinicopathologic parameter is
MOST correlated with hepatic lipidosis in camelids?

A. Beta-hydroxybutyrate
B. Cholesterol
C. Glucose
D. Triglyceride

A

A. Beta-hydroxybutyrate

Ref: Cebra, VCNA Food Animal, 2009 (2); 345-346. Disorders of Carbohydrate or Lipid Metabolism in Camelids.

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3
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the pathophysiology of hyperlipemia in ponies is TRUE?

A. Lipoprotein lipase, which is responsible for peripheral catabolism of triglycerides, has decreased activity in hyperlipemic ponies.
B. Non-esterified fatty acids liberated from adipose tissue stores cannot be used by muscle or other peripheral tissues, but are used for ketone body production in the liver.
C. The hyperlipemia observed is primarily due to hepatic over-production and release of very-low
density lipoprotein.
D. The liver does not take up triglycerides released from adipose tissue stores and this accounts for the increased serum triglyceride concentrations.

A

C. The hyperlipemia observed is primarily due to hepatic over-production and release of very-low
density lipoprotein.

Ref: Smith. LAIM 4th ed., 2008; p 914-915.

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4
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding thyroid function in the horse is TRUE?
A. At birth, foals have a lower total T3 and total T4 concentration than adults.
B. Goiter in foals may result from either maternal iodine deficiency or excess.
C. One day-old foals fail to respond normally to TRH stimulation.
D. T3, but not T4, is decreased 2 to 10 days after phenylbutazone administration.

A

B. Goiter in foals may result from either maternal iodine deficiency or excess.

Ref: Smith LAIM 4th Ed 2009. p269 and p 1347-1348.

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5
Q
Which one of the following is the MOST consistent clinical sign with equine anhidrosis? 
A. Patchy alopecia 
B. Polydipsia 
C. Tachycardia 
D. Tachypnea
A

D. Tachypnea

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6
Q

Which one of the following test results or observations would be MOST suggestive of subacute rumenal acidosis (SARA) in a herd of Holstein dairy cattle?

A. Decreased bulk tank milk fat
B. Increased bulk tank milk somatic cell count
C. Increased incidence of lameness due to digital dermatitis
D. Rumen pH of 6.0 in several cows

A

A. Decreased bulk tank milk fat

Ref: Vet Med 10th, pp. 319

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7
Q

An 8yr old female spayed Bishon Frise is presented with polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia and potbellied appereance. Results of ACTH stimulation test are diagnostic of Cushing’s disease. A high dose of dexamethasone suppresion test is performed and fails to show supression of cortisol production at all time points. The patient has:

a. Adrenal-dependent hyperadrenocorticism
b. Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism
c. Either adrenal- or pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism
d. Iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism

A

c. Either adrenal- or pituitary-dependent

In 15 - 20% of dogs with pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism the cortisol level is not suppressed by high-dose dexamethasone administration

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8
Q

The metabolic effect of growth hormone include which of the following?

a. Decreased carbohydrate utilization
b. Increased catabolism of protein and aminoacids
c. Decreased mobilization of fatty acids and glucose
d. Increased catabolism of DNA and RNA

A

a. Decreased carbohydrate utilization

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9
Q

Which of the following is not a diabetogenic hormone?

a. Cortisol
b. Growth hormone
c. Glucokinase
d. Catecholamines

A

c. Glucokinase

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10
Q

In what area of the brain is antidiuretic hormone primarily formed?

a. Paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus
b. Supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus
c. Ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus
d. Acurate nuclei of the hypothalamus

A

b. Supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus

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11
Q

Which of the below statements is true concerning Angiotensin II?

a. It increases secretion of aldosterone via activation of the adrenal cortex
b. It activates pre ganglionic sympathetic neurons to release epinephrine
c. It decreases sodium reabsorption at the renal tubules
d. It inhibits vasopressin release

A

a. It increases secretion of aldosterone via activation of the adrenal cortex

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12
Q

Which is a correct statements concerning somatostatin?

a. It stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine
b. It is secreted into circulation by D cells in the pancreatic islets
c. It stimulates contraction of the gallbladder
d. It is produced by the S cells in the SI

A

b. It is secreted into circulation by D cells in the pancreatic islets

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13
Q

Which stimulates secretion of exocrine pancreatic enzymes?

a. Secretin
b. Cholecystokinin
c. Acetylcholamine
d. Somatostatin

A

b. Cholecystokinin

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14
Q

Which stimulates secretion of a sodium bicarbonate solution by pancreatic ductal epithelium?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Secretin
c. Cholecystokinin
d. Somatostatin

A

b. Secretin

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15
Q

Which statement is false regarding glucagon?

a. Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans in response to low blood glucose
b. It activates adenylcyclase and formation of the second messenger cAMP
c. Increases malonyl CoA by increasing its conversion from acetyl CoA
d. Activates adipose cell lipase therefore increasing the amount of FFA available for energy

A

c. Increases malonyl CoA by increasing its conversion from acetyl CoA

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16
Q

Which of the statements is false regarding the regulation of pancreatic secretion?

a. Somatostatin is released from the islets of Langerhans and inhibits acinar cell secretions
b. Cholecystokinin is released from the upper small intestines and causes release of pancreatic digestive enzymes
c. Acetylcholine is released from the parasympathetic nerve endings and stimulates the acinar cells to release pancreatic digestive enzymes
d. Secretin is released from the upper SI and causes release of bicarbonate rich water solution from the acinar cells.

A

d. Secretin is released from the upper SI and causes release of bicarbonate rich water solution from the acinar cells.

17
Q

Which stimulates the secretion of water solution and sodium bicarbonates by the pancreatic ductal epithelium?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Cholecystokinin
c. Gastrin
d. Secretin

A

d. Secretin

18
Q

Vasopressin binds to the ______ receptor on the ______ membrane of a ______ cell?

a. V1; luminal; collecting duct
b. V2; luminal; collecting duct
c. V1; apical; distal tubular
d. V2; apical; distal tubular

A

b. V2; luminal; collecting duct

19
Q

Which of the following anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) receptors is responsible for the insertion of aquaporin channels on the luminal surface of the cells of the distal tubules and collecting ducts of nephrons?

a. V1
b. V1b
c. V2
d. V3

A

c. V2

20
Q

Which effect of insulin is the most important in the promotion and pathophysiology of diabetic ketoacidosis, when insulin is lacking?

a. Cellular uptake of glucose
b. Inhibition of lipolysis
c. Inhibition of glucagon release
d. Inhibition of gluconeogenesis

A

b. Inhibition of lipolysis

21
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about the activation of the insulin receptor?

a. Within seconds after insulin binding, the majority of the body’s cells markedly increase their uptake of glucose such as the muscle cells, adipose cells, and neurons in the brain.
b. The insulin receptor is an enzyme-linked receptor where the beta subunits that protrude into the cell become autophosphorylated upon insulin binding
c. Binding of the insulin receptor leads to increase in cell membrane permeability to substances such as amino acids, K ions and phosphate ions.
d. Insulin-receptor substrates (IRS) become phosphorylated by tyrosine kinase which is activated by the autophosphorylation of the insulin receptor

A

a. Within seconds after insulin binding, the majority of the body’s cells markedly increase their uptake of glucose such as the muscle cells, adipose cells, and neurons in the brain.

22
Q

Which of the following results in insulin secretion?

a. Neural stimulation of pancreatic beta cells
b. Sulfonylureas binding to block ATP sensitive K+ channels
c. Hyperglycemia
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

23
Q

Which of these statements regarding angiotensin II is incorrect?

a. Stimulation of ATI receptors results in systemic vasodilation
b. Angiotensin II directly stimulates the proximal tubule to result in increased renal sodium and water resorption
c. Decreases fluid loss by the kidney by restricting blood flow
d. Stimulates aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex

A

a. Stimulation of ATI receptors results in systemic vasodilation

24
Q

Parathyroid hormone does NOT induce which of the following?

a. Mobilization of phosphate from bone
b. Mobilization of bicarbonate from bone
c. Activation of Vit D3 to its active form
d. Reduction of renal tubular phosphate reabsorption
e. Reduction of renal tubular bicarbonate reabsorption

A

e. Reduction of renal tubular bicarbonate reabsorption

25
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the pathophysiology of pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction?

a) Benign adenoma of pars intermedia and occasionally the pars distalis of the pituitary gland.
b) Hyperinsulinemia results from increased pancreatic insulin secretion in response to reduced insulin sensitivity.
c) Inflammatory mediator production by adipose tissues and altered adipokine secretion by adipose tissues.
d) Neurodegenerative disease with loss of dopaminergic inhibitory input to the melanotropes of the pars intermedia.

A

d) Neurodegenerative disease with loss of dopaminergic inhibitory input to the melanotropes of the pars intermedia.

26
Q

A 16 Welsh pony mare presents for evaluation of polyuria and polydipsia. Further testing reveals an inability to concentrate urine in response to water deprivation, but administration of exogenous AVP (arginine vasopressin) resulted in an increase in urine concentration and a decrease in urine volume. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Central diabetes insipidus
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
d) Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction

A

a) Central diabetes insipidus

27
Q

Which of the following is most consistent with a diagnosis of pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction?

a) ACTH concentration of 55pg/mL sampled in September.
b) ACTH concentration of 122 pg/mL at 10 minutes following IV administration of 1.0 mg thyrotropin-releasing hormone sampled in February.
c) Insulin concentration > 50 µU/mL in a horse fed 1 flake of hay 6-12 hours prior to sampling. Sampled in July.
d) Cortisol concentration of 0.5 mg/dL 19 hours following administration of 0.04 mg/kg dexamethasone IM sampled in April.

A

b) ACTH concentration of 122 pg/mL at 10 minutes following IV administration of 1.0 mg thyrotropin-releasing hormone sampled in February.

28
Q

Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the actions of insulin?

a. Promotes muscle glucose uptake and metabolism.
b. Promotes conversion of excess glucose into fatty acids and inhibits gluconeogenesis in the liver
c. Promotes fat synthesis and storage.
d. Promotes the action of hormone-sensitive lipase.

A

d. Promotes the action of hormone-sensitive lipase.