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COMP EXAM > MSK 2 > Flashcards

MSK 2 Flashcards

1
Q

C sign is indicative of

A

femoroacetabular impingement

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2
Q

labral tear tests

A

+FABER to EADIR
+Thomas test
+resisted SLR
+audible click

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3
Q

ligamentum teres rupture tests

A

+O’donnell test

+log roll test possible

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4
Q

what does…
+ SLS
+ resisted external derogation test … =?

A

GTPS

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5
Q

secondary OA

A

result of prior damage… usually under 40

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6
Q

CPR for hip OA

A 
3/5 = 68%
4/5 = 91%
squatting is painful
active hip flex causes lateral pain
scour with add causing lateral or groin pain
passive IR less than 25
active hip ext. causing pain
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7
Q

Adults >50 y.o. with hip OA meet ≥ 1 of the following criteria:

A
  • Moderate anterior or lateral hip pain with WB activities
  • AM stiffness < 1 hr duration after waking
  • Hip IR < 24° OR IR and hip flexion 15° less than nonpainful side
  • Increased pain with PROM hip IR
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8
Q

what is FABER test for

A

FAI, SIJ

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9
Q

what is FABER to EADIR test for

A

internal snapping hip, labrum

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10
Q

what is FADIR test for

A

FAI

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11
Q

what is Flex + IR + axial load test for

A

posterior labrum tear

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12
Q

what is scour of the hip for

A

intra-articular pathology

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13
Q

what is over test for

A

ITB tightness or GTPS irritant

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14
Q

what is Thomas test for

A

hip flexor/rectus femoris tightness

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15
Q

what is resisted external derogation test for

A

GTPS

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16
Q

what is ely’s test for

A

rectus femoris length

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17
Q

tests for meniscus injury

A
  • mcmurray
  • apley compression
  • thessaly’s
  • joint line tenderness
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18
Q

most common avulsion fracture in pediatric knee

A

tibial eminence fractures

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19
Q

osgood-schlatter

A

traction on tibial tubercle

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20
Q

sinding Larson Johansson (SLJ)

A

irritation of growth plate at inferior pole of patella caused by repetitive traction

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21
Q

osteochondritis dessicans (OCD)

A

focal lesion or injury of the subchondral bone region

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22
Q

after how many weeks should pregnant patients avoid supine?

A

28 weeks, no more than 3 minutes

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23
Q

common numbness in pregnancy

A

called neuralgia parasthetica (lateral femoral cutaneus compressed under inguinal ligament)

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24
Q

pregnant women shouldn’t exercise with a BP over…

A

140/90

could be a sign of preeclampsia

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25
Q

gravida 3 means

A

pregnant 3 times

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26
Q

para 2 means

A

live birth 2 times

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27
Q

pelvic floor mm. anterior to posterior

A

puborectalis
pubococcygeus
iliococcygeus
coccygeus

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28
Q

oligohydramniosis

A

decreased amount of amniotic fluid

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29
Q

polyhydraminosis

A

increased amount of amniotic fluid

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30
Q

cervical incompetence

A

excessive dilation of the cervix

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31
Q

placenta previa

A

placenta implants low in the uterus

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32
Q

placenta abruptia

A

separation of he placenta from the uterine wall

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33
Q

scheuermann’s disease/ juvenile kyphosis

A

avascular necrosis of the vertebral endplate of T6-T12
12-15 y.o.
mid thoracic pain

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34
Q

ankylosing spondylitis

A

17-45 y.o. men

chronic inflammatory disease

35
Q

reiter’s syndrome

A

reactive arthritis to a bacterial infection
white males ages 20-40
usually resolves in 12 months
inflammation of eyes, ulcers on penis, rashes, heart problems

36
Q

4 subgroups of back pain patients

A

traction
directional preference
stabilization
mobilization/manipulation

37
Q

lumbar traction classification

A

radicular symptoms
don’t centralize with movement tests or worsened
probably not effective treatment

38
Q

SI mobilization syndrome tests

A

3 out of 4 tests

  1. PSIS asymmetry
  2. standing flexion test
  3. supine to long-sitting tees
  4. prone knee flexion test
39
Q

lumbar manip CRP

A

-symptoms less than 16 days
- less than 35 deg IR for 1 hip
-hypomobility w./ spring test
-FABQ less than 19
-no symptoms distal to knee
4 or more 95%
3 or more 68%

40
Q

lumbar CRP stabilization

A
  • less than 40 y.o.
  • average SLR more than 91
  • aberrant motion with lumbar ARPM
  • positive prone instability test
41
Q

nutation

A

anterior sacral tilt and posterior iliac tilt

42
Q

counternutation

A

posterior sacral tilt (flexion of sacrum cervix curves under) and anterior iliac tilt

43
Q

abnormal findings of supine to sit

A

ALS: anterior goes long to short

posterior is opposite

44
Q

prone knee flexion test

A

leg length test, if shorter/longer in prone but same in knee flexion, its innominate not tibia length

45
Q

SIJ clusters

A
  1. compression
  2. distraction
  3. thigh thrust
  4. gaenslen’s test
  5. sacral thrust/faber
46
Q

Bristow maneuver

A

align the pelvis by bridging up and straighten legs one at a time

47
Q

pelvis fractures

A

Type A: girdle intact
Type B: not intact
Type C: SI joint not connected

48
Q

muscle energy technique of pelvis

A

anterior rotation: hamstrings and glutei max
posterior rotation: iliacus and rectus femoris
inflare: adductors
outflare: glutes

49
Q

autogenic inhibition

A

isometric contraction followed by a period of relative hypotonicity

50
Q

reciprocal inhibition

A

during and following an isometric contraction, antagonist will be reciprocally inhibited

51
Q

how do you appreciate inflare/outflare

A

location of umbilicus in relation to ASIS

52
Q

Canadian c-spine rules

A

any high risk factor (over 65, dangerous mechanism, paresthesia in extremities)? yes –> X-ray
any low-risk factor (simple rearend, sitting in ED, ambulatory at any time, delayed onset of neck pain, absence of midline tenderness)? no –> X-ray
able to rotate neck 45 degrees each way? no –> x-ray

53
Q

what to screen for cervical/shoulder pain?

A

cardiopulmonary, gastrointestinal

54
Q

5 Ds and 3 Ns

A 
Dizziness
Diplopia
Dysarthria
Dysphagia
Drop attacks
Nausea
Nystagmus
Numbness
55
Q

cervical special tests for instability

A

alar ligament test
sharp-purser test
transverse ligament stress test

56
Q

cervical special tests for neurologic issues

A

spurlings
distraction
shoulder and test
Lhermitte’s sign

57
Q

all rotation in c-spine comes from where?

A

C1-C2

58
Q

lateral flexion comes from ___ c-spine

A

lower

59
Q

what’s compressed in TOS

A

subclavian a. and v. and brachial plexus

60
Q

what is schmorls node?

A

degeneration of the endplate, disc material can get in

61
Q

discs are anistorophic what does that mean?

A

physical property that has a different value when measured in different directions

62
Q

types of herniated discs

A

bulging/protruding: annulus intact
prolapsed/ruptured: annulus failed, but piece attached
extrusions: segment prolapsed AND separated from core
sequestered: like extrusion but farther out

63
Q

most frequent levels of C-spine disc herniations

A

C6-C7 and then C5-C6

64
Q

cervical radiculopathy predictors (4)

A
  1. ULTT A
  2. spurling
  3. distraction
  4. cervical rotation less than 60
65
Q

vacuum phenomena

A

a collection of gas within the disc space, vertebral body, apophyseal joint or spinal canal

66
Q

is it more likely to have a fusion in the lumbar or cervical region?

A

cervical spine

67
Q

osteoporosis bone density level

A

2.5 SD below the young adult mean

68
Q

why does smoking delay healing?

A

hemoglobin likes CO more then O2… less oxygen delivery

69
Q

cervical classification categories

A 
centralization
mobility
exercise/conditioning
pain control
headache
70
Q

thoracic manip CPR

A

Clinical Prediction Rule:
Symptom duration <38 days
Positive expectation that manipulation would help
Side-to-side differences in cervical ROM > 10°
Pain with P/A spring testing of middle c-spine

71
Q

what is a mulligan PILL respone

A

pain free, instant, long lasting

72
Q

what does TNM mean in oncology

A 
T= tumor size
N= nodal involvement
M= number of met sites
73
Q

chemo drugs that cause pulmonary toxicity

A

bleomycin: antitumor antibiotic

74
Q

chemo drugs that cause neurotoxicity

A

platinum agents

75
Q

chemo drugs that cause rheumatic toxicity

A

almost any chemotherapeutic drug

76
Q

restorative rehab in onco

A

minimal or no residual deficit

77
Q

supportive rehab in onco

A

pt. will have persistent disability but can minimize this

78
Q

when does fatigue peak for radiation and chemo

A

radiation: highest at end of treatment, builds up during
chemo: peaks just after

79
Q

metabolic oncologic emergency

A

hypercalcemia (normal 9-11) caused by malignancy, immobilization, poor nutrition, vomiting

80
Q

chvostek test for jaw

A

tests CN VII, tap parotid gland, + is twitch

81
Q

cholecystitis

A

gallbladder, pain in scapula and T-spine after high fat meal

82
Q

c sign when opening to R means

A

R hypomobility

83
Q

S sign when opening means

A

hyper mobility

COMP EXAM (18 decks)

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