PATHOLOGY Flashcards
1
Q
Why Hemoglobinuria does not occur in anaplasmosis infection?
a. Intravascular destruction
b. Extravascular destruction
c. Rbc is resistant
A
b. Extravascular destruction
2
Q
Clostridial infection if foal (horse)
A
Clostridium perfringens is a bacteria that causes inflammation of the small and large intestine in young foals. The disease progresses rapidly, requires intensive medical care, and has a high mortality rate. Foals are often exposed to the bacteria in contaminated feces.
3
Q
Vitamin d toxicity.
A
The main consequence of vitamin D toxicity is a buildup of calcium in your blood (hypercalcemia), which can cause nausea and vomiting, weakness, and frequent urination. Vitamin D toxicity might progress to bone pain and kidney problems, such as the formation of calcium stones.
4
Q
Vitamin d toxicity treatment.
A
Hydration
Diuretics
5
Q
Aflatoxin present in corn?
A
ZEARALENONE
6
Q
Urethral obstruction?
A
A ureteral obstruction is a blockage in one or both of the tubes (ureters) that carry urine from your kidneys to your bladder. Ureteral obstruction can be curable. However, if it’s not treated, symptoms can quickly move from mild — pain, fever and infection — to severe — loss of kidney function, sepsis and death
7
Q
Felv (feline leukemia virus)
A
Feline leukemia virus (FeLV) is one of the most important infectious diseases of cats worldwide. Affected cats can develop anemia (a low red blood cell level), cancers, and/or suppression of the immune system. The disease worsens over time and is usually fatal.
8
Q
Felv (feline leukemia virus) clinical signs.
A
- anemia
- cancer (especially lymphoma and leukemia)
- suppression of the immune system (increasing the risk of other infections)
- immune-mediated disease (in which the cat’s immune system causes damage to its own cells)
- reproductive problems (loss of pregnancy and “fading kitten” syndrome)
- intestinal inflammation, neurologic disorders (including nerve dysfunction and blindness)
- stomatitis (severe inflammation in the mouth)
9
Q
Felv (feline leukemia virus) transmission.
A
Feline leukemia virus is transmitted between cats via infected saliva and urine. Direct contact with these body fluids, mutual grooming, shared litter boxes and food dishes, and fighting (bite wounds) all expose uninfected cats to the virus. To become infected, cats typically require prolonged, repeated exposure to the virus. Mother cats can also transmit the virus to their kittens while they are in the womb and through breast milk. It is likely that the transmission from a mother to her kittens is the greatest source of infection. Young kittens have the highest risk for catching the virus, whereas adults may have some inherent protection. However, cats of all ages can catch the virus and develop the disease.
10
Q
Cppp (Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia) etiology
A
- Mycoplasma capricolum capripneumoniae (Mycoplasma biotype F38) is the causative agent.
- It appears to be transmitted by infective aerosol.
- Morbidity can be 100%, and mortality 60%–100%.
- Introduced into a new region by healthy carriers.
11
Q
Cppp (Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia) clinical signs.
A
- Weakness, anorexia, cough, hyperpnea, and nasal discharge accompanied by fever (104.5°–106°F [40.5°–41.5°C]) are often found.
- Exercise intolerance progresses to respiratory distress, with open-mouth breathing and frothy salivation.
- A septicemic form of the disease without specific respiratory tract involvement has been described.
12
Q
Cppp (Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia) lesions.
A
- excess of straw-colored pleural exudate and acute fibrinous pneumonia.
- Consolidation is sometimes confined to one lung.
- Distention of interlobular septa by serofibrinous fluid, commonly seen in infections caused by M mycoides capri, is rarely seen in contagious caprine pleuropneumonia.
- In antibiotic-treated or recovered animals, the predominant lesion is a sequestrum similar to that seen in contagious bovine pleuropneumonia.
13
Q
Cppp (Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia) diagnosis
A
- clinical signs, epidemiology, and necropsy findings are used to establish a diagnosis.
- causative organism should be isolated and identified, but isolation may be difficult, and special media is required for culture.
- PCR, which can be performed directly on the pleural fluid or affected lung, has greatly facilitated the diagnosis of contagious caprine pleuropneumonia.
- Serologic tests are complement fixation, passive hemagglutination, and ELISA; the latex agglutination test can be done in the field directly on whole blood as well as on serum samples in the laboratory.
- Serologic cross-reactions may occur with other members of the Mycoplasma mycoides cluster.
14
Q
Cppp (Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia) control
A
- Quarantine of affected flocks is desirable.
- Vaccines are available in some countries, and good to excellent protection has been reported.
- Treatment with tylosin at 10 mg/kg/day, IM, for 3 days, has been effective, as has oxytetracycline (15 mg/kg).
15
Q
How do young goat
(european dairy breeds) acquire the CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis) infection?
A
Feeding of infected milk and colostrum
16
Q
CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis)
A
A neurologic form of the disease is seen in young goats, usually 2–4 mo old but as old as 1 yr. It is characterized by a progressive paresis with incoordination leading to paralysis, usually involving the hindlimbs and later the forelimbs.
- In older, adult goats, the virus infection manifests as a chronic, progressive arthritis involving one or more joints and usually involving the carpal joints.
- The initial sign is usually swelling of the affected joint(s), followed by progressive degeneration of articular and periarticular tissues with calcification, leading to decreased range of motion, ankylosis, and overt loss of mobility.
17
Q
CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis) virus?
A
Enveloped, single-stranded RNA lentivirus in the family Retroviridae
18
Q
CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis) diagnosis?
A
ELISA
19
Q
CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis) diagnosis?
A
ELISA and Agar Gel Immunodiffusion Test
20
Q
CAE is primarily seen in adult goats but can occur in kids as young as?
A
6 mos old.
21
Q
CAE is primarily seen in adult goats but can occur in kids as young as?
A
6 mos old.
22
Q
Signs of polysynovitis-arthritis in CAE infection include joint capsule distention and varying degrees of lameness. The joints most frequently involved is the?
A
Carpal joints
23
Q
The onset of arthritis in CAE infection may be sudden or insidious, but the clinical course is always progressive. Affected goats lose condition and usually have poor hair coats. Encephalomyelitis is generally seen in kids ____ age but has been described in older kids and adult goats. Affected kids initially exhibit weakness, ataxia, and hindlimb placing deficits.
A
2-4 months old
24
Q
Hypertonia and hyperreflexia are also common. Over time, signs progress to paraparesis or tetraparesis and paralysis. Depression, head tilt, circling, opisthotonos, torticollis, and paddling have also been described in what infection?
A
CAE
25
The “hard udder” syndrome attributed to CAE virus infection is characterized by _________________ at the time of parturition.
firm, swollen mammary gland and agalactia
26
T/F: In CAE infection, milk quality is usually unaffected.?
True
27
Pathologic lesions of CAE virus infection are generally described as:
Lymphoproliferative with degenerative mononuclear cell infiltration
28
Nerve affected in Mareks disease?
a. Sciatic
b. Vagus
c. Brachial
d. AOTA
D. AOTA
29
Differentiate mareks with ibr?
With bursal atrophy
30
Site of swabbing for viral isolation in Avian flu?
a. oropharyngeal
b. cloaca
c. nasal
a. oropharyngeal
31
Wet vs. dry form of Infectious coryza?
The dry form is characterized by raised, wart-like lesions on unfeathered areas (head, ... The wet form may cause respiratory distress by obstructing the upper air passages
32
Infectious coryza causative agent?
Avibacterium paragallinarum.
33
Infectious coryza clinical signs.
Decreased activity, nasal discharge, sneezing, and facial swelling.
34
Diagnosis of Infectious coryza (IC)?
Diagnosis is based on PCR assay, bacterial culture, or production of typical clinical signs in susceptible chickens following inoculation with nasal exudate from an infected bird
35
IBH (inclusion body hepatitis) vs IBD( infectious bursal disease).
IBH -caused by fowl adenoviruses. Clinical signs are nonspecific but often include a sudden increase in mortality. Gross lesions include a swollen liver containing multiple pale or hemorrhagic foci and hydropericardium. Definitive diagnosis is usually made by histopathology or PCR. There is no treatment, but prevention is achieved by vaccination.
IBD - seen in young domestic chickens worldwide and is caused by infectious bursal disease virus (IBDV/ birnavirus). Signs can include depression, watery diarrhea, ruffled feathers, and dehydration. Morbidity is high and mortality is usually low, but some very virulent strains are capable of causing 60% or higher mortality. Macroscopic and microscopic lesions in the cloacal bursa and molecular identification of the viral genome are used to diagnosis the disease. Vaccination to induce maternal immunity in young chicks is initially used to control the disease. Vectored and live-attenuated vaccines can be used to induce active immunity in chicks as the maternal antibodies wane.
36
Gizzard erosion
FAdV (especially FAdV-1)
37
HORSE MYELOPATHY
- Cervical stenotic myelopathy (CSM) is one of the most common causes of spinal ataxia in young horses. The layman's term for CSM is wobbler syndrome.
- Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) is caused by CNS infection of equids with either of the apicomplexan protozoa Sarcocystis neurona or Neospora hughesi. Common clinical signs are asymmetric ataxia and weakness of limbs and regional neurogenic muscle atrophy. Less common signs are obtundation, seizures, facial paralysis, head tilt, and other signs of cranial nerve dysfunction. Serologic support for the diagnosis is obtained using serum:CSF titer ratios for ELISA or indirect fluorescent antibody tests. EPM is treated with antiprotozoal drugs and immunomodulators.
38
BOVINE VIRAL DIARHEA
- Bovine viral diarrhea/mucosal disease is a pestivirus infection of cattle and other ruminants.
- Infection leads to immunosuppression and can cause signs in multiple body systems in addition to the digestive tract.
- Mucosal disease is an uncommon form of infection in persistently infected cattle and is typically fatal.
- Clinical signs range from inapparent infection to fever, depression, decreased milk production, abortion, diarrhea, and death.
- Diagnosis is based on clinical signs, virus isolation, serology, and PCR. Treatment consists of supportive care. Improved biosecurity and vaccines are used for prevention and control.
39
REMEMBER: BOVINE VIRAL DIARHEA
BVD must be distinguished from other viral diseases that produce diarrhea and mucosal lesions. These include malignant catarrhal fever, which usually is a sporadic disease in more mature cattle, bluetongue, and rinderpest, which is currently considered to be eradicated worldwide.
40
Clinical Findings and Lesions of Bovine Viral Diarrhea
Infection of immunocompetent susceptible animals with either noncytopathic or cytopathic BVDV is termed acute or transient BVD. Inapparent or subclinical infection without any clinical signs that is followed by seroconversion is the most common form of infection in the field. Acute clinical disease may range from mild disease of high morbidity and low mortality to severe enteric disease with considerable mortality. Biphasic fever (~104°F [40°C]), depression, decreased milk production, transient inappetence, rapid respiration, excessive nasal secretion, excessive lacrimation, and diarrhea are typical signs of acute clinical BVD.
41
Clinical Findings and Lesions of Bovine Viral Diarrhea
Clinical signs of disease usually are seen 6–12 days after infection and last 1–3 days. Transient leukopenia may be seen with onset of signs of disease. Recovery is rapid and coincides with production of viral neutralizing antibody. Gross lesions seldom are seen in cases of mild disease. Lymphoid tissue is a primary target for replication of BVDV, which may lead to immunosuppression and enhanced severity of intercurrent infections.
42
Associated with another disease, what is the pathognomonic sign of hemorrhagic septicemia?
Mucopurulent, subcutaneous swelling in the pharyngeal region
43
Computation of wbc
Calculations:
- One large area is 1 x 1 mm, and the depth is 0.1 mm.
- Total area counted in 4 large squares = 4 x 1 x o. 1 = 0.4 µL (4/10).
- Y x 10/4 is the total WBC in the cell in 1 µL.
- Now dilution is 1:20.
- Number of WBC in 1µL = Y x 10 x 20/4 = Y x 50 = Total WBC count.
- Total TLC = counted cells (Y) x 50 = TLC/cmm.
44
Instrument used, describing the squares of the instrument
The Neubauer chamber is a thick crystal slide with the size of a glass slide (30 x 70 mm and 4 mm thickness). In a simple counting chamber, the central area is where the cell counts are performed.
45
Owner wearing short pants is following his dog chasing a rat in a field with tall grasses. How does the owner get leptospirosis infection?
Wound Cut from grass
46
Not a diagnostic method in leptospirosis
culture - gold standard but not often used
47
Situation about a vet na nagkadiarhea after niya magtreat ng isang dog na may diarhea din. One question is paano niya nakuha?
a. Food ingestion
b. Water intake
c. *
d. *
A. food ingestion
48
Situation about a rabbit hunter sa forest na nagkaroon ng tularaemia. One question is paano niya nakuha?
a. Deer fly bite
b. Ingestion of the rabbit
c. *
d. *
a. Deer fly bite
49
Mode of transmission of brucellosis except?
direct contact with blood, placenta, fetuses or uterine secretions, or through consumption of contaminated raw animal products (especially unpasteurized milk and soft cheese).
hanapin mo yung hindi included if lumabas sa exam
50
Black leg is common in what season?
a. summer
b. Rainy
c. Flooded pasture
d. Humid
a. summer
51
Principal indicator of liver damage?
a. Sgot
b. Sgpt
c. *
b. Sgpt - ALT test measures the level of alanine aminotransferase, also called ALT or SGPT. ALT is one of the enzymes that help the liver convert food into energy. High levels of these enzymes can be a sign that the liver is injured or irritated, and the enzymes are leaking out of the liver cells.
Sgot -The SGOT test is a blood test that's part of a liver profile. It measures one of two liver enzymes, called serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase. This enzyme is now usually called AST, which stands for aspartate aminotransferase. An SGOT test (or AST test) evaluates how much of the liver enzyme is in the blood.
52
Can be used in diagnosis for heart failure?
a. Ast
b. Alt
c. *
b Alt
53
When you incised enlarged abdomen in Hemo-Sept positive animal what is to be found ?---
Red gelatinous Fluid
54
Nerves frequently affected by mareks
a. Vagus
b. Brachial
c. Sciatic
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
55
Aflatoxin----
HEPATIC NECROSIS
56
Seen in birds that survived AVIAN ENCEPHALOMYELITIS?
Splayleg
57
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the liver?
Hepatocytes has four sides
58
Surra affects?
HORSES AND CAMELS
59
Test used to identify blockage of biliary duct.
ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE
60
Botulism. In duck
( Limberneck)
61
Acute inflammation ---
NEUTROPHIL
62
MONOCYTES
Not involved in acute inflammation.
63
Another name for Type III Hypersensitivity-
SERUM SICKNESS
64
Typhlitis
- Eimeria tenella
65
Not a good test for erythrocyte in horses?
ESR
66
Will not cause atrophy-----
OVERUSE
67
Age that is commonly affected by PED?
all ages
68
Clinical signs manifested by Canine Distemper---
MYOCLONUS
69
Smell in black leg disease?
Butynol?
70
Hypersensitivity III
Arthus reaction
71
Lesion caused by E. tenella
Typhlitis
72
Lesion described as lumpy jaw (but not actually mentioned as lumpy jaw)
Actinomyces bovis
73
Maximum days for anthrax sample?
3 days?
74
Toxin released by puffer fish
Tetrodotoxin
75
Where is the White spots lesion in Pullorum disease?
Heart? Liver? Spleen?
76
Where is the bleeding in swine dysentery?
Cecum and colon? Colon and rectum? Jejunum and ileum? Ileum and colon?
77
A cat has difficulty in urinating. What is the initial protocol to do?
CBC?
78
What is the reason why it is difficult to identify microorganism present in dried urine samples?
Natural flora in urethra? Collected sample is too little? Too many bacteria present?
79
What stain is used for dried urine sample?
Gram staining? Giemsa? Acid fast stain?
80
A cat is in pain after the attempt to collect urine sample. What should you do to end the pain and gain sample?
Radiography? Cystocentesis?
81
Wild mushroom toxin
Muscarine
82
Equine infections anemia diagnosis
Immunodiffusion,
| coggins test
83
Causative agent of Feline infectious peritonitis
Coronavirus
84
Proud flesh?
Remove/exise the affected part ?
85
Cloudy urine?
Fatty materials
86
Sweet smelling urine
Ketonuria
87
Which is absent in acute inflammation?
a. Macrophage?
b. Lymphocyte
c. Dendtritic cells
d. Mast cells
c. Dendtritic cells
88
Which do not cause respiratory infection in primates?
a. Klebsiella
b. Yersinia
c. Bordetella
d. Mycoplasma?
b. Yersinia
89
How does FIP spread in the body?
Bone marrow? Lymph node?
90
Sign to be seen in case of gall bladder obstruction?
White or clay colored stool
91
Where to located plasmodium if not present in blood?
Capillaries?
92
Drug of choice for strangles?
procaine penicillin (22,000 IU/kg, IM, bid) is the antibiotic of choice
93
How the drug for strangles should be administered?
Lavage? Parenteral?
94
What part of the body is nectroitc if dermatitis is present?
Thigh and around the cloaca? Tips of wing and thigh?
95
E. coli can proliferate at which part of the chicken?
Trabeculae? Tarsal bone?
96
Similar sign of parvovirus and cytomegalovirus?
Inclusion bodies? Abortion with different fetal size?
97
Lesion of Eimeria praecox?
No lesion? Yellow to liquid in small intestine? Transverse patches?
98
Which part of the brain is affected in mad cow disease?
Medulla?cerebral cortex? Grey matter? All?
99
Clinical sign of cribbing in horse?
Head pressing? Resting the head? All of the choices are about head
100
Characteristic lesion of mad cow dss in brain?
Bee hive appearance? Sponge-like?
101
Least way to diagnose anemia in horse?
ESR
102
Cell with cart wheel appreance?
Plasma cell
103
Differentiate chronic liver disease from acute bile obstruction?
Vandenbergh
104
Anthrax
Loeffler smear
105
Sign of sudan toxicity
Knuckling of forelegs? Hindlimb paralysis?
106
How to treat salter harris fracture
Physeal compression? Physeal traction? Pinning each side of fracture line?
107
Why horse limb wounds are left open in horses?
For aeration
108
Treatment of fungus in crop
Nystatin
109
Lesion of FMD
Tigerheart
110
FMD Cause of death in young pigs
Myocarditis
111
Piglets that treated with specific drug, suddenly collapses and died?
Iron toxicity
112
Trichomonas foetus infection causes?
Abortion with visible fetus? Early resorption of fetal membrane? Sterility in bulls?
113
Requirement for 2nd intention healing
Granulation
114
Trypanosome severely affects
Horse? Camel?
115
Species also affected by equine herpes virus 1? 4?
Cattle? Pig?
116
Trypanosoma means?
Rotten? Unclean?
117
Difference in the lesion of avian fatty liver and IBD in bursa of fab?
Haemorrhage? Atrophy?
118
Avian malaria lesion?
Copper in color?
119
Melanochromocytoma
Melanin-related
120
Normal color of normal pig liver?
Cherry red?
121
Avian leucosis vs ILT
Avian leukosis virus is shed by the hen into the albumen or yolk, or both; infection probably occurs after the onset of incubation.
Technical update: Infectious Laryngotracheitis (ILT)
HEALTH & DISEASETREATMENTS AND PREVENTIONPOULTRY HEALTH
by 5m Editor
7 January 2019, at 12:00am
Infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT) is a viral respiratory disease caused by an herpesvirus of chickens and some other gallinaceous birds (e.g. pheasants, peafowl). It is an economically significant disease in commercial egg producing flocks, with an essentially global distribution. In regions where ILT is endemic, the commercial poultry industry is faced with multimillion-dollar losses as a result of mortality, egg production losses, and decreased bird growth [1].
122
PED age affected
all ages
123
Lesion of glasser’s disease
Polyserositis-polyarthrtitis
124
Organ affected by aflatoxin
Liver
125
Organ affected by ochratoxin
Kidneys
126
Osteoclast
Parathormone
127
Osteoblast
Calcitonin
128
Nipah disease situational questions –Etiology, transmission, pathogenesis, etc
Nipah virus, Fruitbats
129
Body part that is not affected by dermatophytoses
Intestinal lumen
130
Cause of fumonisin in horse
Leukoencephalomalacia
131
Aflatoxin
Liver
132
Ochratoxin
Kidney
133
Normal color of pig liver
a. Cherry ret to dark red
b. Pale
c. with spots
d. light brown to dark brown
a. Cherry ret to dark red
134
Origin of fibrosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma is a rare, highly malignant tumour of mesenchymal cell origin. It derives from pathologically transformed spindle shaped fibroblasts with an excessively high division rate.
135
Confirmatory diagnosis of TVT
PCR-based detection assay. Compared with cytologic or histologic diagnosis, PCR yields improved diagnostic accuracy and can facilitate the decision of when to discontinue chemotherapy.
Cytologic examination of fine-needle aspirates or impression smears or by histopathologic evaluation of biopsies.
136
Cells infected by EIA
Monocyte
137
EIA
The causal agent of equine infectious anemia is an RNA virus, classified in the Lentivirus genus, family Retroviridae. The virus is readily inactivated by most common disinfectants, such as bleach, ethanol, iodophore disinfectants, phenolic compounds, glutaraldehyde, and formalin. Because bleach-based and ethanol disinfectants are readily inactivated in the presence of organic material, for example manure or soil, contaminated surfaces must first be cleaned thoroughly of such matter using soap and water before treating with a disinfectant. Pressure washing of a soiled surface is contraindicated because of the risk of aerosolization of potentially infectious blood or other body fluids on wall or floor surfaces.
138
Clinical signs of EIA
The clinical findings and course of infection with equine infectious anemia virus are variable, depending on the virulence of the virus strain, viral dose, and susceptibility of the horse. After an incubation period of 15–45 days or longer in naturally acquired cases of infection, classic cases of the disease have been described as progressing through three clinical phases. An initial or acute episode lasting 1–3 days is characterized by fever, depression, and thrombocytopenia. Because these signs can be mild and transitory, they are often overlooked or misdiagnosed. Typically, this initial phase is followed by a prolonged period associated with:
```
recurring episodes of fever
depression
thrombocytopenia
increased heart and respiration rates
anemia
jaundice
petechiation on mucous membranes
epistaxis
dependent edema
muscle weakness
loss of condition
```
139
Immunodiffusion/coggins test
Diagnosis for EIA
140
Transmission of EIA
Stable flies
141
Proper storage ofr transport of samples
a. Fixed Frozen b. Unfixed Refrigerated
142
Consistent nerve affected in Mareks disease
a. Sciatic nerve
b. Brachial
c. Vagal
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
143
Clinical signs manifested by canine distemper survivor
Myoclonus
144
Maximum transmit time in anthrax samples
3 days
145
Nipah virus is under what genus?
Henipavirus
146
Vector of Nipah virus
Fruit bats
147
Mode of transmission
Ingestion of infected fruits
148
Transmission to humans
Animal to animal>animal to human>human to human
149
Sample to be tested in rabies
a. hippocampus
b. cerebellum
a. hippocampus
150
TGE age affected
All ages
151
ILT vs Poxvirus
(similarity of Clinical Signs) Diphtheric
152
Inclusion body hepatitis vs Fatty liver syndrome
Kidney lesions
153
Porcine stress syndromemalignant hyperthermia
Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a rare, life-threatening, inherited disorder that can lead to metabolic disease of skeletal muscles in susceptible animals after exposure to triggering agents such as halogenated inhalation anesthetics, depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs, stress, and/or exercise.
- A mutation in the ryanodine receptors (RYR1 locus) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum that surrounds myofibrils of skeletal muscles alters the function of calcium release channels, which results in massive release of calcium into the cytoplasm of the myofibrils.
- As a result, generalized, extensive skeletal muscle contraction occurs, leading rapidly to a potentially fatal hypermetabolic state known as an MH episode. More than 300 RYR1 variants have been identified, and 31 of those mutations have been confirmed to cause MH according to the molecular genetic guidelines of the European Malignant Hyperthermia Group. Different mutation loci within the RYR1 receptors have been shown to be responsible for MH syndrome in different species.
154
Porcine stress syndrome
- Breed susceptibility varies, with Pietrain, Portland China, and Landrace pigs very susceptible to MH, and Large White, Yorkshire, and Hampshire pigs much less so. In the past, halothane was the most frequently reported trigger of MH in pigs.
- Isoflurane has been reported to trigger MH in pigs of susceptible breeds, but only one instance of isoflurane-induced MH has been reported in a potbellied pig. Sevoflurane-induced MH also has been reported in purebred Poland China pigs. Episodes of MH induced by desflurane have been reported in Large White, Pietrain, and Pietran-mixed pigs. There have been no reports of isoflurane- or sevoflurane-induced MH in cattle.
155
Degenerative joint disease
loss of joint movement and, in many cases, pain. This condition is characterized by thinning of cartilage, buildup of fluid within the joint, and the formation of bony outgrowths around the joint. Joint degeneration can be caused by trauma, infection, the body’s own immune system, or malformation during development. This leads to inflammation of the joint membrane, continued cartilage destruction and inflammation, and abnormal joint function.
156
Degenerative joint disease signs
Signs of osteoarthritis include lameness, joint swelling, wasting away of muscle, and thickening and scarring of the joint membrane. Eventually enough damage can occur that a grating sound might be heard during joint movement. X-rays show increased fluid within the joint, soft-tissue swelling around the joint, the formation of bony outgrowths, hardening and thickening of bone beneath the cartilage, and sometimes a narrowed joint space.
157
Degenerative joint disease treatment
Treatments can be either medical or surgical. Medical treatment includes weight loss (if needed), exercise on soft surfaces, and warm compresses to affected joints. It may also include the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs to reduce pain and inflammation. However, longterm use of these drugs in dogs can sometimes cause gastrointestinal problems such as loss of appetite, vomiting, and inflammation of the stomach and intestines. Corticosteroids also suppress inflammation, but they are usually given only for a short period in order to avoid adverse effects of continued use. Joint fluid modifiers or other types of pain relievers can also be used. Your veterinarian will prescribe appropriate medication based on your dog’s signs, age, and overall health.
Surgical options include joint fusion, joint replacement, cutting of the joint, and amputation. The outlook for recovery depends on the location and severity of the joint disease.
158
mareks
Marek disease is a highly contagious viral disease of poultry characterized by T-cell lymphomas and peripheral nerve enlargement. Standard criteria used for diagnosis include history, clinical signs, gross necropsy, and histopathology.
Marek disease virus is a member of the genus Mardivirus within the subfamily Alphaherpesvirinae.
159
avian leucosis
Lymphoid leukosis is a neoplastic disease of poultry caused by avian leukosis virus. The disease is characterized by B-cell lymphoma, occurring in chickens approximately 16 weeks of age and older. Standard criteria used for diagnosis include history, clinical signs, gross necropsy, and histopathology. There is no treatment or vaccine available, so eradication of the virus from breeding flocks is the most effective control method.
160
Mareks vs. Avian leucosis
Mareks - T cell lymphoma and peripheral nerve enlargement1
Avian Leukosis - B-cell lymphoma - 16weeks old above
161
Gritty substance.
Coagulative or caseous necrosis
162
Bony mass between mandible and maxilla
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Actinomyces
c. Actinobacillus
b. Actinomyces
163
Spherocytes indicate what type anemia
Microcytic hypochromic
164
Lesion of ILT
- gasping, coughing bloody mucoid exudate, rattling, and extension of the neck during inspiration are seen 5–12 days after natural exposure.
- Reduced productivity is a varying factor in laying flocks. Affected birds are anorectic and inactive. Mortality varies but may reach 50% in adults and is usually due to occlusion of the trachea by hemorrhage or exudate.
- Signs usually subside after ~2 weeks, although some birds may show signs for longer periods. Strains of low virulence produce little or no mortality, with mild respiratory signs and a slight decrease in egg production.
165
Cells affected in TGE and PED
Intestinal villi (denuding)
166
Color of feces with obstructed gall bladder
a. Yellow
b. White
b. White
167
Color of urine of a horse with tying-up (Monday morning sickness or exertional rhabdomyolysis)
Brown/chocolate brown - due to myoglobin
168
What is the sample to be collected to test for PRRS in a boar?
blood/semen
169
AI questions – 4-5 qts
Status in the Philippines – pandemic, endemic, exotic, or epidemic
Transmission
Strain that can affect both humans and birds
How can a swine farm be affected by AI from a nearby poultry farm? – Virus is carried downwind from the poutry farm to the swine farm
AI strain present in the Philippines (as of the moment) – H1N1, H5N9, …
170
Malignant catarrhal fever
| Necropsy findings
inflammation and necrosis of respiratory, alimentary, or urinary mucosal epithelium; subepithelial lymphoid infiltration; generalized lymphoid proliferation and necrosis; and widespread vasculitis. Mucosal ulcerations and hemorrhage are common. Hemorrhages may be present in many parenchymatous organs, particularly lymph nodes. A classic but not pathognomonic histologic lesion is fibrinoid necrosis of small muscular arteries, but vessels of all types may be inflamed, including those in the brain. Prominent white nodules representing intramural and perivascular proliferation may be apparent, particularly in the kidneys.
171
Basophilic stippling is common in what poisoning?
Lead poisoning
172
Classical Swine fever
Classical swine fever is caused by a small, enveloped RNA virus in the genus Pestivirus of the family Flaviviridae. Classical swine fever virus (CSFV) is antigenically related to the other pestiviruses, mainly to bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV) of cattle and to border disease virus (BDV) of sheep.
The principal lesion produced by CSFV infection is a generalized vasculitis, clinically manifested as hemorrhages and cyanosis of the skin, notably at the ears, lower abdomen, and extremities.
hog cholera/ Turkey egg syndome
173
Water deprivation in pigs can cause?
Salt poisoning
174
Ecchymoses in comb, wattle, and shank with edema of the feet is caused by what disease?
Avian Influenza
175
Testing for patency of bile duct
a. Slit the duodenum and squeeze the gall bladder
b. Slit gall bladder and squeeze
c. Slit bile duct and squeeze
a. Slit the duodenum and squeeze the gall bladder
176
Which is not a goal of ante-mortem inspection?
a. Make sure that loading trucks are clean.
b. Avoid slaughter of injured or in pain animals to avoid contaminating killing floor.
c. To make sure sick animals are not slaughtered to avoid contaminating the killing floor.
b. Avoid slaughter of injured or in pain animals to avoid contaminating killing floor.
177
Growth disorder when there continuous growth of cells that may possibly proceed to carcinoma?
a. Metaplasia
b. Neoplasia
c. Hyperplasia
d. Hypertrophy
b. Neoplasia
178
Horses cannot have what disorder?
Cholecystitis - because they do not have gall bladder
179
Gritty necrosis?
a. Coagulative
b. Liquefactive
a. Coagulative
180
In FMD, necrosis in keratinocyte & stratum spinosum?
a. Ulcer
b. Vesicle
b. Vesicle
181
Pus in lungs?
a. Abscess
b. Granuloma
a. Abscess
182
Necrosis in FMD vesicles?
a. Liquefactive
b. Coagulative
a. Liquefactive
183
Atypical hyperplasia prone to carcinoma due to continued applied stress?
a. Neoplasia
b. Aplasia
c. Dysplasia
d. Metaplasia
a. Neoplasia
184
Difference of malignant catarrhal fever to FMD?
a. Viremia lasts to 2 days
b. Viremia lasts along the course of disease
b. Viremia lasts along the course of disease
185
Other lesions of FMD than vesicles?
a. Erosion of ruminal pillar
b. Necrosis of ruminal wall
a. Erosion of ruminal pillar
186
Lesion of Porcine Stress Syndrome (PSS) in pigs from Europe that is absent in pigs from America?
a. Myocardial necrosis
b. Cardiac fat atrophy
research
187
Meaning/indication of the term “Amorphous”?
a. Texture
b. Structure
b. Structure
188
Normal liver?
a. Firm
b. Friable
a. Firm
189
Hydrophic degeneration mostly occurs in?
a. Neuron
b. Cardiac cells
c. Fat cells
a. Neuron
190
Hyperthermia.
Pig
191
Tumor origin.
Bone- osteosarcoma
192
Red infarct.
Example: Lungs, small intentine
193
White infarct.
Example: heart, kidney
194
Post-mortem clot.
Unattached
195
Types of graft that is from within the body?
Autograft
196
Types of graft that is from the same genetic composition (identical twin)?
Isograft
197
Types of graft that is from the same species?
Allograft
198
Types of graft that is from different species?
Xenograft
199
Type I of hypersensitivity
Immediate (IgE)
200
Type II of hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic (IgG, IgM)
201
Type III of hypersensitivity
Immune-complex
syn: Serum-sickness
202
Type IV of hypersensitivity
Delayed (T cells)
203
Pain mediator
Examples: Serotonin, PGE2, Histamine, Bradykinin
204
Zebra-stripe lesion of rinderpest indicates:
Ulceration
205
Different classification of necrosis.
Caseous: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
206
Lead poisoning.
Reticulum
207
Exudate.
Inflammatory
208
Liver fibrosis.
Livefluke
209
Absence of proximal limbs.
Phocomelia (sea limbs)
210
Undifferentiated cells.
Malignant
211
Cytotoxic T cell.
Tumor
212
IFN (interferon).
Virus
213
Muscle necrosis.
Lactase dehydrogenase
214
Least check vital organ during necropsy of bird.
Kidney
215
Areas to be cut to atain display stage in necropsy of buffalo
???
216
Non contagious yet infectious disease of horse caused by RNA virus?
EIA/Swamp fever
217
Affected carcass should not be opened
Anthrax.
218
Anthrax sample collection
Postmortem blood sample from peripheral vein (ear vein, jugular vein)
(Stain with M’Fadyean methylene blue stain)
219
Tetralogy of fallot
| eisenmenger complex- absence of p. stenosis
VSD, RVH, Pulmonary stenosis, Dextraposed aorta
220
Cecal cores is caused by?
Eimeria tenella
221
Flaccid paralysis is caused by?
Botulism
222
Spastic paralysis is caused by?
Tetanus
223
Color of a fatty liver?
a. white
b. black
c. copper
d. yellow
d. yellow
224
An agricultural product toxic to birds?
a. avocado
b. pineapple
a. avocado
225
Mainly a hepatotoxin?
aflatoxin
226
Shock?
a. hypotension
b. tachycardia
c. vomiting
d. pharyngeal paralysis
???
227
Horse with rhabdomyolysis after surgery?- stateboard
a. serum creatine
b. creatinine
check to stateboard
228
Crepitus/ crepitant swelling.
Blackleg
229
Most common in: dog?
Choices:
a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency
a. PDA - common congenital defect of dogs, and it occurs less commonly in cats. Persistent flow through the ductus leads to excess blood flow (volume overload) to the pulmonary circulation and left heart chambers, most commonly leading to left CHF within the first 1–2 years of life. PDA occurs most commonly in small-breed dogs and causes a continuous murmur loudest over the left base and bounding pulses. Prompt diagnosis and treatment (either by interventional device occlusion or surgical ligation) before the development of clinical signs is associated with an excellent outcome.
230
Most common in cattle?
Choices:
a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency
b. VSD/Ventricular septal defect, ectopic heart, ventricular hypoplasia
231
Most common in pig?
a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency
Tricuspid valve dysplasia, atrial septal defect, subaortic stenosis
232
Most common in cat?
a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency
b. VSD - Ventricular septal defect is a common congenital defect of cats and also occurs in dogs and can vary in location and size. Most defects are small enough to restrict significant shunting between ventricles, resulting in a high-pressure gradient and a loud-intensity, right-side murmur. Diagnosis can be made with echocardiography. Prognosis and treatment options depend on defect size, location, and severity of shunting. Development of pulmonary arterial hypertension is possible. Many affected animals require no treatment and have a good prognosis.
233
Most common in Sheep?
a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency
b. VSD/Ventricular septal defect
234
Most common in horse?
a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency
Ventricular septal defect, PDA, tetralogy of Fallot, tricuspid atresia
235
Where to see gross lesion in lead poisoning? (3qts)
a. reticulum
b. rumen
c. intestine
a. reticulum
236
Least likely to cause pathologic fracture?
a. osteomyelitis
b. osteochondritis dissecans
c. rickets
a. osteomyelitis
237
How many water to be added in formalin for preservation of brain? -Ole
a. until sinked
b. 50%
c. 25%
??
238
What to remove to lift brain in goats?
calvaria
239
Last to be examined in chicken necropsy?
a. liver
b. kidney
b. kidney
240
Least likely submitted for examination in chicken?
a. heart
b. liver
c. kidney
d. lung
c. kidney
241
Necropsy finding in rumen of cattle affected with FMD?
a. air pockets
b. ulcer
c. erosion
c. erosion pwede ring ulcers
242
Salivation and ulcer of gingiva with diarrhea and fever?
a. FMD
b. VS
c. Anthrax
d. BVD
???
243
Most common cause of lead poisoning in wild birds?
a. drinking from infected lake
b. gun shot
b. gun shot
244
Site of red infarct?
Answer: lungs, liver, brain, GI tract
245
Preferred thickness of tissue for lab exam –
5-7 mm
246
Max thickness of tissue for lab exam –
5 cm
247
Test serum blood for enzymes but the test will be delayed. What enzyme should not be test because it will be deteriorated –
SDH / Sorbitol dehydrogenase
248
Color of urine of horse with bladder stone –
bloody red
249
Color of urine of horse with tying up –
brownish red (myoglobinuria)
250
Lipid droplets when there is fatty infiltration –
cytoplasm
251
Viral disease that has no inclusion body
??
252
Swelling in the ventral neck of Carabao in hemosep is due to –
gelatinous fluid
253
Cells in the intestine of cattle with Johne’s disease –
macrophage and giant cells
254
Secretion of bile
choleresis
255
Color of feces in obstructed gall bladder –
a. white,
b. yellow,
c. green or
d. black
a. white, (my best guess)
chalky
256
Bacterial cause of valvular endocarditis?
staphylococcus aureus bacteria and occasionally by the bacterial strains brucella and listeria.
257
Liver function test not used in cattle –
ALT or SGPT
????
258
Tumor in schiatic nerve is observed in what disease–
Marek’s
259
Avian leucosis, where to find tumor –
a. Eye,
b. Bursa of fab,
c. proven,
d. NOTA
b. Bursa of fab,
260
Avian leucosis, where not to find tumor -
all organs except liver, spleen, and bursa where tumor is common and are occasionally found in the kidneys, gonads, and mesentery
261
Panting aka.
hyperapnea
262
Characteristic of TVT under microscope –
palisade or vacuoles in the cytoplasm
263
Color of lymph node of carabao with TB –
a. Greyish red,
b. whitish red
?
264
Clinical sign of ipil ipil poisoning -
alopecia
265
Wear and tear pigment –
Lipofuschin
266
How many grams of feed for T2 detection –
100? 200?
267
Transmission between H7N9 vs H5N1?
H7N9 - travel of infected humans or infected poultry
H5N1- aliva, nasal secretions, and feces.
268
Avian influenza sample –
a. tracheal swab?
b. Cloacal swab?
although it is optimal to collect both oropharyngeal and cloacal swabs, oropharyngeal swabs should be collected from gallinaceous poultry and cloacal swabs should be collected from waterfowl.
269
Infected with lepto, the animal has jaundice, what is the affected organ –
liver
270
Confirmatory for PED diagnosis? –
a. PCR,
b. Elisa,
c. HA
d. HI
Laboratory diagnosis in neonates is made by PCR and/or direct immunofluorescence on cryostat sections of small intestine or colon. ELISA to detect viral antigens in feces or intestinal contents is more useful for older pigs. Antibodies can be detected in paired serum samples through ELISA-blocking.
271
Confirmatory for PRRS diagnosis?
a. PCR,
b. Elisa,
c. HA
d. HI
- Serology and PCR
- The most commonly used serologic assay to help diagnose porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome is the ELISA. It measures IgG antibodies to PRRS virus. It cannot measure the level of immunity in an animal or predict whether the animal is a carrier. Titers are detected within 7–10 days after infection and can persist for up to 144 days. Tests for PRRS virus include PCR, virus isolation, and immunohistochemistry. Nucleic acid sequencing of the open reading frame 5 region of the virus is an excellent tool for epidemiologic investigations in the field to confirm similarity between isolates recovered from different sites. Recently, oral fluid sampling has been widely applied as a means to sample a population of pigs.
272
Confirmatory for AI diagnosis?
a. PCR,
b. Elisa,
c. HA
d. HI
AGID or ELISA
273
Necropsy finding difference between rinderpest and IBR?
kitam kinni Merck!
274
Necropsy finding difference between ND, Coryza and IB?
kitam kinni Merck!
275
Necropsy finding in the rumen of cattle died due to FMD?
Erosions
276
Area that remains when the lesions of pox slough off=
pit
277
Does not interfere with protein detection in urine-
ketone
278
How thin should be the tissue sample before fixing and sending it to the laboratory-
10 mm
279
The black/brown lesion of pox=
scab
280
Air sac haemorrhages – aspergillosis? Trichomoniasis?
.....
281
Difference between tenosynovitis and synovitis
Tenosynovitis - tendon
| Synovitis - joints
282
Difference between exudates and transudates
Transudate” is fluid buildup caused by systemic conditions that alter the pressure in blood vessels, causing fluid to leave the vascular system. “Exudate” is fluid buildup caused by tissue leakage due to inflammation or local cellular damage.
283
Patent ductus arteriosus –
cyanosis :The patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a vascular structure that connects the proximal descending aorta to the roof of the main pulmonary artery near the origin of the left branch pulmonary artery. This essential fetal structure normally closes spontaneously after birth.
284
Difficulty in inspiration but normal expiration –
a. pleuritis?
b. Bronchitis?
.....
285
Old name of SGPT-
ALT
286
Old name of SGOT-
AST
287
If you inject horse with glucose solution, how much time it
,.
288
Organ submitted for identification of weil’s disease=
liver
289
russel bodies are=
secretory granules
290
Cells are preserved in this type of necrosis=
coagulative
291
Rosary beads lesion-
rickets
292
comparison of lesions in postmortem and ante mortem clot
clot in post mortem is unattached
293
meaning of scar
mark remaining after the healing of a wound, such as one caused by injury, illness, smallpox vaccination, or surgery.
294
innate immunity
innate immune system is essentially made up of barriers that aim to keep viruses, bacteria, parasites, and other foreign particles out of your body or limit their ability to spread and move throughout the body. The innate immune system includes: Physical Barriers.
295
cells present when there is chronic infection=
macrophage
296
site of blood collection in dogs=
saphenous vein, kapag wala sa choices ang cephalic vein
297
brick red area which is a reaction to shock of an animal is found in=
mucous membrane, gums,
298
Type of calculi present in salivary gland =
ranula
299
One of the findings of necropsy is the presence of unclotted blood=
anthrax
300
Will not cause icterus=
extravascular hemolysis
301
Unilateral consolidation of which organ is an important lesion in fowl cholera=
lungs
302
Turkey egg kidney=
hog cholera
303
Presence of stiffening of muscle=
rigor mortis
304
Presence of gradual congestion within the half side (body) of the animal=
livor mortis
305
Lesion in livor mortis=
hypostatic congestion
306
Presence of hemorrhages in different parts of the body=
purpura hemorrhagica
307
wear and tear pigment=
lipofuscin
308
TGE lesion=
villous atrophy
309
Type of necrosis wherein the cellular structure of the cell is preserved –
coagulative necrosis
310
Type of necrosis wherein cheesy materials were seen –
caseous necrosis
311
Tumor of the adrenal medulla –
pheochromocytoma
312
Most common tumor found in caged birds?
a. osteosarcoma?
b. Xanthoma?
# Choose the best.B?
Pituitary adenomas are most common in budgerigars and cockatiels. They may be seen as acute conditions of the nervous system, with signs such as seizures and muscle spasms. (Merck)
Xanthomas are discrete masses or diffuse, thickened areas of skin that are yellow-orange and dimpled in appearance. They are accumulations of fat and cholesterol and are most commonly found in cockatiels and budgies (and they are more often found in females).
Osteosarcoma has been described as a rare tumor in birds primarily occurring on the appendicular skeleton (1-4). Most reported cases of osteosarcoma in birds were left untreated and the patient euthanized (3,5-8), although amputation of the affected limb in cases of appendicular osteosarcoma has been described (2,4-6).
313
Yellow colored tumor found in wings of birds –
xanthoma
314
Exudates found just after the tissue trauma –
serous exudates
315
Exudates characterized primarily by neutrophils –
purulent exudates
316
Exudates characterized primarily by mucus –
Mucoid
317
Which of the following does not cause abortion –
a. PRRS?
b. Hog Cholera?
c. Parvo?
c. Parvo?
318
First cell found in acute response
– neutrophils
319
Malignant tumor of epithelial origin
– carcinoma
320
Condition wherein bacteria had already cause changes in the body
– putrefaction
321
Describes fungal infection
– gangrenous?
322
Largest cell in the blood stream –
megakaryocyte
323
Bone marrow aspiration in a 20kg dog can be perform using –
a. ileal crest?
b. Ischiatic tuber?
b?
324
BONE MARROW ASPIRATE VS. BONE MARROW CORE BIOPSY
The advantage of bone marrow aspiration over bone marrow core biopsy is the ability to distinguish individual cellular morphology, which is important in identifying cell lineages; characterizing morphologic abnormalities, especially subtle ones, within a lineage; and calculating ratios, such as myeloid-to-erythroid and maturation ratios. The extensive processing required to prepare bone core biopsy samples alters cellular morphology, rendering individual cellular identification more difficult. On the other hand, bone marrow core biopsies are required to evaluate overall marrow cellularity, architectural relationships, and the presence of myelofibrosis or necrosis. Appreciation of marrow architecture, which maintains spatial relationships, facilitates the diagnosis of osteomyelitis and metastatic disease within the marrow space. Accordingly, bone marrow aspirates and core biopsies are complementary techniques, and both may be required for full and accurate interpretation of the pathophysiologic process.
325
Flea bite dermatitis can be best seen in what part of the body? –
a. base of tail?
b. Around eyes and mouth?
a. base of tail?
326
Which of the following cannot interfere in the result of urine submerged in a dipstick?
Ketone bodies
327
Site of lesion when the birds are manifesting “honking”? –
a. trachea?
b. Larynx?
???
