Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

What is hiatal hernia usually caused by?

A

Obesity weakening the diaphragm

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2
Q

What’s the best initial therapy for hiatal hernia?

A

WL and PPI

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3
Q

What’s the name of the surgical correction for hiatal hernia?

A

Nissen fundoplication

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4
Q

Which type of hernia is more likely to need emergent surgery?

A

Paraesophageal

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5
Q

What’s the essential feature of most esophageal disorders?

A

Dysphagia

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6
Q

What’s the name for pain while swallowing?

A

Odynophagia

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7
Q

What are the 3 alarm sx that require endoscopy?

A
  1. WL
  2. Blood in stool
  3. Anemia
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8
Q

What is achalasia?

A

The inability of the LES to relax due to loss of the nerve plexus; unclear etiology

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9
Q

What’s the most likely dx:
Young patient under 50, progressive dysphagia to BOTH solids and liquids at the same time, no association with alcohol and tobacco?

A

Achalasia

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10
Q

What’s the most likely dx:

Bird’s beak on barium esophagram?

A

Achalasia

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11
Q

What’s the most accurate test for achalasia and shows a failure of the LES to relax?

A

Manometry

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12
Q

Does upper endoscopy show normal mucosa in achalasia?

A

Yes

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13
Q

What’s the tx for achalasia?

A

Pneumatic dilation (endoscope with inflatable device that enlarges the esophagus)– very effective!

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14
Q

What’s even more effective than pneumatic dilation for achalasia but is more dangerous?

A

Surgical sectioning/myotomy

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15
Q

Can you use botox for achalasia?

A

Yes, but the effects will wear off in 3-6 mos

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16
Q

What’s the key word in diagnosing esophageal cancer dysphagia sx?

A

Progressive (from solids to liquids)

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17
Q

What’s the best test to confirm esophageal cancer?

A

Endoscopy with biopsy

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18
Q

What would you use PET scan for in esophageal cancer?

A

To determine if it’s resectable (local is resectable)

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19
Q

Do you use chemo and radiation in addition to surgery for esophageal cancer?

A

Yes

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20
Q

How can you palliate with esophageal cancer if you can’t do surgery?

A

Stent placement

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21
Q

What are 2 possible dx’s for the following:

Sudden onset of chest pain not related to exertion, possibly related to drinking cold liquids?

A

Esophageal spasm:

  1. DES
  2. Nutcracker esophagus
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22
Q

How can you distinguish DES and nutcracker esophagus?

A

Manometry

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23
Q

What 2 dx’s might show corkscrews on barium studies?

A
  1. DES

2. Nutcracker esophagus

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24
Q

What’s the best tx for esophageal spastic disorders?

A

Ca channel blockers (similar to Prinzmetal angina)

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25
Q

What esophageal disorder presents with swallowing difficulty, food impaction, and heartburn, and the patient might have a h/o asthma/allergies?

A

Eosinophilic esophagitis

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26
Q

What is the most accurate diagnostic test for eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Biopsy

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27
Q

Over 90% of esophageal infections in patients with AIDS are caused by what organism?

A

Candida

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28
Q

What will the question stem often ask for infectious esophagitis?

A

AIDS patient with low CD4 count

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29
Q

What’s the best initial step if you suspect Candida infectious esophagitis?

A

Empiric fluconazole

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30
Q

What do you give IV if fluconazole doesn’t do the job for Candida infectious esophagitis?

A

Amphotericin B

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31
Q

What is Schatzki ring?

A

Dysphagia from peptic stricture due to acid reflux/hiatal hernia

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32
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson?

A

Dysphagia associated with iron deficiency anemia

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33
Q

How do you tell Schatzki ring apart from Plummer-Vinson?

A

Plummer is more proximal “P is more P”

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34
Q

What’s the dx that presents with dysphagia, severe halitosis, and regurgitation?

A

Zenker diverticulum

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35
Q

What’s the best dx for Zenker?

A

Barium

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36
Q

What should you avoid in patients with Zenker?

A

Nasogastric tube or upper endoscopy

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37
Q

Can scleroderma affect the esophagus?

A

Yes

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38
Q

How does Mallory-Weiss tear present?

A

Upper GI bleeding after severe vomiting/retching

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39
Q

What medical tx can you use for Mallory-Weiss to stop severe bleeding?

A

Injection of epinephrine

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40
Q

Which is nonpenetrating: Mallory-Weiss or Boerhaave?

A

Mallory-Weiss

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41
Q

What diagnosis: hot shower = better?

A

Cannabinoid hyperemesis

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42
Q

What’s the dx if a patient has epigastric pain for months without nausea, vomiting, WL, or blood in stool?

A

Pancreatic cancer

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43
Q

If the pain is worse with food?

A

Gastric ulcer

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44
Q

If the pain is better with food?

A

Duodenal ulcer

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45
Q

If there’s WL?

A

Cancer or gastric ulcer

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46
Q

Tenderness?

A

Pancreatitis

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47
Q

Bad taste, cough, hoarse?

A

GERD

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48
Q

Diabetes, bloating?

A

Gastroparesis

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49
Q

Nothing?

A

Non-ulcer dyspepsia

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50
Q

What is GERD?

A

The inappropriate relaxation of the LES, resulting in the acid contents of the stomach coming up into the esophagus

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51
Q

What is gastritis caused by?

A
Alcohol
NSAIDs
H Pylori
Portal HTN
Uremia, burns, trauma
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52
Q

What often presents with painless gastric bleeding?

A

Gastritis

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53
Q

When is stress ulcer prophylaxis indicated (4)?

A
  1. Mechanical ventilation
  2. Burns
  3. Head trauma
  4. Coagulopathy
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54
Q

What’s the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?

A

H Pylori

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55
Q

Why are NSAIDs the second most common cause of PUD?

A

They inhibit PG’s (which normally produce the mucus)

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56
Q

Cancer is present in ___% of those with gastric ulcers but none in those with duodenal ulcers?

A

4%

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57
Q

What 3 things combined treat H Pylori?

A
  1. PPI
  2. Clarithromycin
  3. Amoxicillin
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58
Q

When do you scope patients with dyspepsia (2)?

A
  1. > 55

2. Alarm sx are present

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59
Q

What should you suspect if a patient has large (>1-2cm) ulcers, recurrent after H Pylori tx, distal ulcers in the duodenum?

A

Zollinger-Ellison (gastrinoma)

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60
Q

What might you suspect if labs show high gastrin levels with high gastric acidity and despite injecting secretin?

A

Zollinger-Ellison (gastrinoma)

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61
Q

What is the treatment for gastrinoma?

A

Surgical removal

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62
Q

What should you suspect in a diabetic patient with bloating, abdominal discomfort, and constipation?

A

Diabetic gastroparesis

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63
Q

What’s the tx for diabetic gastroparesis (2)?

A
  1. Erythromycin

2. Metoclopramide

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64
Q

What’s the most accurate study for diagnosing diabetic gastroparesis?

A

Gastric emptying study

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65
Q

What’s the best initial therapy for diabetic gastroparesis?

A

Dietary modification (blend food, restore fluids, correct electrolytes)

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66
Q

What drug used to treat diabetic gastroparesis causes dystonia and hyperprolactinemia if used long term?

A

Metoclopramide

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67
Q

What’s the next step in treating diabetic gastroparesis if dietary changes doesn’t work?

A

Metoclopramide

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68
Q

What’s the last step in treating diabetic gastroparesis if nothing else works?

A

Gastric pacemaker

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69
Q

The most common cause of upper GI bleed is _____?

A

Ulcers

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70
Q

The most common cause of lower GI bleed is __________?

A

Diverticulosis

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71
Q

What are the 2 definitions of orthostasis?

A
  1. > 10pt rise in pulse when going from lying down to standing up
  2. Systolic BP drop of 20+ pts when sitting up
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72
Q

What type of GI bleed presents in older adults with LLQ pain, mucosal friability on scope, and clear demarcation between ischemic and normal tissue?

A

Ischemic colitis

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73
Q

Does ischemic colitis need specific therapy?

A

No

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74
Q

If the case describes GI bleeding and signs of liver failure, what should you suspect?

A

Varices

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75
Q

T/F: 80% of GI bleeding will stop spontaneously if the fluid resuscitation is adequate?

A

True

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76
Q

When do you give FFP in GI bleeds?

A

If PT/INR is elevated and active bleeding is occurring

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77
Q

When do you give platelets in GI bleed?

A

When platelet count <50,000

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78
Q

When do you give octreotide for GI bleed?

A

Variceal

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79
Q

How does octreotide work for varices?

A

Decreases portal pressure

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80
Q

In addition to fluids, blood, platelets, and plasma, what are other steps in variceal bleeds (5)?

A
  1. Octreotide
  2. Banding
  3. TIPS
  4. Propranolol
  5. Abx to prevent SBP
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81
Q

Which antibiotic is associated with C diff?

A

Clindamycin

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82
Q

What’s the best initial test for C diff?

A

Stool sample with PCR

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83
Q

What’s the best antibiotic to treat C diff?

A

Vancomycin

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84
Q

When a patient has C diff and high lactate, high creatinine, high WBCs, and metabolic acidosis, how do you treat?

A

Vancomycin + Metronidazole

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85
Q

When a patient doesn’t respond to vancomycin for C diff, which antibiotic should you choose?

A

Fidaxomicin

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86
Q

Which vitamin deficiency presents with hypocalcemia and osteoporosis?

A

Vitamin D

87
Q

Which vitamin deficiency presents with bleeding and easy bruising?

A

Vitamin K

88
Q

Which vitamin deficiency presents with anemia, hypersegmented neutrophils, and neuropathy?

A

Vitamin B12

89
Q

What disease is dermatitis herpetiformis associated with?

A

Celiac

90
Q

What disease presents with malabsorption, arthralgias, ocular findings, dementia, fever, and LAD?

A

Whipple disease

91
Q

What 2 antibiotics do you treat Whipple disease with sequentially?

A
  1. Ceftriaxone

2. TMP-SMX

92
Q

What deficiency can help differentiate between chronic pancreatitis and Celiac (gluten sensitive enteropathy)?

A

Iron

93
Q

Will iron be low in chronic pancreatitis?

A

No because it only needs an intact bowel wall to be absorbed

94
Q

What does anti-tissue transglutaminase check for?

A

Celiac

95
Q

What are the other 2 tests for Celiac?

A
  1. Anti-endomysial Ab

2. IgA antigliadin Ab

96
Q

What’s the most ACCURATE diagnostic test for celiac disease?

A

Small bowel biopsy showing flattening of the villi

97
Q

What’s the most accurate diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis?

A

Secretin stimulation test

98
Q

What will a normal pancreas do during a secretin stimulation test?

A

Release a large volume of bicarb-rich fluids

99
Q

What will an x-ray or CT show for chronic pancreatitis?

A

Calcifications

100
Q

What antibiotic is used to treat tropical sprue?

A

TMP-SMX

101
Q

What presents with flushing, wheezing, R heart abnormalities, and intermittent diarrhea?

A

Carcinoid syndrome

102
Q

What’s the best initial test for carcinoid syndrome?

A

5 HIAA test

103
Q

What’s the best tx for carcinoid syndrome?

A

Octreotide

104
Q

Is WL associated with lactose intolerance?

A

No because there are other sugars and fats absorbed still

105
Q

Is IBS associated with WL?

A

No

106
Q

What GI syndrome has diarrhea, pain relieved by BM, less pain at night, and no blood or WBC’s in the stool?

A

IBS

107
Q

What’s the tx for IBS? (3 options)

A
  1. Fiber
  2. Hyoscyamine/dicyclomine/peppermint oil
  3. TCAs
108
Q

Which IBD: skip lesions?

A

Crohn’s

109
Q

Which IBD: transmural granulomas?

A

Crohn’s

110
Q

Which IBD: fistulas and abscesses?

A

Crohn’s

111
Q

Which IBD: masses and obstruction?

A

Crohn’s

112
Q

Which IBD: perianal disease?

A

Crohn’s

113
Q

Which IBD: curable by surgery?

A

UC

114
Q

Which IBD: entirely mucosal?

A

UC

115
Q

Which IBD: no fistulas or obstructions?

A

UC

116
Q

Which IBD: no perianal disease?

A

UC

117
Q

Crohn’s skips the ______?

A

Rectum

“Granny is old school and doensn’t like buttsex”

118
Q

Which IBD: fevers, malaise?

A

Crohn’s

119
Q

Which IBD:
ANCA (-)
Anti-saccharomyces (+)

A

Crohn’s

120
Q

Which IBD:
ANCA (+)
Anti-saccharomyces (-)

A

UC

121
Q

What is the tx for acute exacerbations of Crohn’s or UC?

A

Steroids such as Budesonide

122
Q

What’s the tx for chronic remission of Crohn’s or UC?

A

5-ASA derivatives such as Mesalamine

123
Q

When do you use Azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine in IBD?

A

To wean patients off steroids when the disease is so severe that recurrences develop as soon as steroids are stopped

124
Q

Is UC curable?

A

Yes, with colectomy

125
Q

What is short bowel syndrome?

A

When patients have had at least half of the small bowel removed

126
Q

What do you treat small intestine bacterial overgrowth with?

A

Rifaximin

127
Q

How do you treat microscopic colitis?

A

Steroids

128
Q

T/F: vegetarians rarely develop diverticulosis?

A

True

129
Q

What’s a good treatment for diverticulosis?

A

Increasing dietary fiber

130
Q

What’s the most likely diagnosis for:

LLQ pain and tenderness, fever, leukocytosis, and can have a palpable mass?

A

Diverticulitis

131
Q

What’s the best initial test for diverticulitis?

A

CT scan

132
Q

What’s the antibiotic tx for diverticulitis (2 combined)?

A

Ciprofloxacin and Metronidazole

133
Q

Should old or young patients with recurrent diverticulitis get surgery?

A

Young

134
Q

Why is FOBT a little worse than colonoscopy?

A

It has more false positives and false negatives

135
Q

What age should people start getting a colonoscopy?

A

50

136
Q

If a single family member has a history of colon cancer, when do you start colonoscopy?

A

Age 40 or 10 years earlier than the age the relative developed the cancer, whichever is younger

137
Q

If 3 family members, 2 generations, or 1 <50, when should you start colonoscopy?

A

Age 25 and repeat every 1-2 years

138
Q

If history of FAP, Juvenile Polyposis, or Gardner, when do you start screening for colon cancer and with what method?

A

Age 12 with sigmoidoscopy

139
Q

When a patient has a previous history of colon cancer, when should they have subsequent colonoscopies?

A

1, 3, and then every 5 years

140
Q

What rarer syndrome presents with melanotic spots on the lips and skin and multiple hamartomatous polyps?

A

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

141
Q

When do you start screening colonoscopy with Peutz-Jeghers?

A

Every 3 years starting at age 8

142
Q

What syndrome is colon cancer in association with osteomas, desmoid tumors, and other soft tissue tumors?

A

Gardner Syndrome

143
Q

Which syndrome is colon cancer in association with CNS malignancy?

A

Turcot Syndrome

144
Q

Which syndrome is colon cancer in association with multiple hamartomatous polyps?

A

Juvenile Polyposis

145
Q

Stop NOACs __ day before colonoscopy?

A

1

146
Q

Stop warfarin ___-___ days before colonoscopy?

A

3-5

147
Q

What condition presents with pain through to the back, tenderness, and epigastric nausea/vomiting?

A

Pancreatitis

148
Q

What lab is associated with the worst prognosis of pancreatitis?

A

Low calcium

149
Q

Best initial tests for pancreatitis?

A

Amylase and lipase

150
Q

What is the most specific test for pancreatitis?

A

CT scan

151
Q

Which is diagnostic and which is therapeutic: MRCP or ERCP?

A

MRCP: diagnostic
ERCP: therapeutic

152
Q

Should a patient with pancreatitis be NPO?

A

Yes

153
Q

How can you decrease mortality in pancreatitis if there is more than 30% necrosis on CT?

A

Add a penem antibiotic

154
Q

What presents similarly to pancreatic cancer but shows a sausage-shaped pancreas on CT, with elevated IgG4?

A

IgG4-related Pancreatitis

155
Q

What’s the tx for IgG4-related Pancreatitis?

A

Steroids

156
Q

What presents with WL, painless jaundice, and usually nontender epigastrium, with elevated bilirubin, alk phos, and GGTP?

A

Pancreatic cancer

157
Q

If a CT is negative for pancreatic cancer, what’s the next step?

A

US with biopsy

158
Q

What tumor marker can be followed in treatment of pancreatic cancer?

A

CA 19-9

159
Q

Can liver disease cause coagulopathy and thrombocytopenia?

A

Yes

160
Q

What should someone with cirrhosis get every 6 mos?

A

US

161
Q

If the serum ascites albumin gradient is above 1.1, what is very likely to be occurring?

A

Portal HTN

162
Q

If the SAAG is <1.1, what 3 things are on the differential?

A
  1. Infex
  2. Cancer
  3. Nephrotic
163
Q

If the SAAG is >1.1, what 4 things are on the differential?

A
  1. Portal HTN
  2. CHF
  3. Hepatic vein thrombosis
  4. Constrictive pericarditis
164
Q

What’s the most common organism in SBP?

A

E. Coli

165
Q

All variceal bleeding with ascites needs ____ prophylaxis?

A

SBP

166
Q

T/F: once someone gets SBP once, they need lifelong prophylaxis?

A

True

167
Q

Which 2 abx are good for treating SBP?

A
  1. Cefotaxime

2. Ceftriaxone

168
Q

What 2 abx are used to prevent SBP?

A
  1. Norfloxacin

2. TMP-SMX

169
Q

What is a complication of liver failure that causes orthodeoxia (hypoxia on sitting up)?

A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome

170
Q

Is there a cure for hepatopulmonary syndrome?

A

No, the patient will need a transplant

171
Q

What’s the most likely dx:

Woman in 40s or 50s, fatigue, itching, xanthelasma/xanthoma, osteoporosis, and normal bili with elevated alk phos?

A

Primary Biliary Cholangitis

172
Q

What’s the most accurate test for PBC?

A

Liver bx

173
Q

What’s the most accurate blood test for PBC?

A

Antimitochondrial antibody

174
Q

What are the 2 treatment options for PBC?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid or Obeticholic acid

175
Q

What’s the following dx:

Priuritis, IBD, elevated alk phos, GGTP, and bili?

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

176
Q

What’s the most accurate test for dx of Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

A

MRCP

177
Q

What’s the tx for PSC?

A

Cholestyramine or Ursodeoxycholic acid

178
Q

What condition would cause liver disease and emphysema in a young nonsmoker patient?

A

Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency

179
Q

What’s the tx for Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficienc?

A

Replacing with the enzyme itself

180
Q

What’s a genetic disorder leading to overabsorption of iron in the duodenum?

A

Hemochromatosis

181
Q

What is the C282y gene mutation associated with?

A

Hemochromatosis

182
Q

What dx presents with:
Patient in his 50s with mild increases in AST and alk phos, plus fatigue, joint pain, ED, skin darkening, diabetes, and cardiomyopathy?

A

Hemochromatosis

183
Q

Which 3 infections occur in patients with hemochromatosis because the organisms feed on iron?

A
  1. Vibrio vulnificus
  2. Yersinia
  3. Listeria
184
Q

What do the following iron studies signify:?
Serum iron: increased
Serum ferritin: increased
TIBC: decreased

A

Hemochromatosis

185
Q

What’s the best test for hemochromatosis?

A

MRI + C282y gene testing

186
Q

What’s the first-line treatment for hemochromatosis?

A

Phlebotomy

187
Q

What’s the second-line treatment for hemochromatosis?

A

Chelation (Deferasirox, etc)

188
Q

What does it mean if a patient has Hep B surface antigen positive for 6+ mos?

A

Chronic Hep B

189
Q

What’s the mnemonic for the 6 drugs that treat Hep B?

A

IT LATE

190
Q

What are the 6 drugs that treat Hep B?

A

Interferon
Telbivudine

Lamivudine
Adefovir
Tenofovir (esp in pregnancy)
Entecavir

191
Q

Everyone born between the years _____ and _____ should be tested for Hep C?

A

1945-1965

192
Q

What 3 types of drugs treat Hep C?

A
  1. Sofos
  2. Elba
  3. Ombit

“The middle aged Ombitsman put his Elba on the Sofa”

193
Q

T/F: when treated for Hep C with any of the 3 types of agents, more than 95% of patients will achieve a cure?

A

True

194
Q

What predicts response to Hep C therapy?

A

Genotype

195
Q

What tells if there’s a response to Hep C therapy?

A

PCR-RNA viral load

196
Q

Which Hepatitis drug has the side effect of arthralgias, thrombocytopenia, depression, and leukopenia?

A

Interferon

197
Q

Which Hepatitis drug has the side effect of anemia?

A

Ribavirin

198
Q

Which Hepatitis drug has the side effect of renal dysfunction?

A

Adefovir

199
Q

Which Hepatitis drug has no side effects?

A

Lamivudine

200
Q

Which disease causes psychosis, tremor, ataxia, dysarthria, seizures, Coombs negative hemolytic anemia, and RTA or kidney stones?

A

Wilson Disease

201
Q

What’s the best initial test for Wilson Disease?

A

Slit lamp eye exam for Kayser-Fleischer rings

202
Q

Are ceruloplasmin levels high or low in Wilson Disease?

A

Low

203
Q

What’s the most accurate test for Wilson Disease?

A

Abnormally increased amount of copper in the urine after giving penicillamine

204
Q

What’s the best tx for Wilson Disease?

A

Penicillamine, but if patient is allergic to penicillin, Zinc can also work by interfering with intestinal copper absorption

205
Q

What disease presents in a young woman with postiive ANA, high IgG, anti-smooth muscle antibodies, and anti-liver/kidney microsomal antibodies?

A

Autoimmune Hepatitis

206
Q

What are the 2 types of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  1. NAFL

2. NASH

207
Q

Which of the 2 types of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is dangerous and progress to cirrhosis or cancer?

A

NASH

208
Q

What’s a common cause of mildly elevated liver function tests in an obese patient with diabetes, steroid use, etc?

A

NAFL

209
Q

What are some variables that the MELD score uses to predict survival in cirrhosis?

A

Age
Creatinine
Bilirbin
INR

210
Q

High MELD means what?

A

Death sooner

211
Q

Which benign liver lesion has central stellate scarring?

A

Focal Nodular Hyperplasia

212
Q

Should you biopsy a hepatic adenoma?

A

Yes

213
Q

Does a hepatic adenoma grow with estrogen?

A

Yes

214
Q

Does a hepatic adenoma have the potential to rupture?

A

Yes