Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Do you suction the nose first or do the cord ABG?

A

Suction

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2
Q

How many weeks defines a term neonate?

A

38

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3
Q

How many weeks defines late preterm?

A

34-37

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4
Q

What’s a normal RR in a neonate?

A

40-60 breaths/min

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5
Q

What’s a normal HR in a neonate?

A

120-160 beats per minute

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6
Q

T/F: a low score on the Apgar is not associated with future cerebral palsy?

A

True

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7
Q

What are the 5 criteria of the apgar scoring?

A
  1. Appearance
  2. Pulse
  3. Grimace
  4. Activity
  5. Respiration
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8
Q

What’s the most likely cause of conjunctivitis at 1 day after birth?

A

Chemical irritation

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9
Q

What’s the most likely cause of conjunctivitis at 2-7 days after birth?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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10
Q

What’s the most likely cause of conjunctivitis at 7+ days after birth?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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11
Q

What’s the most likely cause of conjunctivitis at 3+ weeks?

A

Herpes

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12
Q

What’s the mnemonic to remember the causes of newborn conjunctivitis by time after birth?

A

My chemical romance is gone with the track, herpes

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13
Q

What’s a cause of intracranial bleeding 1 week after birth?

A

Vit K deficiency (if didn’t receive the shot at birth)

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14
Q

What’s the most common intraocular malignancy of childhood?

A

Retinoblastoma

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15
Q

Is Rb a tumor suppressor?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Which chromosome is Rb on?

A

Chromosome 13

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17
Q

How does retinoblastoma present?

A

White reflex in a child under age 3

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18
Q

What will show up on dilated opthalmologic exam in retinoblastoma?

A

White retinal mass with friable consistency

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19
Q

Do you biopsy retinoblastoma?

A

No, there is risk of seeding

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20
Q

How do anesthetics affect the neonate?

A

Respiratory and CNS depression

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21
Q

How do barbiturates affect the neonate?

A

Respiratory and CNS depression, dilated pupils

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22
Q

How does magnesium sulfate affect the neonate?

A

Respiratory depression

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23
Q

How do sulfonamides affect the neonate?

A

Displaces bilirubin from albumin

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24
Q

How do NSAIDs affect the neonate?

A

Premature closure of the PDA

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25
Q

How does warfarin affect the neonate?

A

Facial dysmorphism and chondrodysplasia

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26
Q

How does isotretinoin affect the neonate?

A

Facial and ear anomalies, congenital heart disease

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27
Q

How does phenytoin affect the neonate?

A

Hypoplastic nails, IUGR

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28
Q

How does DES affect the neonate?

A

Clear-cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina or cervix

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29
Q

How does tetracycline affect the neonate?

A

Enamel hypoplasia, discolored teeth

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30
Q

How does valproate/carbamazapine affect the neonate?

A

Intellectual disability, neural tube defects

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31
Q

How do ACE inhibitors affect the neonate?

A

Craniofacial abnormalities

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32
Q

What bacteria normally helps make vitamin K and clotting factors?

A

E coli

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33
Q

What’s the inheritance pattern of G6PD deficiency?

A

XLR

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34
Q

What’s the inheritance pattern of PKU?

A

AR

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35
Q

What’s the treatment of PKU?

A

Special diet low in phenylalanine

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36
Q

What’s the treatment of galactosemia?

A

Cutting out all lactose-containing products

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37
Q

What’s the inheritance pattern of CAH?

A

AR

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38
Q

What are the 3 main infectious contraindications to breastfeeding?

A
  1. HIV
  2. TB
  3. Herpes of the nipple
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39
Q

Is splenomegaly a normal finding in newbors?

A

Yes

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40
Q

What dx presents with tachypnea within a couple hours of delivery, resolves within 1-5 days?

A

TTN

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41
Q

What dx presents with tachypnea in preterm infants?

A

RDS

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42
Q

If tachypnea in a newborn lasts more than 4 hours, what should be tested?

A

Blood and urine cultures

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43
Q

Is an egg allergy a contraindication to MMR, yellow fever, or influenza vaccine?

A

No

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44
Q

Is a reaction to a previous DPT with fever, or a FH of seizures or SIDS contraindication to vaccinations?

A

No

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45
Q

What’s the diff between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma?

A

Caput is not caput (it crosses suture lines)

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46
Q

Which spinal cord level is Erb palsy?

A

C5-C6

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47
Q

Which spinal cord level is claw hand?

A

C7-C8 +/- T1

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48
Q

Can claw hand also have Horner’s syndrome?

A

Yes

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49
Q

What are the 2 causes of polyhydramnios?

A
  1. Werdnig-Hoffman

2. Intestinal atresia

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50
Q

What are the 2 main causes of oligohydramnios?

A
  1. Renal agenesis/Potter sequence

2. Prune belly (lack of abdominal muscles)

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51
Q

What neonatal syndrome causes airway obstruction and appears as patchy infiltrates and flattening of diaphragm on CXR?

A

Meconium aspiration syndrome

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52
Q

Which neonatal dx occurs in premies and presents with abdominal distension, bilious vomiting, rectal bleeding, and diarrhea, with crepitus?

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

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53
Q

What’s the tx for necrotizing enterocolitis?

A

NG tube, broad spectrum abx, surgery if needed

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54
Q

T/F: diaphragmatic hernia can cause respiratory distress in premies?

A

True, it’s different from a hiatal hernia in adults

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55
Q

What dx is a defect in which intestines and organs form beyond the abdominal wall with a sac covering?

A

Omphalocele

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56
Q

What syndrome is omphalocele associated with?

A

Edwards (trisomy 18)

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57
Q

What 2 things does elevated AFP mean?

A
  1. Neural tube defects

2. Abdominal wall defects

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58
Q

T/F: 90% of umbilical hernias close by age 3?

A

True; if not, surgery is needed

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59
Q

What dx is a wall defect lateral to midline with intestines and organs forming beyond the abdominal wall but without any sac covering?

A

Gastroschisis

“Gasp that’s bad”

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60
Q

What dx is a large, palpable abdominal mass due to hemihypertrophy of one kidney?

A

Wilms tumor

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61
Q

What’s the most common abdominal mass in children?

A

Wilms tumor

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62
Q

What’s the best initial study for Wilms tumor?

A

US

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63
Q

What’s the tx for Wilms tumor?

A

Total nephrectomy with chemo and radiation

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64
Q

What dx is an adrenal medulla tumor similar to pheochromocytoma but with fewer cardiac presentations, with increased vanillyl mandelic acid and metanephrines on urine?

A

Neuroblastoma

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65
Q

What congenital dx is characterized by overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, RVH, and VSD?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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66
Q

What murmur is present in Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Holosystolic murmur at LLS border

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67
Q

What does a CXR show in Tetralogy?

A

Boot shaped heart

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68
Q

How does squatting help in Tetralogy?

A

Increased preload and increased SVR (decreased R to L sunt and decreased pulmonary resistance)

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69
Q

Which 3 trisomies commonly have VSD?

A
  1. Trisomy 21
  2. Trisomy 13
  3. Trisomy 18
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70
Q

There are only 3 holosystolic murmurs:

A
  1. Mitral regurgitation
  2. Tricuspid regurgitation
  3. VSD
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71
Q

What dx presents with early, severe cyanosis, single S2, and egg on a string on CXR?

A

Transposition of the Great Vessels

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72
Q

How do you treat Transposition of the Great Vessels?

A

PG E1 to keep ductus open and 2 surgeries

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73
Q

What’s the prognosis for Transposition of the Great Vessels?

A

Poor, only 1 in 4 will survive the surgeries

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74
Q

What does pulsus alternans signify?

A

LV systolic dysfunction

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75
Q

Which dx presents with gray cyanosis (rather than blue), single S2, hyperdynamic precordium, and a globular shaped heart with pulmonary edema?

A

Hypoplastic L Heart Syndrome

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76
Q

What’s the tx for Hypoplastic L Heart Syndrome?

A

3 surgeries or a heart transplant

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77
Q

What dx occurs when a single trunk emerges from both L and R ventricles and gives rise to all major circulations?

A

Truncus arteriosus

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78
Q

What dx presents with severe dyspnea after birth and early and frequent respiratory infex, as well as single S2 and a systolic ejection murmur?

A

Truncus arteriosus

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79
Q

What’s the tx for truncus arteriosus?

A

Surgery

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80
Q

What will happen if surgery is not performed in truncus arteriosus?

A

Pulmonary HTN

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81
Q

What dx causes no venous return between pulmonary veins and the L atrium, and oxygenated blood instead returns to the SVC, dx with echocardiogram and tx with surgery?

A

Total anomalous pulmonary venous return

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82
Q

What dx presents with severe cyanosis in a newborn with CXR showing decreased pulmonary flow and EKG showing L axis deviation?

A

Tricuspid valve atresia

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83
Q

What’s the tx for tricuspid valve atresia?

A

PG E1, surgical aortopulmonary shunt

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84
Q

What type of hypertrophy occurs due to VSD?

A

RV hypertrophy

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85
Q

Is pansystolic the same as holocystolic?

A

Yes

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86
Q

Do VSD’s usually close?

A

Yes within 1-2 years

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87
Q

If it doesn’t close, do VSD’s need surgery?

A

Yes

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88
Q

What defect can clots pass through in the heart and cause stroke?

A

ASD

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89
Q

Do ASD’s need to be fixed?

A

Yes if symptomatic but most close on their own

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90
Q

How do you close a PDA?

A

Indomethacin

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91
Q

What does a pear shaped heart on CXR indicate?

A

Pericardial effusion

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92
Q

What does a boot-shaped heart on CXR indicate?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

“Tetra is a boot maker”

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93
Q

What does a jug handle appearance on CXR indicate?

A

Primary pulmonary artery HTN

“Bring a jug of PAH to the lab?

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94
Q

What does a “3”-like appearance or rib notching on CXR indicate?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

‘3 Coarctee”

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95
Q

What genetic condition often includes a coarctation of the aorta?

A

Turner’s syndrome

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96
Q

What syndrome presents with cardiac problems and hearing loss?

A

Congenital long QT syndrome

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97
Q

What’s the best medication for long QT syndrome?

A

B-blocker

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98
Q

What condition presents with some of the following: migratory polyarthritis, carditis, erythema marginatum, chorea, fever, elevated ESR?

A

Rheumatic fever

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99
Q

What congenital heart defect has a downwardly displaced tricuspid valve into the R ventricle and is associated with maternal lithium use?

A

Ebstein anomaly

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100
Q

Why does the Ebstein anomaly have a holosystolic murmur?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

101
Q

What dx presents with respiratory sx that improve with neck extension including biphasic stridor, and a statement from parents that their child is a noisy breather?

A

Vascular ring

102
Q

Do vascular rings need surgical correction?

A

Yes

103
Q

When is newborn hyperbilirubinemia considered pathological?

A
  1. Appears on first day of life
  2. Rises >5/day
  3. Rises above 19.5 in a term child
  4. Direct bili rises above 2 at any time
  5. Persists after 2nd week of life
104
Q

What structure in the brain is involved with deposits of bilirubin in untreated hyperbilirubinemia, causing kernicterus?

A

Basal ganglia

105
Q

Does kernicterus cause seizures and hearing loss?

A

Yes

106
Q
Conjugated or unconjugated bili:?
UTI
Gilbert
Crigler-Najjar
Hemolysis
Spherocytosis
G6PD deficiency
A

Unconjugated (indirect)

107
Q

Conjugated or unconjugated bili:?

Cholestasis

A

Conjugated (direct)

108
Q

What’s the tx for infants with bilirubin encephalopathy or failure of phototherapy?

A

Exchange transfusion

109
Q

What type of gaze palsy is associated with kernicterus?

A

Upward gaze palsy

110
Q

What dx is caused by the Uridine diphosphoglucoronic glucoronosyltaransferase 1A1 gene?

A

Gilbert syndrome

111
Q

What’s the most common complication of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula?

A

Aspiration pneumonia

112
Q

What dx presents with vomiting with first feeding, or choking/coughing and cyanosis?

A

Esophageal atresia

113
Q

What’s the best test to diagnose esophageal atresia?

A

CXR

114
Q

What’s the tx for esophageal atresia

A

2-step surgical repair

115
Q

What dx presents with infant projectile vomiting and palpable abdominal mass?

A

Pyloric stenosis

116
Q

What dx will reveal a succession splash on auscultation of the stomach?

A

Pyloric stenosis

117
Q

What is low chloride and low potassium metabolic alkalosis usually caused by?

A

Vomiting

118
Q

What dx has string sign on upper GI series?

A

Pyloric stenosis

119
Q

What dx has donut sign?

A

Intussusception

120
Q

What dx has bird’s beak sign?

A

Achalasia or volvulus

121
Q

What dx has steeple sign?

A

Croup

122
Q

What is olive sign?

A

A palpable mass in pyloric stenosis

“Mike Stennis loves olives”

123
Q

What’s the best initial test for pyloric stenosis?

A

US

124
Q

Does pyloric stenosis require surgical myotomy?

A

Yes

125
Q

What dx presents with a child turning blue during feeding and pink when crying?

A

Choanal atresia

126
Q

What syndrome often goes along with choanal atresia?

A

CHARGE syndrome

127
Q

How is choanal atresia treated?

A

Surgery to perforate the membrane between the pharynx and the nostrils

128
Q

What does CHARGE stand for?

A
Coloboma of the eye
Heart defects
Atresia of the choanae
Retardation of growth
Genital urinary defects
Ear anomalies
129
Q

What dx is a congenital lack of innervation of the distal bowel by the Auerbach plexus?

A

Hirschsprung disease

130
Q

The lack of innervation of the distal bowel in Hirschsprung disease causes a constant _________ of muscle tone?

A

Contracture

131
Q

How does Hirschprung normally present?

A

No passing of meconium for >48 hours or full failure to pass it (usually it happens within 24 hours)

132
Q

What will x-rays show in Hirschprung?

A

Distended bowel loops with lack of air in rectum

133
Q

What will manometry show in Hirschprung?

A

High pressures in the anal sphincter

134
Q

What will full thickness biopsy show in Hirschprung?

A

Lack of ganglionic cells in the submucosa

135
Q

What’s the tx for Hirschprung disease?

A

3 step surgery

136
Q

What anal condition has a high association with Down syndrome?

A

Imperforate anus

137
Q

What dx has a double bubble on CXR?

A

Duodenal atresia

138
Q

What dx presents with onset of biliary vomiting within the first 12 hours of birth?

A

Duodenal atresia

139
Q

What’s the tx of duodenal atresia?

A

Surgical duodenostomy

140
Q

What area of the intestine does volvulus normally occur?

A

Ileum

“That volvo is ill”

141
Q

What 2 risk factors is intussusception associated with?

A
  1. Rotavirus vaccine

2. HSP

142
Q

What type of stool is associated with intusussception?

A

Currant jelly

143
Q

T/F: a sausage-shaped mass can be palpated in the upper R quadrant in intussusception?

A

True

144
Q

What’s the best initial test for intusussception?

A

US

145
Q

What are the most important initial steps for any GI issue?

A

Fluid resuscitation and balancing electrolytes if needed

146
Q

What’s the best tx for intusussception?

A

Air or barium enema

147
Q

What dx presents with massive painless bright red blood per rectum in a male child under age 2?

A

Meckel diverticulum

148
Q

What’s the most accurate test for Meckel diverticulum?

A

Tech99m scan

“Meck 9”

149
Q

What 3 conditions cause bilious vomiting in the infant?

A
  1. Duodenal atresia
  2. Volvulus
  3. Intussusception
150
Q

Meckel diverticulum contains _____ layers of the bowel?

A

All

151
Q

How do you differentiate between Rotavirus, Adenovirus, and Norwalk diarrhea?

A

Rotavirus occurs in the winter and is the most common type; Adenovirus is year-roun, both of those two are <7 days and have fever and emesis; Norwalk is explosive with cramping pain and short-lived (1-2 days)

152
Q

What does air in the bowel wall often mean?

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

153
Q

If necrotizing enterocolitis is suspected, what’s the best first treatment?

A

Vancomycin, metronidazole, or gentamicin

154
Q

T/F: infants of diabetic mothers can be born with hypoglycemia?

A

True; remember that the answer is not insulin!

155
Q

What 5 findings can be present in infants with diabetic mothers?

A
  1. Macrosomia
  2. Small L colon
  3. Cardiac problems
  4. Renal vein thrombosis
  5. Metabolic findings and effects
156
Q

What are the 3 forms of CAH?

A
  1. 21-hydroxylase
  2. 17-a-hydroxylase
  3. 11-beta-hydroxylase
157
Q

What dx presents with a hypotensive or hypertensive child with severe electrolyte abnormalities?

A

CAH

158
Q

What are the effects of CAH on genitals of males and females?

A

Females: ambiguous
Males: Normal

159
Q

What’s the tx for CAH?

A

Fluid and electrolyte replacement plus lifelong steroids

160
Q

Which CAH has hypotension?

A

21

“When you’re 21 you drink and pass out and you get low BP”

161
Q

Which CAH has elevated aldosterone?

A

17-a-hydroxylase

“17-aldosterone-hydroxylase”

162
Q

Which CAH’s have decreased cortisol?

A

All 3

163
Q

Which CAH has decreased hormone levels?

A

17-a-hydroxylase

“When you’re 17 your hormones start decreasing”

164
Q

Which 2 CAH’s have virilized female sex characteristics at birth and normal male?

A

11 and 21

165
Q

Which CAH has normal female sex characteristics at birth and pseudo-hermaphrodite male?

A

17

166
Q

Which dx has beading of the ribs on CXR and bowing of tibia?

A

Rickets

167
Q

Which pediatric MSK disease has click or clunk in the Ortolani and Barlow maneuver?

A

Congenital hip dysplasia

168
Q

What’s the tx for congenital hip dysplasia?

A

Pavlik harness

169
Q

Which pediatric MSK disease has a painful limp and x-rays show joint effusions and widening?

A

Legg-Calve Perthes disease (avascular necrosis of femoral head)

170
Q

What’s the tx for Legg-Calve Perthes?

A

NSAIDS and bilateral surgery

171
Q

Which pediatric MSK disease has an externally rotated leg and x-ray shows widening of the joint space?

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

172
Q

What’s the tx for slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

Internal fixation with pinning

173
Q

What dx presents in a child with recent loss of appetite, intermittent abdominal pain, decreased sleep at night, learning disabilities, and behavioral problems?

A

Lead poisoning

174
Q

What’s the best initial test for lead poisoning?

A

Capillary blood finger-stick

175
Q

At what level is intervention needed for lead poisoning?

A

> 10

176
Q

What’s the treatment for severe lead poisoning (>70)?

A

IV dimercaprol/BAL

177
Q

What’s the treatment for moderate lead poisoning (45-69)?

A

Oral succimer as inpatient

178
Q

What’s the treatment for mild lead poisoning (<45)?

A

Lifestyle change and outpatient follow-up

179
Q

What dx presents in a young athlete with chronic pain over the tibial tubercle, caused by repeated knee extension?

A

Osgood-Schlatter Disease

180
Q

What’s the prognosis for Osgood-Schlatter?

A

Usually resolves in 1-2 years with PT

181
Q

What dx presents with repeated fractures, blue sclerae, and early deafness?

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

182
Q

What’s the most accurate test for osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Skin biopsy analyzed for collagen synthesis

183
Q

Is there a cure for osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

No

184
Q

What type of bone cancer shows up on x-ray as an onionskin pattern due to lytic lesions, is tested for a t(11;22) translocation, and treated with a multidrug chemotherapy/radiation?

A

Ewing sarcoma

185
Q

What type of bone cancer shows up as sclerotic destruction causing a sunburst appearance on x-ray and treatment includes chemo/surgery?

A

Osteogenic sarcoma

186
Q

What type of bone condition shows up on x-ray as round central lucency with a sclerotic margin, treated with NSAIDS for pain because it will resolve on its own?

A

Osteoid osteoma

187
Q

What type of JIA causes a fever for 2+ weeks along with inflammation in one or more joints?

A

Systemic-onset JIA

188
Q

What type of JIA spares the hip and causes uveitis, especially if ANA is positive, and requires an eye exam every 3 mos if ANA+?

A

Oligoarticular JIA

“Oligo sounds like eye”

189
Q

Which chromosome is Marfan syndrome on?

A

15

190
Q

What’s the inheritance pattern of Marfan syndrome?

A

AD

191
Q

What should be done at the time of diagnosis of Marfan’s and then again 6 months later?

A

Transthoracic echocardiogram

192
Q

What dx presents with the following 5 criteria:?

  1. Rash
  2. Mucositis
  3. Edema or erythema of hands/feet
  4. Cervical LAD
  5. Limbic-sparing bilateral conjunctivitis
A

Kawasaki disease

193
Q

What’s the tx for Kawasaki?

A

IVIg and aspirin

194
Q

Do you give steroids for Kawasaki?

A

No, they increase aneurysm formation

195
Q

What are the two most common causes of neonatal sepsis?

A
  1. Pneumonia

2. Meningitis

196
Q

What are the 4 most common organisms causing neonatal sepsis?

A
  1. GBS
  2. E. coli
  3. S. aureus
  4. Listeria monocytogenes
197
Q

What 2 abx treat neonatal sepsis?

A
  1. Ampicillin
  2. Gentamicin

“Kids get amped so you need to treat them gently”

198
Q

What are the TORCHes infections?

A
Toxoplasmosis
Other infex such as Syphilis
Rubella
CMV
Herpes simplex virus
199
Q

Which torch infex presents with chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and multiple ring-enhancing lesions on CT?

A

Toxoplasmosis

200
Q

What’s the tx for toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyrimethamine & sulfadiazine

201
Q

Which torch infex presents with a rash on the palms and soles, snuffles, frontal bossing, Hutchinson 8th nerve palsy, and saddle nose?

A

Syphilis

202
Q

What’s the tx for syphilis?

A

Penicillin

203
Q

Which torch infex presents with PDA, cataracts, deafness, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, blueberry muffin rash, and hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Rubella

204
Q

What’s the tx for Rubella?

A

Supportive care

205
Q

Which torch infex presents with periventricular calcifications with microencephaly, chorioretinitis, hearing loss, and petechiae?

A

CMV

206
Q

What’s the best tx for CMV?

A

Ganciclovir with signs of end organ damage

207
Q

Which torch infex presents with the following pattern of sx:?
Week 1: shock and DIC
Week 2: vesicular skin lesions
Week 3: encephalitis

A

Herpes

208
Q

What’s the best tx for Herpes?

A

Acyclovir

209
Q

Which red rash of childhood presents with multiple highly priuritic vesicles starting on the trunk and progressing to face, possible fever, an is dx by Tzanck smear showing multinucleated giant cells?

A

Varicella (VZV)

210
Q

Which red rash of childhood presents with cough, stuffy nose, and grayish spot on buccal surface; begins on head and moves down?

A

Measles (rubeola; paramyxovirus)

211
Q

Which red rash of childhood starts with fever and URI and progresses to rash with slapped cheek appearance?

A

Fifth disease (erythema infectiosum; parvovirus B19)

212
Q

Which red rash of childhood starts with fever and URI and progresses to diffuse rash?

A

Roseola (HSV 6 & 7)

213
Q

Which red rash of childhood starts with fever and progresses to parotid gland swelling with possible orchitis?

A

Mumps (paramyxovirus)

214
Q

What’s the tx for all red rashes of childhood?

A

Supportive care

215
Q

Which 2 main conditions can cause strawberry tongue?

A
  1. Kawasaki

2. Scarlet fever

216
Q

What organism is scarlet fever caused by?

A

Strep pyogenes

217
Q

Does the rash of scarlet fever blanch easily?

A

Yes

218
Q

Which red rash of childhood presents with pink macules and papules that begin at head and move down, followed by desquamating trunk rash and postauricular LAD?

A

Rubella

219
Q

Which 2 red rashes of childhood start on the face and move down?

A
  1. Measles

2. Rubella

220
Q

Which 1 red rash of childhood starts on the trunk?

A

Varicella

221
Q

Which 2 rashes have vesicles on the palms and soles?

A
  1. Syphilis

2. Hand-foot-mouth

222
Q

Which red rash of childhood has oval shaped vesicles on palms and soles and ulcers in oral mucosa?

A

Hand-foot-mouth (Coxsackie A)

223
Q

What are the 3 most common organisms causing meningitis in the newborn 0-6 mos?

A

GBS
E coli
Listeria

“Newborn brains are like GEL”

224
Q

What are the 4 most common organisms causing meningitis in children 6 mos-6 years?

A

S pneumo
H influe
Enteroviruses
N meningitidis

“SHEN”

225
Q

What are the 4 most common organisms causing meningitis in people age 6 years-60 years?

A

S pneumo
HSV
Enteroviruses
N meningitidis (teens)

“SHEN with a different H because now that they are older they have herpes”

226
Q

What are the 3 most common organisms causing meningitis in older adults age 60+?

A

Gram negative rods
S pneumo
Listeria

“Gramma is negative in her old age and SL”

227
Q

What dx presents with muffled voice, deviated uvula, and decreased or painful ROM of neck/jaw?

A

Retropharyngeal abscess

228
Q

Which dx presents with a seal-like barking cough and a steeple sign?

A

Croup

“The old-fashioned kids with croup go to the church”

229
Q

What’s the way to dx croup?

A

Clinically; you don’t need to do an x-ray

230
Q

How do you differentiate croup from epiglottitis?

A

Croup has hypoxia

231
Q

What’s the tx for mild croup?

A

Steroids

232
Q

What’s the tx for moderate and severe croup?

A

Racemic epinephrine

233
Q

What dx presents with a fever, hot potato voice, drooling in the tripod position, and refusal to lie flat, and x-rays reveal a thumbprint sign?

A

Epiglottitis

234
Q

What vaccine prevents epiglottitis?

A

HiB

235
Q

What dx presents with 14 days of severe congestion, followed by severe coughing episodes with an inspiratory whoop followed by vomiting, and then 14 more days of a decreased frequency of cough, with a butterfly pattern on CXR?

A

Whooping cough (Bordatella pertussis)

236
Q

What’s the best tx for whooping cough?

A

Erythromycin or azithromycin in the first 14 days, afterward it doesn’t help

237
Q

Which dx presents with gray highly vascular pseudomembranous plaques on the pharyngeal wall?

A

Diptheria

238
Q

What’s the tx for diptheria?

A

Antitoxin

239
Q

What’s the immediate tx for acute pediatric seizure?

A

Lorazepam or diazepam

240
Q

What’s the tx for absence seizure?

A

Ethosuximide

241
Q

What’s the tx for seizures presenting with jerky movements in the morning with irregular spike and wave pattern?

A

Valproic acid

242
Q

What dx presents with infantile spasms during the first year of life?

A

West syndrome

243
Q

What’s the tx for West syndrome?

A

ACTH

244
Q

What’s the tx for a partial seizure?

A

Carbamazepine

“Only eat part of your carbs”

245
Q

What’s the tx for a generalized seizure?

A

Valproic acid

246
Q

Which vitamin deficiency presents with Wernicke’s and Beriberi?

A

B1 (Th1amine)

247
Q

Which vitamin is folate?

A

B9

248
Q

What vitamin deficiency presents with diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, and death?

A

Vitamin B3