integumentary Flashcards
Which one of the following groups lists all the “cardinal signs” of inflammation?
Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function
Which one of the following events is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site?
Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed
Which one of the following statements regarding the vascular stage of inflammation is responsible for causing pain?
Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury
Which one of the following statements regarding wound healing is FALSE?
Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates
Which one of the following grades of injury indicates that a sprained ligament has ruptured but the bone is intact and uninjured?
Grade 3
Which one of the following traumas is considered a disease rather than a physical agent that causes soft tissue damage?
Muscular Dystrophy
Which one of the following soft tissue injuries results in torn skin increasing the risk of infection?
Laceration
Which one of the following injuries is described as a small piece of bone or cartilage floating free in the joint space?
Loose body
Which one of the following terms describes a microbial infection where the host is not adversely affected nor do they benefit from the relationship?
Commensal flora
Which one of the following statements describes an opportunistic infection?
A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.
Which one of the following terms describes the increase of disease that is abrupt and unexpected?
Epidemic
Which one of the following diseases is a bone tumor?
Osteoma
Which cell types can divide and replicate throughout life and replace cells that turnover daily?
Labile cells
Which one of the following conditions is NOT an etiology of Osteonecrosis?
Tuberculosis
Which one of the following bone conditions results from the combination of calcium and fatty acids forming soap?
Osteonecrosis
Which one of the following joint tissues is slowly destroyed by excessive wear and tear leading to the development of Osteoarthritis (OA)?
Articular cartilage
Which one of the following statements regarding the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) is FALSE?
There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.
Which one of the following cells stops producing proteoglycans during the course of OA?
Chondrocytes
Which one of the following events during the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) results in the formation of bone cysts?
Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone
Which one of the following processes during OA, is caused by the release of too many protease enzymes?
Surface cracks in the cartilage
Which one of the following terms describes the bony outgrowths at the joint margins during OA?
Osteophytes
Which one of the following statements regarding Secondary OA is FALSE?
Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.
Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the fingers of persons with OA?
Bouchard or Heberden Nodes
Which one of the following statements regarding arthritis in children is FALSE?
Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.
Which one of the following joints is primarily affected by Ankylosing spondylitis?
Sacroiliac
Which one of the following groups of symptoms indicates a child may have Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen
Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue
Which one of the following statements regarding Gout is FALSE?
Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes
Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the joints of person affected by chronic Gout?
The formation of Tophi
Which one of the following organs is affected by Gout Syndrome?
Kidneys
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Osteoarthritis?
Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest
Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Gout?
Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Multiple arthralgia and arthritis
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints
Which one of the following arthritic conditions does NOT involve a disorder of immunity?
Osteoarthritis
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is an autoimmune disease?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Which one of the following drug treatments is NOT used to treat RA?
Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is a metabolic disease?
gout
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is directly related to a skin disease?
Psoriatic Arthritis
Which one of the following arthritic conditions develops destructive vascular granulation tissue known as Pannus?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is more common in men and produces unique inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bone?
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Which one of the following findings indicates the early presence of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers
Which one of the following statements regarding Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is FALSE?
RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation
Which one of the following processes is caused by progressive swelling and thickening of the synovium in RA?
Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation
Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms indicates late stage OA rather than RA?
Bouchard’s nodes
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu varum?
Bowed legs
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Pes Planus?
Flat foot
In which one of the following positions does a child sit when they have femoral anteversion?
Tailor position
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu valgum?
Knock-knee
Which one of the following soft tissue laxities is the cause of Genu valgum?
Lax medial collateral ligaments
Which one of the following abnormalities causes femoral torsion in children?
Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip
Which one of the following abnormalities causes toeing-in due to adduction of the forefoot in children?
Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development
Which one of the following types of torsion is normal in the first 6 years of life and commonly seen in girls?
Femoral anteversion
Which one of the following positions does NOT contribute to torsional deformities in children?
Standing positions
Which one of the following statements describes pes planus?
The absence of the longitudinal arch of the foot.
Which one of the following statements regarding pes planus is FALSE?
Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.
Which one of the following is the etiology of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles
Which one of the following series CORRECTLY describes the progression of events during osteochondroses?
Growth center undergoes degeneration, necrosis, regeneration and deformity
Which one of the following anatomical structures does Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease affect?
Proximal femoral epiphysis
Which one of the following anatomical structures does Osgood-Schlatter Disease affect?
Tibial tuberosity
Which one of the following is a disorder of the growth plates?
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
Which one of the following positions of the hip prevents deformity during Legg-Calve Perthes disease?
Abduction with mild internal rotation of the hip in the acetabulum
Which one of the following is the objective in treating Osgood-Schlatter Disease?
To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.
Which one of the following is the objective in treating Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?
To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.
Which one of the following is NOT an etiology of Osteopenia?
Osteonecrosis
Which one of the following treatments is used to correct Club Foot Deformity?
On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot
Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Osteomalacia?
Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults
Which one of the following boney changes occurs in Osteoporosis?
Brittle bones
Which one of the following is the treatment for Rickets?
A balanced diet sufficient in calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D
Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Rickets?
Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children
Which one of the following is the first manifestation of Osteoporosis?
Skeletal fracture
Which one of the following is NOT a factor in the development of Osteoporosis?
Phosphate levels
Which one of the following statements describes the Female Athlete Triad?
A disorder pattern of eating that leads to amenorrhea and osteoporosis
Which one of the following processes is the accepted pathogenesis of Osteoporosis?
An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation
Which one of the following terms describes microbial infection when both the host and the infecting organism benefit from the relationship?
Mutualistic flora
Which one of the following statements describes Virulence?
Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.
Which one of the following microbes is an obligate intracellular pathogen?
Virus
Which one of the following microbes is capable of living outside the human host and forms large communities called biofilms?
Bacteria
Which one of the following describes the appearance of Varicella?
Raised red vesicles that later dry and crust over
Which one of the following skin diseases is a latent virus that travels along a sensory nerve and causes severe pain along the nerves distribution?
Herpes Zoster
Which one of the following conditions is described as a neoplasm of the non-keratinized cells of the basal layer of the epidermis?
Basal cell carcinoma
Which one of the following statements regarding malignant melanoma is TRUE?
It begins as a variable coloured irregular bordered nevi or mole.
Which one of the following statements concerning Rubeola is TRUE?
Rubeola appears as a rash that starts from the face and moves to the extremities.
What term would describe a palpable lesion caused by edema deep in the dermis with erythema, variable blanching and itchiness?
A wheal
Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?
Rapid onset
Which of the following types of adaptation describes a decrease in cell number?
Hypoplasia
Which of the following events is a form of reversible cell injury/alteration?
Cellular Swelling
Which of the following is TRUE of inflammation?
Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing
