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CCEB Part A > Pathology (9%) > Flashcards

Pathology (9%) Flashcards

1
Q

What biochemical product is elevated in gout?
• Uric acid

  • Hemoglobin
  • Calcium
  • RBC
A

• Uric acid

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2
Q 
A 49-year-old male presents with unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, and mild unsteadiness.  Which of the following tumours is the most likely etiology?
•	Meningioma
•	Oligodendroglioma
•	Vestibular schwannoma
•	Metastatic lymphoma
A

• Vestibular schwannoma

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3
Q 
Jaundice results when \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cannot be removed from the blood quickly
•	blood clot
•	bilirubin
•	gallstones
•	flukes
A

bilirubin

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4
Q 
The family of a 75-year-old female noticed she is becoming more forgetful and has had some balance problems over three weeks.  In addition, there are some subtle attention deficits and cognitive dysfunction.  Which of the following conditions would not cause this sudden deterioration?
•	Vascular dementia
•	Chronic subdural
•	Polypharmacy
•	Normal pressure hydrocephalus
A

• Vascular dementia

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5
Q 
This viral hepatitis is the most common cause of chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis:
•	Hepatitis B
•	Hepatitis A
•	Hepatitis D
•	Hepatitis C
A

• Hepatitis C

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6
Q 
This viral disease is enters into respiratory system and localizes to skin cells by 2 weeks?
•	Chickenpox
•	Warts
•	Shingles
•	Cold sores
A

• Chickenpox

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7
Q 
Which protein antibodies is associated with diabetes mellitus type 1?
•	Glucagon
•	MBP
•	Somatostatin
•	Glutamic acid decarboxylase
A

• Glutamic acid decarboxylase

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8
Q

Which patient would be most at risk for a pressure ulcer?
• a 75-year-old female status post total knee arthroplasty

• a 60-year-old female with a C7 spinal cord injury

  • an 80-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  • a 55-year-old male with diabetes
A

• a 60-year-old female with a C7 spinal cord injury

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9
Q

Which is the most likely complication of improper hand placement for chest compressions during cardiopulmonary resuscitation, CPR?
• Vomiting

  • Fractured ribs
  • Gastric distension
  • Esophageal rupture
A

• Fractured ribs

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10
Q 
Which of the viral hepatitides is associated with a notably increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?
•	E
•	A
•	B
•	D
A

• B

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11
Q

A patient with a lower extremity injury completes a series of resisted movements. Initially, the patient denies of any pain, but complains of increasing pain after performing a number of repetitions. This scenario is most consistent with:
• complete rupture of a tendon

  • emotional hypersensitivity
  • ligamentous laxity
  • intermittent claudication
A

• intermittent claudication

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12
Q

Which one of the following is an unlikely cause of lymph node engorgement, or swelling?
• excessive thyroid and metabolic activity

  • obstruction of afferent of efferent lymph vessels
  • infestation by bacteria, viruses or metastatic cells
  • increase in the number of lymphocyte/ macrophages
A

• excessive thyroid and metabolic activity

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13
Q 
Which one of the following symptoms is not part of the AIDS dementia complex
•	Poor concentration
•	Visual agnosia
•	Cognitive impairment
•	Tremors
A

• Visual agnosia

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14
Q

Which type of frontotemporal dementia is linked to tau gene mutation on chromosome 17?
• Frontotemporal dementia with motor neuron disease
• Semantic dementia
• Dementia with Parkinsonism
• Corticobasal degeneration

A

• Dementia with Parkinsonism

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15
Q 
This usually starts immediately following injury or within a few weeks after trauma:
•	Multiple sclerosis
•	Cerebral Palsy
•	Parkinson’s disease
•	Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy
A

• Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy

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16
Q

Which of the following is false regarding pial arteriovenous malformations (PAVM)?
• Most common in the cerebral hemispheres
• Most commonly involves the middle meningeal artery
• Rarely present as multiple pAVMs
• Is always associated with a nidus

A

• Most commonly involves the middle meningeal artery

17
Q

Which glioma has histology showing nuclear atypia, the presence of cellular pleomorphism, and marked mitotic activity with the absence of necrosis and endovascular proliferation?
• WHO Grade I astrocytoma

  • Gemistocytic astrocytoma
  • WHO Grade II astrocytoma
  • WHO Grade III astrocytoma
A

• WHO Grade III astrocytoma

18
Q

A young female is diagnosed with chlamydia. She gives her consent for her physician to disclose her diagnosis after counseling and treatment. What is the next step?
• Contact public health officials for partner notification
• Contact social services for partner notification
• Permission from parents must be obtained for partner notification
• No action as it is illegal for physician to contact partner(s)

A

• Contact public health officials for partner notification

19
Q

A chiropractor prepares to treat a patient undergoing active treatment for an osteosarcoma. Which statements best describe this condition?
• a malignant growth affective the flat bones
• a malignant growth affecting the long bones
• a benign growth affecting the long bones
• a benign growth affecting the flat bones

A

• a malignant growth affecting the long bones

20
Q 
This kidney disease usually from bacteria that have spread from the bladder
•	Nephrotic Syndrome
•	Pyelonephritis
•	Kidney stones
•	Dialysis
A

• Pyelonephritis

21
Q

A 3 cm mass is removed from a retraction pocket in a patient’s tympanic membrane. The mass is cystic containing a mononuclear infiltrate and desquamated cellular debris lined by squamous epithelium. Select the probable etiology of the mass
• Malignancy

  • Exostosis from the auditory canal
  • Chronic otitis media
  • Acute otitis media
A

• Chronic otitis media

22
Q 
A common form of mental disorder afflicting 10-20% of the population is
•	schizophrenia
•	depression
•	delusional disorder
•	senile dementia
A

• depression

23
Q

Which of the following is the most atypical symptom of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
• Tingling in the extremities

  • High blood pressure
  • Numbness
  • Uncoordinated movements
A

• High blood pressure

24
Q

Which of the following signs and symptoms are typical of asthma?
• gradual onset, low grade fever

  • peripheral edema, painful cough
  • productive cough, difficult expiration
  • non-productive cough, difficult expiration
A

• non-productive cough, difficult expiration

25
Q

Which of the following is used in PET scans?
• isotopes

  • ions
  • uranium
  • steroids
A

• isotopes

26
Q 
This hemostasis disorder is a deficit of platelets, causes spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels:
•	Thromboembolytic
•	Hemophilia
•	none of the options
•	Thrombocytopenia
A

• Thrombocytopenia

27
Q 
An abnormal increase in bone deposition without normal bone resorption in adults is called:
•	Osteomalacia
•	Osteoporosis
•	Scurvy
•	Acromegaly
A

• Acromegaly

28
Q

A new physician entry indicates that 51-year-old female diagnosed with myasthenia gravis is currently taking immunosupressive medication. Which laboratory test should be the most frequently monitored based on the patient’s medication?
• white blood cell count

  • hematocrit
  • hemoglobin
  • platelet count
A

• white blood cell count

29
Q

Aspirin is sufficient in which of the following patients with left carotid artery stenosis?
• 52-year-old with less than 50% stenosis

  • 70-year-old with > 75% stenosis but no symptoms
  • 54-year-old with history of a TIA on aspirin
  • 65-year-old with a carotid bruit
A

• 52-year-old with less than 50% stenosis

30
Q

Which stage of inflammation does scar tissue develop?
• acute

  • sub-chronic
  • sub-acute
  • chronic
A

• chronic

31
Q 
Initial treatment of early Alzheimer disease includes drugs that slow down the progression of the underlying brain pathology.  What is their mechanism of action?
•	Inhibit acetylcholinesterase
•	Activate certain serotonin receptors
•	Inhibit MAD
•	Inhibit dopamine release
A

• Inhibit acetylcholinesterase

32
Q 
Which is a treatment for anemia of chronic renal failure?
•	Sargramostim
•	Epoetin alfa
•	Filgrastim
•	Pegfilgrastim
A

• Epoetin alfa

33
Q 
In a 63-year-old with uncontrolled hypertension, in what part of the brain would one expect to find intracranial bleeding?
•	Hippocampus
•	Basal ganglia
•	Subdural space
•	Subarachnoid space
A

• Basal ganglia

34
Q 
What is the condition that presents with decrease bone mass, but not severe enough to be classified as osteoporosis?
•	hypoglycemia
•	anorexia nervosa
•	cystocele
•	osteopenia
A

• osteopenia

35
Q

Which stage of an ulcer is most associated with a clinical finding of tunneling with the muscle visible?

A

Stage III?

36
Q 
Which of the following is the priority when managing a patient with traumatic brain injury?
•	Preventing infection
•	Maintaining airway and blood flow
•	Treating wounds
•	Assessing the level of brain damage
A

• Maintaining airway and blood flow

CCEB Part A (16 decks)

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