Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Correcting which risk factor for CAD will result in the most immediate benefit for the patient?

A

Smoking

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2
Q

T/F: Ischemic pain is not tender, positional, or pleuritic?

A

True

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3
Q

Dx: chest wall tenderness?

A

Costochondritis

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4
Q

Dx: radiation to back, unequal BP between arms?

A

Aortic dissection

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5
Q

Dx: pain worse with lying flat, better with sitting up?

A

Pericarditis

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6
Q

Dx: cough, sputum, hemoptysis?

A

Pneumonia

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7
Q

Dx: sudden-onset SOB, tachycardia, hypoxia?

A

PE

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8
Q

Dx: sharp pleuritic pain, tracheal deviation?

A

Pneumothorax

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9
Q

What can dipyrimadole, adenosine, or dobutamine be used for?

A

Non-exercise stress test

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10
Q

What do you need to stop before a stress test (2)?

A
  1. B-blockers

2. Caffeine

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11
Q

Who needs coronary angiography?

A

People with reversible ischemia on stress test

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12
Q

What diagnostic procedure determines if a patient needs surgery vs angioplasty?

A

Angiography

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13
Q

For a patient with chronic angina, which 2 drugs will lower mortality?

A
  1. Aspiring

2. B-blockers

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14
Q

What metabolic derangement can ACE inhibitors cause?

A

Hyperkalemia

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15
Q

What’s the first line therapy in patients with stable angina?

A

B-blockers

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16
Q

What level of intensity are Atorvastatin and Rosuvastatin?

A

High intensity

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17
Q

What level of intensity are Fluvastatin, Lovastatin, Pitavastatin, Pravastatin, and Simvastatin?

A

Low intensity

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18
Q

What’s the most common adverse effect of statin meds?

A

Liver dysfunction

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19
Q

In severe hyperlipidemia when the LDL isn’t controlled even on max dose of statin, what can you use?

A

PCSK9 inhibitors

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20
Q

Which lipid-lowering medication has the adverse effect of elevations of transaminases and myositis?

A

Statins

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21
Q

Which lipid-lowering medication has the adverse effect of elevation in glucose and uric acid, and priuritis?

A

Niacin

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22
Q

Which lipid-lowering medication has the adverse effect of increased risk of myositis when combined with statins?

A

Fibric acid derivatives

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23
Q

Which lipid-lowering medication has the adverse effect of flatus and abdominal cramping?

A

Cholestyramine

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24
Q

Which lipid-lowering medication has very few adverse effects but barely helps anything?

A

Ezetimibe

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25
Q

What are the 3 instances when you would use a calcium channel blocker in CAD?

A
  1. Asthma
  2. Prinzmetal angina
  3. Cocaine-induced chest pain
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26
Q

What are the 3 most common adverse effects of calcium channel blockers?

A
  1. Edema
  2. Constipation
  3. Heartblock
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27
Q

In which 3 instances does CABG benefit a patient?

A
  1. 3 vessel disease with at least 70% in each
  2. L main coronary artery occlusion
  3. Two vessel disease in patient with DM
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28
Q

Which lasts longer, internal mammary or saphenous grafts?

A

Internal mammary (10 vs 5 years)

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29
Q

What’s another word for angioplasty?

A

PCI

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30
Q

What is Dressler syndrome?

A

Pericarditis after MI

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31
Q

Which is associated with greater mortality: MI in inferior wall or anterior wall?

A

Anterior wall

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32
Q

When does myoglobin become abnormal after MI?

A

1-4 hours

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33
Q

When do troponin and CK-MB become abnormal after MI?

A

4-6 hours

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34
Q

When do myoglobin and CK-MB go back to normal after MI?

A

1-2 days

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35
Q

When does troponin go back to normal after MI?

A

10-14 days

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36
Q

What organ insufficiency can cause falsely elevated troponin?

A

Renal insufficiency

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37
Q

What are the first 2 steps to checking for re-infarction if a patient has new chest pain within a few days after an MI?

A
  1. EKG

2. CK-MB levels

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38
Q

What’s the best way to prevent restenosis of the coronary artery after PCI?

A

Drug eluting stent that inhibits local T cell response (paclitaxel or sirolimus)

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39
Q

The mortality benefit of thrombolytics extends out to ___ hours from the onset of chest pain?

A

12

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40
Q

If there is no ST segment elevation, is there a benefit to thrombolytics?

A

No; give heparin

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41
Q

Do you give an antiplatelet drug to a non-ST elevation coronary syndrome?

A

Yes

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42
Q

Which heparin to give: LMWH (enoxaparin) or unfractionated?

A

LMWH has better mortality benefit

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43
Q

Post-MI dx: bradycardia and cannon a waves?

A

Third degree AV block

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44
Q

Post-MI dx: sudden loss of pulse, JVD?

A

Tamponade/wall rupture

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45
Q

Post-MI dx: new murmur, rales/congestion?

A

Valve rupture

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46
Q

Post-MI dx: new murmur, increase in O2 sat on entering R ventricle?

A

Septal rupture

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47
Q

In what cases do you use spironolactone post-MI?

A

EF<40%

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48
Q

Do not use a rhythm controlling agent to prevent the development of an arhhythmia– don’t be fooled by “frequent PVC’s and ectopy”

A

Cool

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49
Q

How many months post-MI do you give P2Y12 inhibitor?

A

12 months

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50
Q

Do not combine nitrates with what drug?

A

Sildenafil

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51
Q

What’s the most-common cause of post-MI erectile dysfunction?

A

Anxiety; B-blockers

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52
Q

When should a patient wait to re-engage in sexual activity post-MI?

A

2-4 weeks

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53
Q

What heart sound is present in CHF and sounds like “I believe?”

A

S3

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54
Q

What condition might rales indicate?

A

CHF

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55
Q

Dyspnea dx: sudden onset dyspnea, clear lungs?

A

PE

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56
Q

Dyspnea dx: sudden onset dyspena, wheezing, increased expiratory phase?

A

Asthma

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57
Q

Dyspnea dx: slower onset, fever, sputum, unilateral rales/rhonchi

A

Pneumonia

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58
Q

Dyspnea dx: decreased breath sounds unilaterally, tracheal deviation?

A

Pneumothorax

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59
Q

Dyspnea dx: circumoral numbness, caffeine use, h/o anxiety?

A

Panic attack

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60
Q

Dyspnea dx: pallor, gradual over days to weeks?

A

Anemia

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61
Q

Dyspnea dx: pulsus paradoxus, decreased heart sounds, JVD?

A

Tamponade

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62
Q

Dyspnea dx: palpitations, syncope?

A

Arrhythmia of any kind

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63
Q

Dyspnea dx: dullness to percussion at bases?

A

Pleural effusion

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64
Q

Dyspnea dx: long smoking history, barrel chest?

A

COPD

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65
Q

Dyspnea dx: recent anesthetic use, brown blood not improved with oxygen, clear lungs on auscultation, cyanosis?

A

Methemoglobinemia

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66
Q

Dyspnea dx: burning building or car, wood-burning stove in winter, suicide attempt?

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning

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67
Q

Will any of those dyspnea dx questions have an S3 gallop?

A

No

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68
Q

When do you use digoxin?

A

Low EF (systolic HF)

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69
Q

What are the 3 proven B-blockers for systolic dysfunction?

A
  1. Metoprolol
  2. Carvedilol
  3. Bisoprolol
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70
Q

When are B-blockers contraindicated in HF?

A

When the patient is acutely decompensated

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71
Q

Do diuretics lower mortality in CHF?

A

No, they just control sx

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72
Q

Does digoxin lower mortality in CHF?

A

No, it just decreases the frequency of hospitalizations

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73
Q

Can lisinopril cause hyperkalemia?

A

Yes

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74
Q

If EF is under 35%, what’s a good treatment device?

A

Pacemaker or defibrillator

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75
Q

What are 2 treatments that are beneficial in diastolic HF?

A
  1. Spironolactone

2. Diuretics

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76
Q

Does pulmonary edema present with an S3 sound?

A

Yes

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77
Q

Does a normal BNP level exclude pulmonary edema?

A

Yes

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78
Q

Mitral stenosis presents during pregnancy because there is a 50% increase in _____ ______?

A

Plasma volume

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79
Q
Which valvular disease has:
Dysphagia
Hoarseness
Afib
Hemoptysis?
A

CHF associated with mitral stenosis

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80
Q

Why does hoarseness occur?

A

Laryngeal nerve compression from LA

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81
Q

The enlargement of which atrium causes elevation of the L mainstem bronchus?

A

Left atrium

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82
Q

Which atrium is enlarged in mitral stenosis?

A

L atrium

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83
Q

What congenital valvular abnormality can lead to aortic stenosis?

A

Bicuspid valve

84
Q

What’s the most common presentation of aortic stenosis?

A

Angina, syncope, CHF

85
Q

Which chamber of the heart gets enlarged with aortic stenosis?

A

L ventricle

86
Q

Which valvular disorder is caused by HTN, endocarditis, MI with papillary muscle rupture, or any other reason that the heart dilates?

A

Mitral regurgitation

87
Q

Which valvular disorder presents with a pansystolic (holosystolic) murmur that radiates to the axilla?

A

Mitral regurgitation

88
Q

Which valvular disorder is caused by anything that makes the heart or aorta dilate in size?

A

Aortic regurgitation

89
Q

Which valvular disorder has head bobbing and BP in legs as much as 40mmHg more than arm BP?

A

Aortic regurgitation

90
Q

What’s often used in regurgitation disorders for vasodilation (3)?

A

ACEi/ARBs or nifedipine

91
Q

What heart sound is the result of hypertrophy?

A

S4

92
Q

What’s the best initial therapy for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

B-blockers

93
Q

What’s a surgical option for HOCM?

A

Ablation of the septum

94
Q

Can you use digoxin in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

No

95
Q

In HOCM, do ACEi’s and diuretics help?

A

No! But in the other forms they are ok

96
Q

Which 4 murmurs are increased by squatting/leg raising, and decreased by standing/valsalva?

A

AS, MS, AR, MR

97
Q

Which 2 murmurs are decreased by squatting/leg raising, and increased by standing/valsalva?

A

HVP, HOCM

98
Q

Standing and valsalva increase or decrease blood?

A

Decrease (like a diuretic)

99
Q

Handgrip increases blood in which chamber?

A

L ventricle

100
Q

Amyl nitrate decreases blood in which chamber?

A

L ventricle

101
Q

Do steroids and IVIg help viral myocarditis?

A

No

102
Q

What drug decreases recurrences of pericarditis?

A

Colchicine

103
Q

What’s the best tx for acute pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs

104
Q

Which condition has pulsus paradoxus?

A

Pericardial tamponade

105
Q

What presents with acute pain between the scapulae and difference in blood pressure between the arms?

A

Aortic dissection

106
Q

What’s the best test for aortic dissection?

A

Angiogram

107
Q

What’s the most appropriate screening for the aortic aneurysm?

A

Men who ever smoked age >65 with ultrasound

108
Q

When the width of the abdominal aortic aneurysm exceeds __cm in diameter, surgical or cath repair of lesion is indicated?

A

5cm

109
Q

Which is the worst form of heart disease in pregnancy?

A

Peripartum cardiomyopathy (Eisenmenger is second)

110
Q

Which direction of the shunt is Eisenmenger Syndrome?

A

R to L

111
Q

What’s the most common cause of bronchiectasis?

A

CF

112
Q

What condition presents with widening of the bronchi?

A

Bronchiectasis

113
Q

What’s an inhaled med used to treat CF-associated bronchiectasis?

A

Dornase alfa

114
Q

What dx might present as an asthmatic patient with recurrent episodes of brown-flecked sputum and transient infiltrates on CXR, eosinophilia, and cough, wheezing, and hemoptysis?

A

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

115
Q

Are inhaled steroids effective for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

No

116
Q

How do you treat allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (acute, recurrent, and prevention)?

A

Acute: oral steroids
Recurrent: itraconazole
Prevention: Omalizumab

117
Q

Does CF affect the endocrine or the exocrine glands?

A

Exocrine

118
Q

Neutrophils in CF dump tons of ____ into airway secretions, clogging them up?

A

DNA

119
Q

T/F: CF can lead to meconium ileus and biliary cirrhosis?

A

True

120
Q

What’s the most accurate test for CF?

A

Sweat chloride test

121
Q

What do PFTs show in CF (obstructive vs restrictive)?

A

Mixed obstructive and restrictive patterns

122
Q

Which type of antibiotics are inhaled in CF patients?

A

Aminoglycosides

123
Q

Which 2 vaccinations do CF patients need?

A
  1. Pneumococcal

2. Influenza

124
Q

What does Ivacaftor combined with Lumacaftor do in CF patients?

A

Increases the activity of the CFTR in 5% of patients who have a specific mutation

125
Q

Community acquired pneumonia is defined as pneumonia occurring __ hours before hospitalization or within __ hours of hospital admission?

A

48, 48

126
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Strep pneumoniae

127
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with COPD?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

128
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with recent viral infection?

A

Staph aureus

129
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with alcoholism, diabetes?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

130
Q

Which category of common CAP pathogen is associated with poor dentition, aspiration?

A

Anaerobes

131
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with young, healthy patients?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

132
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with hoarseness?

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

133
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with contaminated water sources, air conditioning, and ventilation systems?

A

Legionella

134
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with birds?

A

Chlamydia psittaci

135
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with animal birth, veterinarians, farmers?

A

Coxiella burnetii

136
Q

T/F: rales, rhonchi, and crepitus are findings from virtually any form of lung infex?

A

True

137
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with rotten egg sputum?

A

Anaerobes

138
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with dry cough, rarely severe, bullous myringitis (eardrum blisters)?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

139
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with GI sx or CNS sx?

A

Legionella

140
Q

Which common CAP pathogen is associated with AIDS <200 CD4?

A

Pneumocystis

141
Q

Sputum gram stain is adequate if there are more than __ WBCs and less than __ epithelial cells?

A

25, 10

142
Q

What is an empyema?

A

An infected pleural effusion

143
Q

What’s the specific diagnostic test for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

PCR, cold agglutinins

144
Q

What’s the specific diagnostic test for Chlamydophila pneumoniae?

A

Rising serologic titers

145
Q

What’s the specific diagnostic test for Legionella?

A

Urine antigen, culture on charcoal-yeast

146
Q

What’s the specific diagnostic test for Chlamydia psittaci?

A

Rising serologic titers

147
Q

What’s the specific diagnostic test for Coxiella burnetii?

A

Rising serologic titers

148
Q

What’s the specific diagnostic test for Pneumocystis jiroveci?

A

Bronchoalveolar lavage

149
Q

When do you hospitalize for pneumonia (11)?

A
  1. Hypotension systolic below 90
  2. RR above 30
  3. pH below 7.35
  4. BUN above 30
  5. Na less than 130
  6. Glucose above 250
  7. Pulse above 125/min
  8. Confusion
  9. Temp above 40C
  10. Age 65+
  11. COPD, CHF, RF, liver dz
150
Q

Pleural effusion with pH <7.2 indicates what?

A

Empyema

151
Q

LDH >60% of serum or protein >50% of serum suggest exudate or transudate?

A

Exudate

152
Q

What’s CURB65?

A
Confusion
Uremia
Respiratory distress
BP low
Age >65
153
Q

What are the 2 main initial CAP abx in the hospital?

A
  1. Ceftriaxone

2. Azithromycin

154
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia is almost always gram ___?

A

Negative

155
Q

What’s the hospital acquired pneumonia treatment in the hospital?

A

Pip-tazo or Pip-Clav

156
Q

Is sputum culture worthwhile in ventilator associated pneumonia?

A

No

157
Q

What’s the antibiotic treatment for ventilator associated pneumonia (3)?

A
  1. Pip/tazo
  2. Gentamicin
  3. Vanc
158
Q

Which antibiotic can cause seizures?

A

Imipenem

159
Q

Everyone over age __ should get the pneumococcal vaccine: first the __ then the __ 6-12 mos later?

A

65; 13, 23

160
Q

What antibiotic covers lung abscesses?

A

Penicillin

161
Q

What is always elevated in PCP (jiroveci)?

A

LDH

162
Q

What’s the best tx and prophylaxis for PCP?

A

TMP-SMX

163
Q

When do you start PCP prophylaxis?

A

CD4 count <200

164
Q

If the CD4 count is maintained above 200 for several months, can AIDS patients go off prophylactic abx?

A

Yes!

165
Q

What tx is used for atypical mycobacteria prophylaxis when CD4 count <50?

A

Azithromycin

166
Q

What’s the mnemonic for TB treatment drugs?

A

RIPE

167
Q

What does RIPE stand for?

A

Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

168
Q

How long do you give the RIPE drugs?

A
  • All for 2 months

- Then just RI for 4 more months

169
Q

Can you use pyrazinamide during pregnancy?

A

No, so you need to extend tx to >6 mos total for TB

170
Q

What’s Rifampin’s toxicity?

A

Red color to body secretions

171
Q

What’s Isoniazid’s toxicity?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

172
Q

How do you prevent Izoniazid-related peripheral neuropathy?

A

Pyridoxine

173
Q

What’s Pyrazinamide’s toxicity?

A

Hyperuricemia

174
Q

What’s Ethambutol’s toxicity?

A

Optic neuritis/color vision loss

175
Q

T/F: erythema and induration count towards a positive PPD test?

A

False; just induration counts

176
Q

What are the two mm cutoff points for the PPD results?

A

5, 10, and 15mm

5 for people with immunosuppression or sx, 10 for people at high risk, 15 for no risk factors

177
Q

When do you need 2 PPD tests?

A

When it’s the patient’s first time getting one and the first one results negative

178
Q

If a patient is IGRA positive of PPD positive, how do you treat?

A

9 months of Isoniazid

179
Q

T/F: 12 doses of INH and rifapentine treats positive IGRA or PPD?

A

True

180
Q

What dx presents with skin and soft tissue infex, grows in 5-10 days, lives in water and soil, and the question stem may describe a colonized water line in a dental unit?

A

Mycobacteria abscessus and fortuitum

181
Q

What dx presents with a cough/sputum in an older person with COPD?

A

Mycobacteria avium-intracellulaire

182
Q

What’s the antibiotic tx for Mycobacteria avium-intracellulaire?

A

Aithromycin, rifampin, and ethambutol

183
Q

When many features of malignancy are present for a lung lesion, what’s the right answer usually?

A

Resect

184
Q

What are the lung cancer screening indications for chest CT?

A

Age 55 with 30 pack-year history (including if quit within past 15 years)

185
Q

What kind of pneumoconiosis can coal exposure lead to?

A

Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis

186
Q

What kind of pneumoconiosis can sandblasting, rock mining, tunneling lead to?

A

Silicosis

187
Q

What kind of pneumoconiosis can shipyard workers, pipe fitting, and insulators lead to?

A

Asbestosis

188
Q

What kind of pneumoconiosis can cotton lead to?

A

Byssinosis

189
Q

What kind of pneumoconiosis can electronic manufacture lead to?

A

Berylliosis

190
Q

What kind of pneumoconiosis can moldy sugar cane lead to?

A

Bagassosis

191
Q

What dx presents with dyspnea, fine rales or crackles, loud P2 heart sound, and finger clubbing?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

192
Q

What does MTX cause in terms of lungs?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

193
Q

What will the PFTs show in restrictive lung disease?

A

FEV1/FVC will be normal (both will be decreased)

194
Q

Biopsy shows what in berylliosis?

A

Granulomas

195
Q

If there is a response to steroids in interstitial lung disease, what should you switch the patient to long-term?

A

Azathioprine

196
Q

How do you differentiate between interstitial lung disease and hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis has fevers, chills, myalgia and there is an exposure

197
Q

What dx presents in a young African American female with fine rales on lung exam without wheezing of asthma, and also presents with parotid gland enlargement, facial palsy, heart block and restrictive cardiomyopathy, CNS involvement, and iritis and uveitis?

A

Sarcoidosis

198
Q

What dx presents with CXR showing hilar adenopathy in a generally healthy African American woman?

A

Sarcoidosis

199
Q

Are the granulomas in sarcoidosis caseating or no?

A

Non-caseating

200
Q

How does calcium sometimes change in sarcoidosis (less often than expected)?

A

Hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria

201
Q

When should you do a V/Q scan instead of a CT angiogram for suspected PE?

A

When patients have renal failure

202
Q

When is it appropriate to check D-dimer?

A

To rule out PE when the pretest probability is very low anyway

203
Q

When are direct-acting thrombin inhibitors (eg: argatroban) or fondaparinux the answer?

A

In HIT

204
Q

What dx presents with dyspnea and fatigue, syncope, CP, wide splitting of S2?

A

Pulmonary HTN

205
Q

How is ideopathic pulmonary HTN treated?

A

Prostacyclin analogues