Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Module 8 theory > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following defines Pathology?

A

It is the science of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the process called when the body works to maintain a steady state?

A

Homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which term is defined as the sequence of cellular and tissue events that take place at initial contact with a causative agent until the disease is expressed?

A

Pathogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pathogenesis

A

Apotosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the six aspects of the disease process?

A

Etiology

Pathogenesis

Diagnosis

None of the above**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cells constantly adapt to changes in the body’s internal environment. Based on these internal demands, body cells are able to change in size, number, and form. Which of the following terms defines cellular adaption in number quantity?

A

Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A disease that is not clinically evident but is destined to progress to clinical disease is in:

A

Preclinical stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is the process that indicates that a cell has died?

A

Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following types of adaptation describes a decrease in cell number?

A

Hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following types of adaptation describes a muscle increasing in size due to an increase in cell size?

A

Hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

During hemostasis what stage involves both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?

A

Blood coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which suffix is used to indicate inflammation of a structure?

A

itis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for acute inflammation?

A

It is hemodynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is considered to be one of the five cardinal signs of acute inflammation?

A

Rubor

Dolor

Calor
Correct Answer
All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

A

Rapid onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following white blood cells is usually the first to arrive at a site of inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is the process of a lymphocyte engulfing and digesting a foreign microbe?

A

Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which term identifies the attraction of WBC’s toward a microbe?

A

emigration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following white blood cells participate in phagocytosis?

A

Basophils & neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During the vascular stage of inflammation, both vasoconstriction and vasodilation of blood vessels. Which process occurs first?

A

Vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of histamine during the inflammatory response?

A

To vasodilate capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of inflammation?

A

Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following tissue types is able to response to injury and undergo tissue regeneration?

A

Parenchymal Tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which type of body cells normally stops dividing when growth ceases?

A

Stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What causes a wound to heal with an excessively large scar?

A

The edges of injured tissue do not contract toward each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following indicates that Healing by Primary Intention will occur?

A

There is little or no tissue loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which one of the following phases of wound healing accounts for the building of new tissues and the formation of granulation tissue?

A

Proliferative Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding infectious disease is FALSE?

A

It is normal and healthy for parasites to live in the human intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following contain DNA as a genome?

A

bacteria, fungi & viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which one of the following terms describes an infection when only the infecting organism benefits from the relationship?

A

Parasitism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which one of the following terms describes an infection when both the host and the infecting organism benefit from the relationship?

A

Mutualistic flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which one of the following statements describes Virulence?

A

Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following structures lack an organized nucleus?

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following is considered to be the smallest pathogen and incapable of replication outside of a living cell?

A

Viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which one of the following microbes is capable of living outside the human host and forms large communities called biofilms?

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the spread of disease across continents with the potential to affect the entire world?

A

Pandemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regards to the Incubation period during the course of an infectious disease?

A

Pathogen begins active replication without producing recognizable symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which one of the following terms regarding the course of a disease is characterized by containment of the infection, repair of damaged tissue, and progressive elimination of the pathogen?

A

Convalescent period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A symptom of an infectious disease that reflects the site of infection is called:

A

specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When infectious diseases are developed in hospitals, it is called:

A

Nosomial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which one of the following processes identifies why patients with pulmonary embolisms have very few and mild symptoms?

A

The lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which one of the following locations is the most likely source of a pulmonary embolism?

A

Deep Vein in the legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which one of the following diseases causes severe chronic fluid secretion in the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive systems in children?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which one of the following conditions is caused by a loss of elasticity to lung tissue, abnormal enlargement of the air spaces with destruction of the alveoli?

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which one of the following diseases is a permanent dilatation of one or more bronchi placing pressure on neighboring bronchi?

A

Bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which one of the following adaptive mechanisms does NOT occur during chronic inflammation in the respiratory system?

A

It triggers increased growth of alveoli to handle the demand of cell damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which one of the following conditions is defined as: incomplete expansion of the lung?

A

Atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which one of the following anatomical changes is found with the disease Emphysema?

A

SCM hypertrophies, shoulder elevate & expansion of the rib cage occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which one of the following lists of manifestations occurs with an asthma attack?

A

Dyspnea and wheezing with difficulty exhaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which one of the following processes is unique to the condition Bronchitis?

A

Inflammation of one or more bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which one of the following phrases describes a pneumothorax?

A

Air entering the pleural cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which one of the following statements identifies the etiology of Pneumoconioses?

A

There is inhalation of inorganic dusts and particulate matter such as asbestos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which one of the following statements describes the etiology of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

A

There is pulmonary immaturity and surfactant deficiency leading to alveolar collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which one of the following pathologies develops from incompetent valves then venous stasis, congestion, edema and finally thrombosis formation?

A

Varicose Veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which one of the following descriptions identifies Petechia?

A

Pinpoint hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the formation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A

Anticoagulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which one of the following deficiencies occurs in neutropenia?

A

A deficiency of white blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which one of the following conditions is suspected if a person has a Reed Sternberg cells present in their blood stream and tumors of the lymphatic tissue?

A

Hodgkin’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which one of the following increases the risk for contracting Tuberculosis infections?

A

HIV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which one of the following congenital cardiac defect is known as a “hole in the heart”?

A

Atrial Septal Defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which one of the following descriptions identifies Angina Pectoris?

A

Severe chest pain due to myocardial ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which one of the following conditions is defined as: a failure of the heart to pump blood efficiently resulting in a build up of fluid in the bodies’ tissues?

A

Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which one of the following conditions is described as: ischemic death of myocardial tissue due to atherosclerotic disease of the coronary arteries?

A

Myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which one of the following processes is NOT a complication of shock?

A

Immune reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which one of the following terms defines a gene pair; one from the mother and one from the father?

A

Alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which one of the following terms describes a biochemical event such as a deletion that produces new alleles?

A

Gene Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which one of the following genes is responsible for a sex-linked disorder?

A

The ‘X’ chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which one of the following diseases is X-linked Recessive?

A

Fragile X syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In which one of the following situations will a child express an Autosomal Recessive Disorder?

A

If both parents are carriers of the gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which one of the following genetic disease results from a connective tissue disorder causing elongated limbs, fingers hyperflexion of the joints and heart conditions?

A

Marfan’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which Chromosomal Disorder is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 resulting in altered facial features, mental retardation and lax joints?

A

Down Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which one of the following statements describes a Teratogenic agent?

A

An environmental agent that produces abnormalities during fetal development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which one of the following diseases manifests from pregnant mothers drinking alcohol?

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which one of the following vitamins do pregnant women take prior to and during pregnancy to prevent neural tube disorders?

A

Folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which one of the following statements describes angiogenesis?

A

Growth of blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which one of the following terms is defined as a swelling due to inflammation or trauma?

A

Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

When naming a tumor, what is the suffix added to the tissue type?

A

– oma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which one of the following types of tumor grows in a capsule and can compress nearby structures?

A

Benign Tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which one of the following tumors grows using invasive crab like extensions into neighbouring tissue?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which one of the following terms describes a chemical agent that is capable of causing cancer in the body?

A

Carcinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which one of the following events must occur for any tumor to enlarge and its cells to spread?

A

Angiogenesis in the tumor

82
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a treatment for cancer?

A

Application of massage therapy

83
Q

Which one of the following as a symptom of bone cancer?

A

Worsening pain at night in the affected area

84
Q

What type of tumor is present if the symptoms include no pain, no palpable mass and an unexplained bone fracture?

A

Benign bone tumor

85
Q

What is Metastatic Bone Disease?

A

Cancer that has spread to the bone from an other site like the breast or prostate

86
Q

During the aging process, which one of the following event describes electrons being ‘stolen’ from proteins and lipids?

A

Free radical formation

87
Q

What theory holds that aging is a result of accumulated random events or damage from environmental agents?

A

Stochastic theory

88
Q

Which one of the following events does NOT occur in aging muscles?

A

Increased reflexes

89
Q

Which one of the following changes in physiology will occur when joints age?

A

Loss of flexibility and ligament length

90
Q

What is esophagitis?

A

Inflammation of the esophagus

91
Q

Which of the following are complications of chronic gastroesophageal reflux?

A

Anemia & fibrous restrictions

92
Q

Which one of the following forms of Diabetes is caused by the catabolism of pancreatic beta cells resulting in the complete loss of insulin production?

A

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

93
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Peptic Ulcers is CORRECT?

A

They are found most often in the duodenum.

94
Q

Which one of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease that only affects the mucosa and submucosa of the colon & rectum?

A

Ulcerative colitis

95
Q

Which one of the following is associated with Crohn’s disease?

A

Inflammation of the distal ileum

96
Q

Which one of the following diseases causes a client to suffer from abdominal cramping alternating constipation and diarrhea?

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

97
Q

Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms tends to occur with diverticulitis?

A

Lower left quadrant pain

98
Q

Which of the following describes cirrhosis?

A

Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver

99
Q

What symptom occurs when bilirubin builds up in the blood stream?

A

Jaundice

100
Q

Which Viral Hepatitis strain is highly contagious?

A

Hepatitis A

101
Q

Which of the following diseases is commonly known as gallstones?

A

Choledocholithiasis

102
Q

Which of the following occur due to an increased resistance to hepatic blood flow?

A

Portal hypertension

103
Q

Which of the following is an ‘end stage’ complication in cirrhosis?

A

Portal hypertension

104
Q

Which of the following complications is associated with Portal Hypertension?

A

Varicose veins

105
Q

Which one of the following terms indicates sensory impairment?

A

Paresthesia

106
Q

Which one of the following symptoms is NOT found below the level of a spinal cord injury?

A

Loss of vascular supply

107
Q

Which one of the following factors will NOT affect the regeneration of a nerve?

A

The presence of neuritis

108
Q

Which one of the following nerves has been damaged if the symptoms include: altered sensation on the lateral and anterior surface of the lower leg, arch of the foot and web between the great and second toes?

A

Peroneal nerve

109
Q

Which one of the following conditions has occurred with an inability to close the right eye, ability to open the right eye, flaccid paralysis of the muscles on the right side of the face including the forehead, eye, cheek and mouth with normal function below the head?

A

Bell’s Palsy

110
Q

Which one of the following structures does NOT contribute to the compression of the brachial plexus and its accompanying artery in Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

111
Q

Which one of the following statements is NOT a cause of Piriformis Syndrome?

A

A narrowing of the obturator foremen by gluteal muscles

112
Q

Which one of the following injuries occurs in a complete spinal cord lesion with total loss of function below the lesion?

A

Compression of the entire spinal cord due to ischemia and edema

113
Q

Which one of the following changes describes the cause of spasticity in CNS conditions?

A

Loss of inhibition of alpha motor neurons

114
Q

Which one of the following pathological changes is the etiology for ALS?

A

Motor neuron degeneration

115
Q

Which one of the following phrases defines a Brain Attack (Stroke)?

A

Acute focal neurological deficit from a vascular disorder

116
Q

Which one of the following infections is self-limiting, mild and occurs in the meninges of the brain?

A

Viral meningitis

117
Q

Which one of the following forms of dementia results from chronic alcoholism?

A

Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

118
Q

Which one of the following types of pain is due to inflammation of a spinal nerve root?

A

Radicular pain

119
Q

Which one of the following conditions is a compression mononeuropathy of the median nerve?

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

120
Q

Which one of the following nerves has been damaged if the symptoms of foot drop occur?

A

Deep peroneal nerve

121
Q

Which one of the following nerves has been compressed if the symptoms of “ape hand deformity” occur?

A

Median nerve

122
Q

Which one of the following conditions manifests as: edema in the lower arm, dystrophic flexor muscles, and spontaneous burning pain with movement of the hand after a shoulder joint injury was immobilized?

A

Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy

123
Q

Which one of the following symptoms is unique to bipolar depression?

A

Mania

124
Q

Which one of the following anxiety disorders is characterized by repetitive thoughts and acts?

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

125
Q

Which one of the following anxiety disorders is characterized by numerous physiological changes such as dizziness, fainting, chest pain, palpitations, and shortness of breath?

A

Panic disorder

126
Q

Which one of the following types of dementia is inherited and manifests as: chronic progressive chorea, psychological changes and dementia?

A

Huntington’s disease

127
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Pain is FALSE?

A

The same type of injury generates the same pain response from different people

128
Q

Which one of the following types of pain occurs with direct damage to a nerve?

A

Neuropathic pain

129
Q

Which one of the following areas of the brain generates the emotional experience of pain?

A

Limbic System

130
Q

Which one of the following theories of pain states that there are neural mechanisms at each level of the spinal column that reduces the flow of information to the brain?

A

Gate control theory

131
Q

Which one of the following terms identifies the maximum intensity or duration of pain a person can accept as a result of psychological, cultural, familial, and environmental influences?

A

Pain Tolerance

132
Q

Which one of the following terms is defined as: an absence of pain?

A

Analgesia

133
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Phantom Limb Pain is FALSE?

A

There is no treatment for phantom limb pain

134
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding pain in children is FALSE?

A

Children feel less pain than adults and do not recall pain due to their immature brain

135
Q

Which one of the following types of headaches can present with an aura?

A

Migraine headaches

136
Q

Which one of the following types of headaches is described as a neurovascular headache, with severe one-sided unrelenting pain that comes on rapidly, builds in intensity for up to 15 minutes lasting up to 3 hours?

A

Cluster headaches

137
Q

Which one of the following types of headaches are said to be more responsive to treatment using massage therapy, acupuncture, relaxation and imagery than pharmacological treatment?

A

Tension headaches

138
Q

Which one of the following spinal segments bears the most pathological forces leading to disc injury and herniation?

A

Lower lumbar spine

139
Q

Which one of the following groups lists all the “cardinal signs” of inflammation?

A

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

140
Q

Which one of the following events is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site?

A

Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed

141
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the vascular stage of inflammation is responsible for causing pain?

A

Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury

142
Q

Which one of the following cell types can divide and replicate throughout life and replace cells that turnover daily?

A

Labile cells

143
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding wound healing is FALSE?

A

Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates

144
Q

Which one of the following traumas is considered a disease rather than a physical agent that causes soft tissue damage?

A

Muscular Dystrophy

145
Q

Which one of the following soft tissue injuries results in torn skin increasing the risk of infection?

A

Laceration

146
Q

Which one of the following injuries is described as a small piece of bone or cartilage floating free in the joint space?

A

Loose body

147
Q

Which one of the following terms describes a microbial infection where the host is not adversely affected nor do they benefit from the relationship?

A

Commensal flora

148
Q

Which one of the following statements describes an opportunistic infection?

A

A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.

149
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the increase of disease that is abrupt and unexpected?

A

Epidemic

150
Q

Which one of the following diseases is a bone tumor?

A

Osteoma

151
Q

Which one of the following conditions is NOT an etiology of Osteonecrosis?

A

Tuberculosis

152
Q

Which one of the following bone conditions results from the combination of calcium and fatty acids forming soap?

A

Osteonecrosis

153
Q

Which one of the following joint tissues is slowly destroyed by excessive wear and tear leading to the development of Osteoarthritis (OA)?

A

Articular cartilage

154
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) is FALSE?

A

There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.

155
Q

Which one of the following cells stops producing proteoglycans during the course of OA?

A

Chondrocytes

156
Q

Which one of the following events during the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) results in the formation of bone cysts?

A

Pressure from weight bearing on the subchondral bone instead of the cartilage

157
Q

Which one of the following processes during OA, is caused by the release of too many protease enzymes?

A

Surface cracks in the cartilage

158
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the bony outgrowths at the joint margins during OA?

A

Osteophytes

159
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Secondary OA is FALSE?

A

Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.

160
Q

Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the fingers of persons with OA?

A

Bouchard or Heberden Nodes

161
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding arthritis in children is FALSE?

A

Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.

162
Q

Which one of the following joints is primarily affected by Ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Sacroiliac

163
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms indicates a child may have Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen

164
Q

Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

165
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Gout is FALSE?

A

Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes

166
Q

Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the joints of person affected by chronic Gout?

A

The formation of Tophi

167
Q

Which one of the following organs is affected by Gout Syndrome?

A

Kidneys

168
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Osteoarthritis?

A

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

169
Q

Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Gout?

A

Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation

170
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

A

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

171
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

172
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions does NOT involve a disorder of immunity?

A

Osteoarthritis

173
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is an autoimmune disease?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

174
Q

Which one of the following drug treatments is NOT used to treat RA?

A

Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage

175
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is a metabolic disease?

A

Gout

176
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is directly related to a skin disease?

A

Psoriatic Arthritis

177
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions develops destructive vascular granulation tissue known as Pannus?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

178
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is more common in men and produces unique inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bone?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

179
Q

Which one of the following findings indicates the early presence of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

A

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers

180
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is FALSE?

A

RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation

181
Q

Which one of the following processes is caused by progressive swelling and thickening of the synovium in RA?

A

Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation

182
Q

Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms indicates late stage OA rather than RA?

A

Bouchard’s nodes

183
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu varum?

A

Bowed legs

184
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Pes Planus?

A

Flat foot

185
Q

In which one of the following positions does a child sit when they have femoral anteversion?

A

Tailor position

186
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu valgum?

A

Knock-knee

187
Q

Which one of the following soft tissue laxities is the cause of Genu valgum?

A

Lax medial collateral ligaments

188
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities causes femoral torsion in children?

A

Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip

189
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities causes toeing-in due to adduction of the forefoot in children?

A

Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development

190
Q

Which one of the following types of torsion is normal in the first 6 years of life and commonly seen in girls?

A

Femoral anteversion

191
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding pes planus is FALSE?

A

Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.

192
Q

Which one of the following is the etiology of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen

193
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles

194
Q

Which one of the following is a disorder of the growth plates?

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

195
Q

Which one of the following is the objective in treating Osgood-Schlatter Disease?

A

To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

196
Q

Which one of the following is the objective in treating Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?

A

To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.

197
Q

Which one of the following treatments is used to correct Club Foot Deformity?

A

On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot

198
Q

Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Osteomalacia?

A

Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

199
Q

Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Rickets?

A

Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

200
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a factor in the development of Osteoporosis?

A

Phosphate levels

Module 8 theory (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions