peds Flashcards

1
Q

vernix

A

waxy stuff on newborns

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2
Q

when are fontanelles closed

A

2 years

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3
Q

incomplete breech

A

one leg in extension

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4
Q

frank breech

A

both legs extended

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5
Q

complete breech

A

both legs flexed

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6
Q

not all breach babies have atypical hip joint T/F

A

TRUE

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7
Q

typical ROM for newborns

A

excessive flexion, limited ext

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8
Q

writhing

A

overall pattern of infant motion

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9
Q

asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

A

look toward extended arm

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10
Q

creeping

A

on their hands and knees (belly and pelvis off)

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11
Q

plantigrade, bear walking

A

hands and feet

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12
Q

high guard

A

arms up

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13
Q

cruising

A

on feet, but using hands on elevated surface

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14
Q

assessment components

A
  • weight bearing position
  • antigravity movement
  • symmetrical or asymmetrical
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15
Q

neuromaturational theory

A

development tightly tied to CNS development, motor development is cephalocaudal and proximal to distal

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16
Q

dynamic systems theory

A

individual, task, and environmental constraints, motor behavior is made up of periods of stability and instability

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17
Q

most common childhood motor disability

A

CP

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18
Q

what does W-sitting mean?

A

not necessarily abnormal

can also be seen with hypo (wides BOS) or hypertonia (limited ROM)

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19
Q

capacity

A

the best the child can do in a standardized setting

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20
Q

performance

A

what the child can typically do

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21
Q

AIMS subscales

A

prone, supine, sitting, standing

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22
Q

scoring AIMS

A

determine window (least-most mature observed items) and score each as observed or not observed, 1 pt. each

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23
Q

5 domains of development

A
  • physical motor
  • social/emotional
  • communication/language
  • cognitive
  • adaptive
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24
Q

joint attention

A

looking where someone is pointing, more likely after there is locomotor ability

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25
Q

encephalocele

A

NT defect, in occipital region, brain damage is typically focal

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26
Q

anencephaly

A

absence of most of the brain, die within a few hours

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27
Q

hydranencephaly

A

absence of cerebral cortex, can live a few years

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28
Q

x-linked disorders

A

muscular dystrophy
fragile x
rett syndrome
hemophilia

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29
Q

chronological age

A

time elapsed since birth

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30
Q

corrected age

A

chronological age - # of weeks born before 40 weeks gestation
used up to age 3

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31
Q

conceptional age

A

time elapsed from fertilization and day of delivery (shouldn’t be used clinically unless IVF or something)

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32
Q

gestational age

A

time between first day of last menstrual period and day of delivery
also conceptional age + 2 weeks

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33
Q

post-menstrual age

A

gestration + chronological age (used for preterm before due date)

34
Q

full-term birth

A

37-42 weeks

35
Q

birth weight

A

low BW: 2,500g
very low BW: less than 1500g
extremely low BW: less than 1000g

36
Q

small for gestational age

A

below 10th percentiale

37
Q

large for gestational age

A

above 90th percentile

38
Q

Apgar stands for

A

appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration

get two points each

39
Q

normal Apgar score

A

8-10

40
Q

critically low Apgar score

A

0-3, needs resuscitation

41
Q

when does surfactant develop

A

between 24-34 weeks

42
Q

common brain injuries of premies

A
intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH): bleeding into ventricles
periventricular leukomalacia (PVL): ischemia of white matter near ventricles, increases rate of CP
43
Q

subsystems of behavioral development

A
  • autonomic
  • motor
  • state
  • attention/interaction
  • self-regulatory
44
Q

GMFC levels

A

Level I: walks without restrictions; limitations in more advanced gross motor skills
Level II: walks without assistive device; limitations in community mobility
Level III: walks with device; limitations in community mobility
Level IV: limited ambulation or self-mobility; primary mode of mobility is a wheelchair
Level V: severe limitations in self-mobility and function even with use of assistive technology

45
Q

who can use GMFM-66

A

cerebral palsy or acute TBI

46
Q

when does an arch in the foot develop

A

4 years old

47
Q

motor performance

A

temporary change in motor behavior

48
Q

motor learning

A

relatively permanent change

49
Q

motor control

A

ability to regulate or direct the mechanisms essential to movement

50
Q

neuromaturational model for motor control

A

unfolding of predetermined patterns, SUPPORTED by the environment
more complex behaviors = higher levels of neurological systems
cephalocaudal direction

51
Q

Rood treatment approach

A

really heavy on sensory

52
Q

should you fade feedback with children?

A

can be detrimental if done too quickly

53
Q

purposes of behaviors

A

escape
attention
tangible
sensory

54
Q

behavior ABCs

A

Antecedent
Behavior
Consequence

55
Q

dyspraxia vs. apraxia

A

apraxia is due to a lesion, dyspraxia is developmental

56
Q

somatodyspraxia

A

sensory impairments based in tactile, vestibular and proprioceptive discrimination

57
Q

four phases of swallow

A
  • oral predatory phase
  • oral phase
  • pharyngeal phase
  • esophageal phase
58
Q

true sucking develops by ___ months

A

4 months

59
Q

can begin introducing solid foods at ____ months

A

6 months

60
Q

types of tone in CP

A

spastic
athetoid - writhing
ataxic
hypotonic

61
Q

GMFM-88 can be used for children with other diagnoses (T/F)

A

TRUE

Down syndrome and osteogenesis imperfecta (also acute TBI which is true for 66)

62
Q

GMFM is based on how much of a task the child can complete, not how well (T/F)

A

TRUE

63
Q

GMFM-66 can be used to determine impact of orthoses (T/F)

A

TRUE

64
Q

what tract controls muscle tone?

A

vestibulospinal tract

65
Q

anteversion

A

head of femur anteriorly in acetabulum –> toeing out

66
Q

retrotorsion

A

femur bone is twisted outward–> toeing out

67
Q

anteversion and retrotorsion cause

A

toeing out

68
Q

retroversion and antetorsion cause

A

toeing in

69
Q

what age do we see developed arches?

A

4 years

70
Q

tarsal coalition

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, or osseous fusion of midfoot or hind foot
limited STJ motion, recurring lateral ankle sprain

71
Q

ASD Drugs

A

risperidone and aripiprazole

72
Q

which shunt direction causes cyanosis

A

right to left (supposed to go to lungs, but goes to body instead)

73
Q

atrial septal defect

A

foramen ovale persists

74
Q

ventricular septal defect

A

opening in intraventricular septum

75
Q

atrioventricular septal defect

A

parts of atrial and ventricular septum remain open

76
Q

transposition of the great arteries

A

the aorta and pulmonary arteries are switched, PROFOUND CYANOSIS, surgical intervention needed

77
Q

surfactant production begins at

A

32 weeks

78
Q

respiratory distress syndrome

A

insufficient surfactant in lungs

79
Q

bronchopulmonary disease (BPD)

A

chronic lung disease

results from prolonged exposure to mechanical ventilation

80
Q

asthma

A

bronchi overreact to trigger, extreme prematurity –> increased risk

81
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

inherited disease where body produces unusually thick, sticky mucus

82
Q

arthrogryposis

A

congenital joint contracture in two or more areas of the body