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Step 2CK > Cardiovascular System 1 > Flashcards

Cardiovascular System 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When might you suspect congenital long QT syndrome?

A

Cardiac syncope; sudden cardiac death in kids

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2
Q

What’s the tx for congenital long QT syndrome?

A

Propranolol and pacemaker

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3
Q

Which antibiotics can cause long QT syndrome (2)?

A
  1. Macrolides

2. Fluoroquinolones

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4
Q

Which psych drugs can cause long QT syndrome (3)?

A
  1. Antipsychotics
  2. TCAs
  3. SSRIs
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5
Q

Which antiemetics can cause long QT syndrome (2)?

A
  1. Ondansetron

2. Granisetron

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6
Q

Which antiarrhythmics can cause long QT syndrome (5)?

A
  1. Quinidine
  2. Procainamide
  3. Flecainide
  4. Amiodarone
  5. Sotalol
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7
Q

What 2 types of drugs can be used in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A
  1. B-blockers

2. Ca channel blockers

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8
Q

In patients with CHF, what does the RAAS system do to the efferent arteriole?

A

Causes preferential vasoconstriction of it to maintain adequate GFR

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9
Q

What’s the PCWP in PE?

A

Normal or low

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10
Q

What’s the PCWP in MI?

A

High

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11
Q

What does acute limb ischemia after MI suggest?

A

Possible embolus from L ventricle thrombus; order echo

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12
Q

What’s Beck’s triad for cardiac tamponade?

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Distended neck veins
  3. Muffled heart sounds
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13
Q

What might be a question stem for cardiac tamponade?

A

Patient who recently had a viral illness; now has weakness and dyspnea

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14
Q

What medication can prevent ventricular remodeling after an MI?

A

Enalapril (or other ACE inhibitors)

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15
Q

What might be the etiology of a young adult with decompensated HF findings?

A

Viral myocarditis

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16
Q

The development of new Afib with rvr during pregnancy likely stems from which childhood illness?

A

Rheumatic fever

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17
Q

What’s a common cause of exertional syncope in elderly patients?

A

Aortic stenosis

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18
Q

What’s “pulsus parvus et tardus?”

A

Delayed and weak carotid pulse

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19
Q

What drugs can stable Afib patients take to stabilize the ventricular rate (3)?

A
  1. B-blockers
  2. Diltiazem
  3. Digoxin
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20
Q

What are the changes to the following parameters after an AV fistula?:

  • Afterload
  • Preload
  • CO
A

Afterload: decreased
Preload: increased
CO: increased

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21
Q

What’s the most common cause of calcifications around the heart in developing countries?

A

TB

22
Q

What are some features of benign murmurs?

A

Early or mid-systolic, grade I/II, decrease when standing

23
Q

What are some features of pathologic murmurs?

A

Harsh, holosystolic, diastolic, grade III, increase with standing/valsalva

24
Q

What post-MI complication can occur acutely?

A

Right ventricular failure

“That’s a cute RV”

25
Q

What 2 post-MI complications can occur acutely or within 3-5 days?

A
  1. Papillary muscle rupture

2. IV septum rupture

26
Q

What post-MI complication can occur between 5 days-2 weeks?

A

Free wall rupture

27
Q

What post-MI complication can occur up to several months later?

A

Left ventricular aneurysm

28
Q

How can you tell the difference between a papillary muscle rupture vs an IV septum rupture?

A

Papillary has a softer murmur without a thrill

“nasal septum holes are harsh”

29
Q

What underlying disorder is a risk factor for <40 aortic dissections?

A

Marfan’s

30
Q

How do you differentiate between acute abdominal aortic dissection vs renal infarction?

A

Aortic: hypotension
Renal: hypertension

31
Q

What drug can cause interstitial pneumonitis?

A

Amiodarone

32
Q

T/F: clonic jerks can occur during any syncopal episode that is associated with cerebral hypoxia?

A

True

33
Q

What’s the initial tx for wide complex tachycardia?

A

Amiodarone

34
Q

When should you suspect Printzmetal (vasospastic) angina?

A

Young patients with recurrent chest pain during sleep

35
Q

Which 2 types of shock have increased central venous pressure?

A
  1. Obstructive

2. Cardiogenic

36
Q

T/F: constrictive pericarditis can cause hepatomegaly and ascites?

A

True

37
Q

What’s a pericardial knock?

A

Mid-diastolic sound

38
Q

Which 6 drugs are CYP450 inhibitors and therefore increase warfarin effect?

A
  1. Metronidazole
  2. Macrolides
  3. Azoles
  4. Amiodarone
  5. Cimetidine
  6. Grapefruit juice
39
Q

Which 5 drugs are CYP450 inducers and therefore decrease warfarin effect?

A
  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Phenytoin
  3. Phenobarbital
  4. Rifampin
  5. St. John’s wort
40
Q

What test is contraindicated in patients with severe AS?

A

Exercise stress test

41
Q

What causes exertional sx, pulsus parvus et tardus, soft S2, loud S4, and harsh systolic ejection murmur?

A

AS

42
Q

What test has the highest sensitivity for CHF?

A

BNP

43
Q

What’s the cause of cor pulmonale (impaired R ventricle function)?

A

Pulmonary HTN (usually due to chronic lung disease)

44
Q

What medication is a good initial treatment for bradycardia and hypotension?

A

Atropine

45
Q

Which 4 antihypertensives are first-line during pregnancy?

A
  1. Labetalol
  2. Nifedipine
  3. Hydralazine
  4. Methyldopa
46
Q

Which 5 types of antihypertensives are contraindicated during pregnancy?

A
  1. ACE inhibitors
  2. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
  3. Direct renin inhibitors
  4. Nitroprusside
  5. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (spironolactone)
47
Q

What might a “water bottle” shaped heart and recent URI illness indicate?

A

Pericardial effusion/cardiac tamponade

48
Q

Can you palpate the point of maximal apical impulse with a large pericardial effusion?

A

No

49
Q

What condition is fixed splitting heard in?

A

ASD

50
Q

The OS is ___?

A

MS

51
Q

Which type of HF can be caused by chronic, severe tricuspid regurgitation?

A

RHF

52
Q

Which device can cause tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Pacemaker

Step 2CK (31 decks)

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