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part 1 boards (US) > Pathology (Roecker Review) > Flashcards

Pathology (Roecker Review) Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Dysplasia

A

Disordered cell Growth (increase CA risk)

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2
Q

What is Metaplasia

A

Reversible Change from one cell type to another

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3
Q

What is Hypoxia

A

When tissue is deprived of Oxygen

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4
Q

What is Ischemia

A

Restriction in blood supply

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5
Q

What is abscess

A

Collection of pus

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6
Q

What is hypertrophy

A

Cells become larger

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7
Q

What is Hyperplasia

A

Cell become more numerous

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8
Q

What is Atrophy

A

Reduced size of cells/organs

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9
Q

What is a Granuloma

A

Collection of macrophages from chronic inflammation

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10
Q

What type of necrosis is associated with an infarct

A

Coagulative

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11
Q

What type of liquefaction is associated with microbes or strokes

A

Liquefactive

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12
Q

What type of necrosis is associated with ischemia

A

Gangrenous

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13
Q

What type of necrosis is associated with TB

A

Caseous

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14
Q

What type of necrosis is associated with a ruptured pancreas

A

Fat

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15
Q

What type of necrosis is associated with Polyarteritis nodosa and RA

A

Fibrinoid

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16
Q

What is apoptosis

A

programmed cell death, non-inflammatory

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17
Q

What is Autophagy

A

Cell death in responce to a virus or infection; a type of survival mechanism

Non-imflammatory

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18
Q

What does telomere shortening cause

A

Aging

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19
Q

Is cell injury associated with Fatty accumulation reversable?

A

Yes

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20
Q

What type of cell injury is secondary to inflammation

A

Leukocyte-induced tissue injury

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21
Q

what type of calcification is associated with necrotic tissue

A

Dystrophic

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22
Q

What type of calcification is associated with normal tissue

A

Metastatic

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23
Q

What is stenosis

A

Accumulation of fat within hepatocyte

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24
Q

What can stimulate inflammation

A

Injury
Infection
reaction

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25
Q

What type of lymphcyte is associated with acute inflammattion

A

Neurophils

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26
Q

What type of lymphocyte is associated with Chronic inflammation

A

Macrophages/Lymphocytes

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27
Q

What are some common chronic inflammatory conditions

A 
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB)
Pneumoconiosis
RA
Lupus
HIV/AIDS
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28
Q

What type of granuloma is associated with Sarcoidosis

A

Non-Caseous granuloma

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29
Q

What type of accumulation of fluid in tissue is protein poor

A

Transudate

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30
Q

What type of accumulation of fluid in tissue is protein rich

A

Exudate

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31
Q

What is accumulation of transudate often associated with

A

Chronic heart failure

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32
Q

What type of inflammation is associated with a blister

A

Serous

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33
Q

What type of inflammation is associated with pericarditis (or creation of fibrous tissue)

A

Fibrinous

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34
Q

What type of inflammation is associated an accumulation of pus

A

Suppurative

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35
Q

What type of inflammation is associated with diptheria (fake membranes)

A

Psudomembranous

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36
Q

What are the different types of cell-derived chemical mediators of inflammation

A

Cytokines
ROS
Histamine
Postaglandines

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37
Q

What are the different types of plasma-protein derived chemical mediators of inflammation

A

Complement
Kinins
Preteases

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38
Q

What are some systemic effects of inflammation

A

Fever (hypothalamus)
Cytokines
Leukocytosis

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39
Q

What causes oxidative bursts in responce to microbial infection

A

White blood cells

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40
Q

What type of neoplasims have oma at the end of of its name

A

Benign (ex. adenoma, papilloma, teratoma)

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41
Q

What a malignant neoplasms from epithelial tissue

A

Carcinoma

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42
Q

What is the most common form of skin cancer

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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43
Q

What is the 2nd most common form of skin cancer

A

Aquamous cell carcinoma

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44
Q

What is a cancer of a glandular tissue

A

Adenocarcinoma

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45
Q

What is a malignanat neoplasm of mesenchymal cells (connective tissue)

A

Sarcoma

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46
Q

What type of sarcoma is associated with intense sun exposure

A

Melanoma

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47
Q

What type of sarcoma is the most common type of bone cancer

A

Osteosarcoma

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48
Q

What type of sarcoma is the second most common type of bone cancer

A

Chondrosarcoma

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49
Q

What type of sarcoma is the third most common type of bone cancer

A

Ewing sarcoma

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50
Q

What is the most common type of chromosomal disorders

A

Trisomy 21 (downs)

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51
Q

What disease is common in trisomy 21 patients

A

Alzheimer disease

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52
Q

What is the common name for Trisomy 18

A

Edwards syndrome

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53
Q

What is the common name for Trisomy 13

A

Patau syndome

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54
Q

What conditions are associated with Trisomy 13 (patau syndrome)

A

Renal dysfunction

Death by age 1

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55
Q

What chromosome is associated with a cat-like cry

A

Cri du chat syndrome

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56
Q

What type of Chromosome abnormality has more than two X’s and a Y (XXY)

A

Klinefeler syndrome

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57
Q

What chromosomal abnormality is the most common cause of male sterility

A

Klinefelter syndrome

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58
Q

What type chromosomal abnormality has a loss of 1 X chromosome, neck webbing, short stature

A

Turner syndrome

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59
Q

What chromosomal abnormality makes a phenotypically male but looks like a female

A

Klinefelter syndrome

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60
Q

What chromosomal abnormaliity is associated with a phenotypically female with a male appearance

A

Turner syndrome

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61
Q

What type of Chromosomal abnormality is passed from Grandfathers to grandsons through daughters

A

Fragile X syndrome

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62
Q

What condition is associated with a lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase and a mousy odor from urine

A

Phenylketonuria

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63
Q

What condition is associated with disorded galactose metabolism

A

Galactosemia

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64
Q

What type of lysosomal disease is associated with an inability to metabolize gangliosides

A

Tay-Sachs Disease

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65
Q

What type of lysosomal disease is common in ashkenazi jews

A

Tay-Sachs disease

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66
Q

What type of lysosomal storage disease is associated with sphingomyelinase deficiency and is fatal by age 3

A

Niemann-pick disease, type A & B

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67
Q

What type of lysosomal storage disease is associated with defective lipid transpostation

A

Niemann-pick disease type C

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68
Q

What type of lysosomal disease is associated with Glucocerebrosidase gene mutation and causes Osseous distortion

A

Gaucher Disease

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69
Q

What type of lysosomal storage diseases cause extracellular matrix breakdown of enzymes, course facial features and corneal clousing

A

Mucopolysaccharidosis

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70
Q

Where does glycogen accumulate in glycogen storage disease

A

The liver

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71
Q

What disease is associated with copper accumulation in several tissues, may cause liver failure, kayser-Fleischer ring around the iris

A

Wilsons disease

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72
Q

What are the main perinatal infections

A

Toxoplasmosis
Rubella virus
Cytomegalovirus
Herpesvirus

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73
Q

What are risks of SIDS

A

Prone sleeping
soft bedding
Maternal smoking

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74
Q

What is the cause of neonatal respiratoy distress syndrome

A

Prematurity

Insufficient pulmonary surfactant

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75
Q

what is the cause of necrotizing enterocolitis

A

Prematuriy

Bowel necrosis

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76
Q

What is the cause of Immune fetal hydrops

A

maternal-fetal blood incompatibility

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77
Q

What is the cause of nonimmune fetal hydrops

A

Chromosome abnormalities

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78
Q

What are signs of Cystic fibrosis

A

Salty kiss
Recurrent lung infections
Hypoxia (nail clubbing)

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79
Q

What condition is associated with Fibrillin gene mutation, slender long arms, hypermobility

A

Marfan syndrome

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80
Q

What condition is associated with defective collagen synthesis, Hyperextensible skin

A

Ehlers Danlos syndrome

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81
Q

What pediatric tumor is a benign tumor at the base of the coccyx

A

Sarcooccygel teratoma

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82
Q

What pediatric tumor is malignant and from neural crest-derived cells

A

Neuroblastoma

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83
Q

What is a common pediatric eye malignancy caused by a RB gene mutation

A

Retinoblastoma

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84
Q

What is a common pediatric kidney malignancy. causes Hematuria, abnormal pain

A

Wilms tumor

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85
Q

What is a benign self-limiting pediatric endothelial tumor. Strawberry hemangioma on the face/scalp

A

Hemangioma

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86
Q

What is a type I hypersensitivity associated with

A

Allergens, IgE (remember IgE stung by a BEE)

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87
Q

What is a type II hypersensitivity associated with

A

Cytotoxic; IgM or IgG antibodies against host cells

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88
Q

What is a Type III hypersensitivity associated with

A

Autoimmune/hypersensitivity; exposure to antigens cause IgG production

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89
Q

What is a type IV hypersensitivity associated with

A

T cell mediated; T cells are stimulated by an antigen

possible granuloma formation

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90
Q

What autoimmune disease is associated wih CD4+ T cells that target the MP joints

A

Rheumatoid arthritis (Type IV)

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91
Q

What type of autoimmune disease is a type III hypersensitivity and associated with malar rash on the face and common amoung females

A

Lupus

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92
Q

What auto immune disease of joints is associated with sausage digits (pencil-in-cup deformation of the DOP joints

A

Psoriatic arthritis

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93
Q

What type of auto immune disease is associated with ulcerative solitis or shigellosis

A

Enteropathic arthritis

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94
Q

What type of auto immune disease is associated with sacroiliac joint inflammation and eventual fusion

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

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95
Q

What type of auto immune disease is associated with urethritis (chlamydia), conjunctivitis, achilles tendon pain

A

reactive arthrisis

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96
Q

What conditions are commonly assocaited with HIV/AIDS

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

Pneumocystis pneumonia

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97
Q

What dietary disease results from reduced total calories,

Causes; stunted growth, loss of muscle and fat mass and a decreased immune response

A

Marasmus

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98
Q

What dietary deficeiency results from reduced total calories

Causes; Chronic diarrhea, edema from hypoalbuminemia, fatty liver, loss of appetite, dec immunity

A

Kwashiorkor

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99
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes night blindness, bitot spots, immunosuppression

A

Vitamin A deficiency

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100
Q

What type of vitamin deficiency causes Osteoporosis, Rickets, osteomalacia

A

Vitamin D deficiency

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101
Q

What type of vitamin deficiency causes neurodegeneration, myopathy and peripheral neuropathy

A

Vitamin E deficiency

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102
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes Hemorrhage osteoporosis

A

Vitamin K deficiency

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103
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes Scurvy

A

Vitamin C deficiency

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104
Q

What are the different types of Thamin (B1) deficiency

A

Dry beriberi
Wet beriberi
Acute beriberi

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105
Q

What condition is associated with Alcoholics and vitamin B1 (thamin) deficiency

A

Korsakoff’s syndrome

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106
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with Pellagra

A

Niacin deficiency

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107
Q

What type of vitamin deficiency is associated with megaloblastic anemia, fatigue, neuropathy

A

Vitamin B12

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108
Q

What type of vitamin deficiency is associated with megaloplastic anemia, no neuropathy

A

Folate deficiency

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109
Q

What type of mineral deficiency is associated with tetany, osteoporosis, osteomalacia

A

Calcium

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110
Q

What type of mineral deficiency is associated with arrhythmia, myopathy, reduced cognition

A

Potassium

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111
Q

What type of mineral deficiency is associated with microcytic anermia

A

Iron deficiency

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112
Q

What type of mineral deficiency is associated with goiter and cretinism

A

Iodine deficiency

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113
Q

What is a xenobiotic

A

Exogenous chemicals not normally inside a host and is produced by a microbe

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114
Q

What chemical can bind to hemoglobin with more affinity than oxygen. Will cause hypoxia

A

Carbon monoxide

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115
Q

What is produced by the breakdown of uranium in the ground

A

radon

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116
Q

What age group is most likely to be affected by lead poisionoing and how do they get exposed

A

Children, Paint chips

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117
Q

Arsenic in soil is likely to cause what to those exposed to it

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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118
Q

What does cadmium poisioning cause

A

Lung disease

Kidney damage

119
Q

In large doses what can acetaminophen cause

A

Liver cell necrosis

120
Q

In large doses, what can asprin cause

A

Respiratory alkalosis

121
Q

What can cause malignant hyperthermia

A

Unregulated calcium balance

surgical sedation

122
Q

What condition is associated with Reduced bone mineral density, common in the elderly

A

Osteoporosis

123
Q

what condition is caused by osteolysis followed by deposition of disorganized bone (shaggy appearance)

A

Paget disease

124
Q

Condition associated with Bowing of femur and tibia in children

A

Rickets

125
Q

Condition associated with bowing of femur and tibia in adultes

A

Osteomalacia

126
Q

Wha is caused by disruption of vascular supply to bone, bony necrosis in the hip and shoulder

A

Avascular necrosis

127
Q

What condition is associated with arrested bone development, bone softening

A

Fibrous dysplasia

128
Q

Condition associated with fibrous dysplasia of multiple bones, cafe-au-lait spots

A

McCune-Albright syndome

129
Q

Malignant bone cancer in adolescence. Often on the femur and pelvis and has an onion skinning appearance

A

Ewing sarcoma

130
Q

What is caused when bone marrow become infected with S.Aureus or TB

A

Osteomyelitis

131
Q

What disease has pronounced ankylosis on the anterior segment of vertebral bodies, has a melted candle wax appearance

A

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis

132
Q

What is a benign bone tumor, in the central nidus. Pain at night that is releaved with asprin

A

Osteroid osteoma

133
Q

Malignant bone tumor of adolescents, forms a codman triangle in the metaphyseal regionlong bones, common around knee.

A

Osteosarcoma

134
Q

Benign large cartilage-capped outgrowth on the metaphysis of bone. Common in males, and around the knee

A

Osteochondroma

135
Q

What is the name for the disease where someone has several osteochondromas

A

Multiple hereditary exostosis

136
Q

Bening cartilage tumor, almost always in hands

A

Enchondroma

137
Q

What is the name of the disease when someone has multiple enchondromas of the hand

A

Ollier disease

138
Q

Malignangt cartilage tumor inside medullary cavity of the pelvis or shoulder, common in males. May expand into surrounding tissue

A

Chondrosarcoma

139
Q

Fibroblastic growth gene mutation causing shortening of long bones, frontal bossing, bullet vertebra

A

Achondroplasia

140
Q

Brittle bone disease due to abnormal Type I collagen, weak bones and joints. Possible hearing loss

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

141
Q

Stone bone, due to dysfunctional osteoclast causing marrow to fill. Causes Fractures, Cranial nerve palsies, erlenmeyer flask deformities

A

Osteopetrosis

142
Q

Degenerative joint disease due to altered articular cartilage, age related

A

Osteoarthritis

143
Q

Abnormal purine metabolism causing uric acid crystals in synovium. Common in hallux

A

Gout

144
Q

Calcified tendons, hydroxyapatite deposition into tendons, Idiopathic. Common in rotator cuff muscles

A

Hydroxyapatitie deposition disease

145
Q

Phosphate deposition in cartilage often in the knee or wrist. Often called pseudogout

A

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition

146
Q

Arthrytis caused by Borrelia burgdoferi (lyme disease)

A

Lyme arthritis

147
Q

Name for aggressive skeletal muscle cancer

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

148
Q

malignant smooth muscle tumor

A

Leiomyosarcoma

149
Q

Benign smooth muscle tumor

A

Leiomyoma

150
Q

Soft tissue calcification of hands

A

Scleroderma

151
Q

Cerebral ischemia results in infarction of brain tissue

A

Stroke

152
Q

Rupture of saccular aneurysm

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

153
Q

Auto immune demyelinating disease, multiple white matter plaques in brain and cord. Causes accumulation of neurological defects

A

Multiple sclerosis

154
Q

Loss of spinal cord lower motor neurons damage, muscle atrophy, hyperreflexia. Death due to respiratory paralysis

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

aka Lou Gehrigh disease

155
Q

Most common cause of dementia in elderly, idiopathic. B-amyloid plaque and tau proteins deposition

A

Alzheimer disease

156
Q

damage to dopaminergic neurons of substantia nigra. Lewy body inclusion. “pill-rolling tremor”

A

Parkinson disease

157
Q

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas, vision and hearing loss

A

Neurofibromatosis type II

158
Q

Autosomal dominant, widespread cerebral degeneration of Caudate nucleus. Severe demntia, chorea (jerky movement)

A

Huntington disease

159
Q

cysts within the spinal cord

A

Syringomyelia

160
Q

Wide spread white matter damage. commonly from a motor vehicle accident

A

Diffuse axonal injury

161
Q

Demyelination due to schwann cell or myelin cell damage

A

Neuropathy

162
Q

Diffuse neuropathy, stocking-and-glove paresthesia

A

Polyneuropathy

163
Q

Most common cause of peripheral neuropathy, leads to foot ulceration and gangrenous necrosis

A

Diabetic neuropathy

164
Q

Cutaneous neurofibromas, Cafe au lait spots

A

neurofibromatosis type 1

165
Q

Autoantibodies block postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors. Ptosis, diplopia, Thymic hyperplasia

A

Myasthenia gravis

166
Q

Autoantibodies inhibi presynaptic calcium channels which reduce acetylcholine into synaptic cleft, muscle weakness which improves with activity

A

Lambert-eaton syndrome

167
Q

Chronic idiopathic demyelinization polyneuropathy, ascending paralysis, death once it progresses into respiratory muscles

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

168
Q

Reactive proliferation of schwann cells to trauma on hands and feet

A

Traumatic neuroma

169
Q

Dystrophin gene mutation, pelvic girdle weakness. Evedent at age 5, leathal by 20.

Pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

170
Q

Dystrophin gene mutation, evedent in adolescence, variable prognosis

A

Becker muscular dystrophy

171
Q

Plaques cause hardening of arteries, greates impact in large muscular arteries, increase risk of thrombosis

A

Atherosclerosis

172
Q

What percent of hypertension cases are “essential hypertension” (idiopathic/ Familial history)

A

95%

173
Q

Hole between the left and right venricles, most common heart defect

A

Ventricular septal defect

174
Q

Hole between the left and right atria, patent foramen ovale

A

Atrial septal defect

175
Q

Most common cause of cyanosis at birth, large VSD, Right ventricle hypertrophy

A

Tetralogy of fallot

176
Q

Narrowing of aortic arch, upper extremity hypertension, lower extremity claudication

A

Coarctation of the aorta

177
Q

Reversal of the aorta and pulmonary artery cyanosis

A

Transposition of the great vessels

178
Q

Heart problem that is the result of dysfunctional systole (contraction), diastole (relaxation) or valve dysfunction. Most common cause of pleural effusion

A

Congestive heart failure

179
Q

Concentric enlargment of the left ventricle

A

Ventricular hypertrophy (pathologic)

180
Q

eccentric enlargment of the left ventricle

A

Ventricular hypertrophy (non pathologic/Athletes)

181
Q

Dilation of all chambers of the heart, can cause heart failure

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

182
Q

Genetic mutation where the heart muscle is hypercontractile, may cause sudden cardiac death

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

183
Q

Stiff myocardium, caused by nutritional deficiency or helminth infection

A

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

184
Q

Heart attack, death of cardiac myocytes due to ischemia. Left arm pain. Females present with stomach ach

A

Myocardial infarction

185
Q

Sharp substernal chest pain, “crushing’ worse with activity. At leastt 70% occlusion of coronary artery

A

Angina

186
Q

Type of angina that is becoming more intense and more frequent

A

Unstable angina

187
Q

Pericardial sac becomes inflamed

A

pericarditis

188
Q

Right side heart failure resulting from pulmonary pathology

A

Core pulmonale

189
Q

Vasoconstriction of hands, pallor, cyanosis. Secondary to atherosclerosis

A

Raynaud phenomenon

190
Q

Most common vasculitis in elderly, temporal region leading to vision loss headach and fever

A

Temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)

191
Q

Idiopathic inflammation of small arteries, avoids pulmonary vessels. Fatal if untreated

A

Poly arteritis nodosa

192
Q

Most common vasculitis among children, attack coronary arteries. Strawberry tongue

A

Kawasaki disease

193
Q

Inflammation of medium-size arteries of hands and feet. strong association with cigarette smoking

A

Thromboangiitis obliterans

194
Q

Punched out defect in stomach, commonly caused by NSAIDS and H.pylori infections

A

Peptic ulcers

195
Q

2nd most common cause of death, Adenocarcinomas are most common. Often diagnosed in the late stages. Due to a high fat diet that lack fiber.

A

Colorectal cancer

196
Q

Out pouching in colon, often in older adults.

A

Diverticulosis

197
Q

Inflammation of distal colorectal region, pesudopolyps, bloody stool, relieved by smoking

A

Ulcerative colitis

198
Q

inflammation throughout GI tract, Skip lesions, strictures

A

Crohn disease

199
Q

No bowel inflammation but there is dysfunction presentt

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

200
Q

Gluten-sensitivity, non-infectious, inability to metabolize gliadin, Loss of brush boarder enzyme in SI.

A

Celiac disease

201
Q

Idiopathic malabsorption in tropics, diarrhea

A

Tropical sprue

202
Q

rice water stool, Lethal dehydration

A

Cholera

203
Q

Most common nosocomial infection, intestinal pseudomembranes

A

Pseudomembranous colitis (clostridium difficile)

204
Q

Protrusion of stomach through diaphragm

A

Hiatal hernia

205
Q

weakness in abdominal wall, allows for GI protrusion

A

Bowel herniation

206
Q

Squamous cell metaplasia, chronic GERD, males

A

Barrett Esophagus

207
Q

Congenital mega colon, lack of neural ganglia in rectum

A

Hirschsprung disease

208
Q

Collapsed lung, Compression, Contraction

A

Atelectasis

209
Q

Air accumulaion within the pleural cavity

A

pneumothorax

210
Q

What is the common cause of lobar pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

211
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae infection, green sputum, rapid onset

A

Community-acquired acute pneumonia

212
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection of lungs, not typical symptoms of pneumonia

A

Community-acquired atypical Pneumonia

213
Q

Permanent destruction of alveolar septa, inflammation, associated with smoking. Barrel chest, “pink puffer”

A

Emphysema

214
Q

Bronchial inflammation, obstructive airway disease, productive cough for 3 months in 2 consecutive years

A

Chronic bronchitis

215
Q

Combination of Emphysema and chronic bronchitis

A

COPD

216
Q

Necrotizing infection of bronchi, tissue destruction, purulent sputum

A

Bronchiectasis

217
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Caseating granuloma development, upper lung fields (cavitation), Pott disease

A

TB

218
Q

Multisystemic inflammation, noncaseating granuloma in lungs, common amoung non-smokers, skin lesions

A

Sarcoidosis

219
Q

Autoimmune diffuse alveolar hemorrhage syndrome affecting lungs and kidneys

A

Goodpasture syndrome

220
Q

Diffuse alveolar capillary and epithelial damage, severe trauma and sepsis, rapid onset

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

221
Q

Deep vein thrombosis dislodges and stops in pulmonary artery capillaries may be lethal if larg enough

A

Pulmonary embolism

222
Q

Increased pulmonary vessel blood pressure, results in vessel destruction or obstruction. Chroming interstitial lung disease

A

Pulmonary hypertension

223
Q

Cancer with a strong association with smoking, develop from bronchial epithelial cells

A

Lung cancer

224
Q

inspiration of asbestos is strongest risk, lesion of pleural cavity, lethal

A

Malignant mesothelioma

225
Q

what causes non cancerous genetal warts

A

HPV 6, 11

226
Q

What causes Cancerous genetal warts

A

HPV 16, 18

227
Q

Failure for testicles to descend into scrotum

A

Cryptorchildism

228
Q

Swollen + twisting of testicles

A

Testicular torsion

229
Q

Painless non translucent mass on testicles

A

Testicular cancer

230
Q

inflammation of prostate, commonly caused by E.coli

A

Prostatitis

231
Q

enlargment of the prostate in the peripheral zone, eaily palpable

A

Prostate cancer

232
Q

White plaque and thinning of epidermis of vulva

A

Lichen sclerosis

233
Q

Epithelial hyperplasia of vulva

A

Lichen simplex chronicus

234
Q

Inflammation, white discharge from vagina (common)

A

Vaginitis caused by Candida albicans

235
Q

Inflammation, green discharge from vagina

A

Vaginitis caused by Trichomonas vaginalis

236
Q

HPV 16/18 infection of cervix, caused by early intercourse and multiple partners

A

Carvical cancer

237
Q

Endometrial inflammation

A

Endometritis

238
Q

Endometrial inflammation, often extends endoetrial tissue into cervix and fallopian tubes, but can go throughout body

A

Endometriosis

239
Q

Benign uterine fibroids. Very common, menorrhagia

A

Leiomyoma

240
Q

Malignancy of uterus, common in postmenopausal women, may metastisize to lungs

A

leiomyosarcoma

241
Q

Fallopian tube inflammation

A

Salpingitis

242
Q

Firm mass on breast tissue

A

breast cancer

243
Q

Hypertension and proteinuria during pregnancy

A

Preeclampsia

244
Q

Progression of preeclampsia. Cause seizures

A

Eclampsia

245
Q

Increased long bone growth in children due to growth hormone/pituitary adenoma

A

Gigantism

246
Q

Increased size of hands and fee, mandible, macroglossia, lethal cardiomegaly in adults due to growth hormone/pituitary adenoma

A

Acromegaly

247
Q

Growth hormone deficiency due to a loss of the pituitary gland

A

Pituitary dwarfism

248
Q

Hyperfunctioning thyroid gland, insomnia, wt loss, fatigue, rapid heat beat, Common amoung females

A

Graves disease

249
Q

Reduced metabolic rate, weight gain, cold, intolerant, depression, reduced T3 & T4

A

Hypothyroidism

250
Q

Hypothyroidism in children, iodine deficiency, abnormal facial bone development

A

Cretinism

251
Q

Hypothyroidisms in adolescens, mental sluggishness, obease

A

Myxemia

252
Q

Autoimmune hypothyroidism, goiter, wt gain, older females

A

Hasimoto’s thyroiditis

253
Q

Parathyroid adenoma, Salt-and-pepper skull, brown tumor, painful bones, renal stones

A

Hyperparathyroidism

254
Q

Autoimmune disease (insulin dependent) destruction of panreatic cells

A

Type 1 diabetes

255
Q

Insulin resistant diabetes associated with obesity (reversible)

A

Type 2 diabetes

256
Q

Deficiency of ADH production by pituitary gland or insensitivity of the kidney to ADH. Excessive thirst, no glucose in urine

A

Diabetes insipidus

257
Q

Inflammation of pancreas caused by gallstones or trauma, medical emergency (reversible)

A

Acute Pancreatitis

258
Q

inflammation of pancreas causing irreversible parenchymal damage and fibrosis from chronic alcoholism

A

Chronic pancreatitis

259
Q

Autoimmune destruction of adrenal cortex, hyperpigmentation of skin, hypotension

A

Addisons disease

260
Q

Pituitary adenoma from exogenous corticosteroid therapy, wt gain (moon faces, Buffalo hump)

A

Cushing syndrome (hypercortisolism)

261
Q

Most common cause of anemia

A

Iron deficiency

262
Q

Wha type of anemia is due to chronic inflammation and is common amoung hospitalized patients

A

Anemia of chronic disease

263
Q

Unstable red blood cell membrane due to unpaired Alpha globin molecules. Causes skeletal deformities (hair on end skull)

A

beta-Thalassemia

264
Q

Unstable red blood cell membrane due to unpaired beta globin molecules

A

Alpha globin

265
Q

What can cause macrocytic anemia

A

Folate deficiency anemia

Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

266
Q

Type of anemia in which myeloid stem cells are suppressed and fail to produce RBC

A

Acute blood loss

267
Q

RBC membrane mutation that caused them to be spherical

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

268
Q

X-linked disorder where there is a failure to protect RBCs against oxidation (infection+NSAIDs)

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

269
Q

What antibodies are associated with immune hemolytic anemia (warm)

A

IgG

270
Q

What antibodies are associated with immune hemolytic anemia (cold)

A

IgM

271
Q

Increased red blood cell mass due to autonomous production, normal erythropoietin. Overexpression of myeloid stem cells. JAK2 gene mutation.

A

Polycythemia vera

272
Q

EBV infection, fever, splenomegaly, lymphadenitis

A

Mono

273
Q

Bartonella henselae infection

A

Cat-scratch fever

274
Q

Lymphoma with punched out lesions, Bence-jones proteins, Invasive

A

Multiple myeloma

275
Q

Lymphoma, common in children starry sky histology, rapid facial of mandible

A

Burkitt lyphoma

276
Q

Most common lymphoma of adults,

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

277
Q

Variable aggressiveness, lymph nodes have a nodular (follicular) pattern

A

Follicular lymphoma

278
Q

Most common leukemia of adults, insidious onset

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

279
Q

Aggressive, rapid onset, T cells and B cells, Common in children

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

280
Q

Lymphoma with predictable metastasis, Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Infectious mononucleosis

281
Q

Anaplastic myeloid cell, aggressive, replace bone marrow and suppress hematopoiesis

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia

282
Q

disordered hematopoieses, Pancytopenia, may transform into acute myelogenous leukemia

A

Myelodysplastic leukemia

283
Q

Myelogenous Leukemia associated with the philadelphia chromosome

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

284
Q

Diffuse marrow fibrosis, Extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

Primary myelofibrosis

285
Q

Birbeck granules, skin lesions, lymphadenopathy

A

Langerhans cell histiocytes

286
Q

Massive tissue injury, widespread clotting, Very lethat

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

287
Q

Bleeding gums, abnormal Willebrand factor

A

Von Willebrand disease

288
Q

Mutation of coagulation factor VIII, X-linked recessive

A

Hemophilia A

289
Q

Mutated coagulation factor IX mutation, X-linked recessive

A

Hemophilia B

290
Q

Increase permeability of glomeruli causing massive proteinuria

A

Nephrotic syndrome

291
Q

Most commonly from a bacterial urinary tract infection

A

Pyelonephritis

292
Q

Genetic disease that results in massive cysts to develop within the kidney

A

Polycyctic kidney disease

293
Q

Most common cancer of the kidney

A

Renal cell carcinoma

294
Q

Common childhood cancer of the kidney

A

Wilms tumor

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