Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CCEB Part A > Anatomy (23%) > Flashcards

Anatomy (23%) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which nerve arises from the L1-L2 roots, then runs downward through the psoas major, and later at the level of the inguinal ligament, divides into branches to innervate the skin of the anterior surface of the thigh and the cremaster?
    • Femoral
  • Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
  • Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
  • Genitofemoral
A

Genitofemoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What structure would be trapped in between the dura and vertebral body by the swelling spinal cord?
• Pia matter

  • Anterior longitudinal ligament
  • Posterior longitudinal ligament
  • Lateral longitudinal ligament
A

Posterior longitudinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 22-year-old male is examined in chiropractic treatment after sustaining a grade I ankle sprain three days ago in a baseball game. The patient’s description of the mechanism of injury is consistent with inversion and plantar flexion. Which of the following ligaments would most likely be affected?
• anterior talofibular ligament

  • calcaneofibular ligament
  • anterior tibiofibular ligament
  • deltoid ligament
A

• anterior talofibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following thigh muscles receives significant innervation from both the peroneal and tibial portions of the sciatic nerve?
• Adductor magnus

  • Semitendinosus
  • Biceps femoris
  • Vastus lateralis
A

• Biceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. A 54-year-old female has difficulty abducting her right leg due to trochanteric bursitis. In which plane of movement is she limited?
    • horizontal plane
  • frontal plane
  • sagittal plane
  • transverse plane
A

• frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A female patient with a spinal cord injury following a skiing accident uses a head control mechanism in order to move her power wheelchair. From the following choices, what is the level of injury where someone would most likely need to use a head control mechanism?
• C6

  • C4
  • C5
  • C7
A

C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This major body cavity consists of a thoracic and an abdominopelvic portion
• dorsal cavity

  • ventral cavity
  • vertebral cavity

cranial cavity

A

• ventral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which movement would be completely intact if a client has sustained a laceration of the deep peroneal nerve?
• Dorsiflexion

  • Inversion
  • Eversion
  • Plantar flexion.
A

• Plantar flexion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
This gland is one of the largest endocrine glands in the body:
•	Thyroid
•	Pituitary
•	Parathyroid
•	Adrenal
A

• Thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HGH is produced by which gland?
• adrenal gland

  • thymus
  • parathroid gland
  • pituitary gland
A

• pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following statements about the patella is TRUE?
• it attaches to the patellar ligament superiorly

  • it does not protect the knee joint
  • it sits on the patellar surface of the femur
  • it is the smallest sesamoid bond in the body
A

• it sits on the patellar surface of the femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The patient is in the side lying position and the examiner’s hands are placed over the upper part of the iliac crest, pressing toward the floor. Pain in the sacroiliac joints commonly indicates:
• Lesions of the anterior sacroiliac ligaments

  • Lesions of the posterior sacroiliac ligaments
  • Hypo-mobility of the sacroiliac joint
  • Lesions of the sacrotuberous ligaments
A

• Lesions of the posterior sacroiliac ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A spinal trauma patient loses the ability to use his rib or abdominal muscles, but is still able to breath because the diaphragm contracts. Injury at which of the following levels is consistent with this description?
• T7

  • C2
  • T5
  • C7
A

• C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A chiropractor administers the Rinne test in attempts to assess the integrity of the vestibulocochlear nerve on a patient with a suspected upper motor neuron lesion. After striking the tine of the tuning fork to begin vibration, which bony prominence should the chiropractor utilize to position the stem of the tuning fork?
• midline of the skull

  • inion
  • mastoid process
  • occipital protuberance
A

• mastoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Which part of the kidney contains about 1 million microscopic structures called nephrons?
•	interlobar artery
•	parenchyma
•	afferent arterioles
•	Medulla
A

• parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which region is the superior, middle and inferior cluneal nerves are responsible for innervation of the skin?
• Gluteal

  • Foot
  • Thigh
  • Leg
A

• Gluteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This test is used for assessing hypomobility of the sacroiliac joint:
• Ipsilateral prone kinetic test

  • Sacroiliac rocking
  • Approximation test
  • Transverse anterior stress test
A

• Ipsilateral prone kinetic test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Which epidermis layer has the most dead keratinocytes?
•	Corneum
•	Spinosum
•	Lucidum
•	Granulosum
A

• Corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
This portion of the hair that penetrates into the dermis and sometimes the subcutaneous layer:
•	Shaft
•	bulb
•	follicle
•	Root
A

• Root

20
Q

Which of the following muscles can flex and medially rotate the thigh?
• Gastrocnemius

  • Psoas major
  • Tensor fasciae latae

Gracilis

A

• Tensor fasciae latae

21
Q

What artery is based on the medial aspect of the sternocleidomastoid muscle in the lower half of the neck?
• popliteal

  • carotid
  • ulnar
  • dorsalis pedis
A

• carotid

22
Q

What is the appropriate vessel of the heart based on function of taking blood away from the right ventricle to the left and right lungs?
• inferior vena cava

  • superior vena cava
  • aorta

pulmonary arteries

A

pulmonary arteries

23
Q 
Which gland(s) are under the base of the tongue?
•	all of the options
•	sublingual
•	parotid
•	submandibular
A

submandibular

24
Q

What is the reason for encouraging patients on bed rest to periodically plantar and dorisflex their ankles?
• To promote cardiac contractility

  • To increase blood flow to the legs
  • To prevent blood clots
  • To prevent muscle atrophy
A

• To prevent blood clots

25
Q 
Which sensory receptor is found in greatest numbers in the skin?
•	pain receptors
•	warmth receptors
•	pressure receptors
•	touch receptors
A

pain receptors

26
Q

Which nerve supplies sensation to the fifth finger?
• Ulnar

  • Radial
  • Median
  • Musculocutaneous
A

• Ulnar

27
Q

Which one of the following structures is NOT housed in the mediastinum?
• thoracic part of the trachea

  • the heart
  • thoracic part of the esophagus

lungs

A

lungs

28
Q

What is the appropriate vessel of the heart based on function of taking blood away from the left ventricle?
• pulmonary arteries

  • superior vena cava
  • pulmonary veins
  • aorta
A

• aorta

29
Q

This layer protects the kidney from trauma:

A

Renal capsule

30
Q

Which gait pattern is characterized by excessive lateral trunk flexion and weight shifting over the stance leg due to gluteus medius weakness?
• antalgic

  • trendelenburg
  • vaulting
  • circumduction
A

• trendelenburg

31
Q

Following an upper arm stab wound, a patient has weakness of elbow flexion and forearm supination. You suspect severance of the:
• Ulnar nerve

  • Musculocutaneous nerve
  • Median nerve
  • Axillary nerve
A

• Musculocutaneous nerve

32
Q

Which part of the sphenoid bone is a depression found in the midline superior to the sphenoid sinus?
• Mandible

  • Tuberculum sellae
  • Dorsum sellae
  • Sella turcica
A

• Sella turcica

33
Q

A soldier crawling along a ditch in live round training incautiously raised his rear. An ultimately bullet shattered his ischial tuberosity. Which of the following muscles would you expect to still be functional?
• The long head of the biceps femoris

  • The semitendinosus
  • The semimembranosus
  • The short head of the biceps femoris
A

• The short head of the biceps femoris

34
Q 
Diencephalon encloses the \_\_\_\_ ventricle
•	second
•	lateral
•	fourth
•	third
A

• third

35
Q 
This system protects underlying tissues, regulates body temperature, houses sensory receptors, and synthesizes various substances
•	Integumentary
•	Skeletal
•	Endocrine
•	Muscular
A

• Integumentary

36
Q 
The posterior one third of the tongue receives both general and taste innervation from which of the following nerves?
•	Lingual nerve
•	Glossopharyngeal nerve
•	Inferior palatine nerve
•	Hypoglossal nerve
A

• Glossopharyngeal nerve

37
Q 
Which gland is also known as the “third eye”
•	Pineal
•	Parathyroid
•	Pituitary
•	Thyroid
A

Pineal

38
Q

What artery is near the center of the long axis of the foot, between the first and second metatarsal bones?
• ulnar

  • dorsalis pedis
  • popliteal
  • brachial
A

• dorsalis pedis

39
Q

A patient presents with spinous left body right at C4. Which supine adjustment would correct this problem?
• supine the face, rotate the head to the left and contact left articular pillar

  • supine the face, rotate the head to the left and contact right articular pillar
  • supine the face, rotate the head to the right and contact right articular pillar
  • supine the face, rotate the head to the right and contact left articular pillar
A

• supine the face, rotate the head to the left and contact right articular pillar

40
Q

Which objective finding would be consistent with a patient with a suspected injury to the thoracodorsal nerve?
• paralysis of the rhomboids

  • paralysis of the diaphragm
  • shoulder extension weakness
  • shoulder medial rotation weakness
A

• shoulder extension weakness

41
Q

Which one of the following manifestations would you NOT expect to observe in a person with a right thoracic scoliosis?
• depressed shoulder on the right

  • protruding scapula on the right
  • prominent hip on the left
  • depressed shoulder on the left
A

• depressed shoulder on the right

42
Q 
Which is NOT apart of the lower respiratory system?
•	larynx
•	trachea
•	lungs
•	pharynx
A

• pharynx

43
Q 
Arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) are most commonly in the:
•	Medulla
•	Midbrain
•	Cerebellar hemispheres
•	Cerebral hemispheres
A

• Cerebral hemispheres

44
Q
  1. An effective cardiorespiratory training program session should include all of these basic components EXCEPT:
    • Warm-up phase
  • Cool-down phase
  • Endurance phase
  • Power phase
A

• Power phase

45
Q 
which muscle performs cervical flexion
Splenius
suboccipital
longus colli
SCM
A

longus colli

CCEB Part A (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions