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LAIM Test > Clin path > Flashcards

Clin path Flashcards

1
Q

Heinz bodies are aggregates of:

a. RNA
b. Disulfide bond-linked cross-linked reduced hemoglobin
c. Disulfide bond-linked cross-linked oxidized hemoglobin
d. Ionic bond-linked cross-linked oxidized carboxyhemoglobin

A

c. Disulfide bond-linked cross-linked oxidized hemoglobin ??

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2
Q

Which of the following may be a cause of spurious hypocalcemia?

a. Icteric serum sample
b. Hemolysed serum sample
c. Lipemic serum sample
d. Non-fasted serum sample

A

a. Icteric serum sample

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3
Q

Which is NOT a property of cancer cells?

a. Insensitivity to antigrowth signals
b. Ability to recruit and sustain angiogenesis
c. Cancer cells may proliferate indefinately due to prescence of telomerase
d. Although polyclonal in origin, tumors are more likely to be monoclonal

A

d. Although polyclonal in origin, tumors are more likely to be monoclonal

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4
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the five isoenzymes of alkaline phosphatase (ALP)?

a) Cardiac muscle, kidney, liver, bone, white blood cells.
b) Liver, bone, kidney, skeletal muscle, placenta.
c) Placenta, bone, macrophages, intestinal epithelium, liver.
d) Skeletal muscle, colostrum, intestinal epithelium, kidney, pancreas.

A

c) Placenta, bone, macrophages, intestinal epithelium, liver.

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5
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding aspartate aminotransferase (AST)?

a) AST is specific for liver, but lacks sensitivity.
b) Concentrations may be elevated during severe hemolysis.
c) Concurrent elevations in LDH-2 indicate liver disease.
d) Concentrations > 2x the higher end of the reference range indicate biliary disease.

A

b) Concentrations may be elevated during severe hemolysis.

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6
Q

Elevations in bile acids to > 20 umol/L measured using a single post-prandial sample are specific for liver disease in which of the following species?

a) Llama
b) Dog
c) Horse
d) Pig

A

c) Horse

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7
Q

Which of the following abnormalities can result in aplastic anemia?

a. Hypophosphatemia
b. Hypocupremia
c. Selenium deficiency
d. Manganese toxicity

A

b. Hypocupremia

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8
Q

Zinc is an integral part of all the following enzymes except:

a. Carbonic anhydrase
b. Lactate dehydrogenase
c. Carboxypeptidase
d. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

A

d. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

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9
Q

Culturing a methicillin-resistant S. aureus is suggestive of the presence of which gene that encodes PBP-2a?

a. mecA gene
b. macA gene
c. scc2A gene
d. pvl gene

A

a. mecA gene

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10
Q

The ion that is predominately responsible for the resting membrane of a neuron is:

a. Ca
b. Na
c. K
d. Cl

A

c. K

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11
Q

The total Ca concentration in plasma is not altered by

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Hypoalbuminemia
c. Calcitrol deficiency
d. Renal tubular disease
e. Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

b. Hypoalbuminemia

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12
Q

The concentration in plasma of which of the following electrolyte is NOT markedly altered by IV dextrose administration:

a. K
b. Mg
c. Phosphorus
d. Ca

A

d. Ca

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13
Q

Which of the following is not a clinical sign commonly associated with severe hypophosphatemia?

a. Muscle weakness
b. Anorexia
c. Increased osmotic fragility of red blood cells
d. Increased renal bicarbonate loss
e. Metabolic alkalosis

A

e. Metabolic alkalosis

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14
Q

Which of the following parameters, obtained from an automated blood gas analyzer, are directly measured rather than calculated?

a. pH, pCO2, pO2, HCO3, BE
b. pH, pCO2, pO2, BE
c. pH, pO2, HCO3
d. pH, pCO2, pO2
e. pH, pCO2, BE

A

d. pH, pCO2, pO2

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15
Q

What is the major buffer present in urine of monogastric animals?

a. Bicarbonate
b. Phosphorus
c. Ammonia
d. Creatinine
e. Uric acid

A

b. Phosphorus

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16
Q

Which of the following does not result in hyperkalemia?

a. Metabolic acidemia
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Hyperosmolality
d. Diabetes insipidus

A

d. Diabetes insipidus

17
Q

What is the predominant phosphorus-containing compound in plasma at physiologic blood pH?

a. H3PO4
b. (HPO4)2-
c. H2PO4-
d. (HPO3)-2
e. (H2PO3)-

A

b. (HPO4)2-

18
Q

75Which of the following statements regarding the Standard Bicarbonate concentration is correct?

a. The Standard Bicarbonate concentration is the temp-corrected (37 C) actual the Bicarbonate concentration in plasma
b. The Standard Bicarbonate concentration is the bicarb corrected to normal the normal pCO2 at 37 C
c. The bicarbonate concentration corrected to normal the normal pCO2 at 37 C and a plasma protein concentration of 5.2 mg/dL
d. Is less accurate than the actual bicarbonate concentration to determine the severity of a metabolic acidosis

A

b. The Standard Bicarbonate concentration is the bicarb corrected to normal the normal pCO2 at 37 C

19
Q

Which of the following is false regarding copper metabolism?

A. MURR is implicated in the lysosomal storage of copper but not in its excretion into the bile

B. The ATP-ases ATP7A and ATP7B transport copper to the cuproenzymes and increases excretion of excess copper into the bile

C. Ceruloplasmine is a metalloprotein that binds copper and is found in the serum

D. Metallothionein 1 A is an intracellular protein capable of chelating several metal ions

A

A. MURR is implicated in the lysosomal storage of copper but not in its excretion into the bile

20
Q

CO2 in blood is predominantly transported as which of the following?

A. Dissolved CO2

B. CO2 bound to protein

C. HCO3

D. H2CO3

A

C. HCO3

21
Q

Which of the following electrolytes has the highest urine concentration?

A. Na

B. K

C. Cl

D. P

A

B. K

22
Q

What is the right temperature to perform the Coombs test for IMHA?

A

Washed red blood cells from the patient are incubated with the Coombs reagent at 37 C. The Coombs reagent is polyvalent and contains species-specific anti-IgG, anti-IgM and anti-C antibodies. If any of these are present on the patient’s red blood cells, crosslinking will occur (microscopically as agglutination). Anti-IgG is the more common.

23
Q

Which of the following can be associated with primary polycythemia in horse?

a. Splenic contraction
b. Dehydration
c. Paraneoplastic syndrome
d. Sepsis

A

c. Paraneoplastic syndrome

24
Q

Which of the following statements is true according to thyroid function in foals?

a. Sick and premature foals had higher resting concentration of total T3 compare to normal foals at 24-36 hours after birth.
b. Concentrations of total T4 and free T4 are not different between normal, sick or premature foals at 24-36 hours after birth.
c. Total T3 and T4 are higher, up to 10 times the normal reference range for adults horses at 2-3 days of age, during the first month following birth.
d. TSH concentration is more than twice the normal adult value during the first month following birth.

A

c. Total T3 and T4 are higher, up to 10 times the normal reference range for adults horses at 2-3 days of age, during the first month following birth.

25
Q

Which of the following can be associated with primary polycythemia in horse?

a. Splenic contraction
b. Dehydration
c. Paraneoplastic syndrome
d. Sepsis

A

c. Paraneoplastic syndrome

26
Q

What is the structure identify by the yellow arrows in this image? a. Döhle bodies

b. Anaplasma marginale
c. Babesia caballi
d. Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae

A

a. Döhle bodies

27
Q

The neutrophil shown in the picture, is most likely to have come from which of the following species:

a. Horse
b. Cat
c. Llama
d. Pig

A

c. Llama

28
Q

What are the 3 main steps for primary hemostasis?

A

Platelet adhesion, platelet secretion, and platelet aggregation.

  • Platelet adhesion - Vascular injury results in exposure of vWF, which acts as a bridge between endothelial collagen and platelet surface receptors promoting platelet adhesion.
  • Platelet secretion - Degranulation of both granules occurs, calcium is released and binds to phospholipids on the activated platelet, providing surface area for assembly of coagulation factors.
  • Platelet aggregation - Thromboxane A2 (TxA2) and ADP is produced by activated platelets and helps further platelet aggregation and fibrinogen deposition. Thrombin catalyses the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, which adds to the stability of the plug (secondary hemostasis – process of creating fibrin and a more secure plug) .
29
Q

Mention 3 disorders that would cause primary hemostasis defect.

A

Abnormalities of the vessel wall or qualitative/quantitative defects of platelets such as:

30
Q

In the coagulation cascade, which are the vitamin K dependent factors?

A

Factor II (Prothrombin), factor VII (stable factor / proconvertin), factor IX (Christmas /Antihaemophilic B) and factor X (Stuart-Prower factor)

31
Q

In the coagulation cascade, which factors are considered the fibrinogen family factors?

A

Fibrinogen (Factor I), factor V (Proacclerin/ labile factor), factor VIII (Antihaemophilic A) and factor XIII (Fibrin-stablishing factor)

32
Q

What factor is the starting factor for the common pathway in the coagulation cascade?

  • What are the main functions and characteristics of that factor?
A

Factor X (Stuart-Prower factor) - Activates factor II (Prothrombin) and forms a prothrombinase complex with factor V (proaccelerin).

It is the start of the extrinsic pathway after TF is activated, binding to factor VII and Ca, which activates factor X.

33
Q
A

LAIM Test (20 decks)

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