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VM'21 > PATHOLOGY > Flashcards

PATHOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Why Hemoglobinuria does not occur in anaplasmosis infection?

a. Intravascular destruction
b. Extravascular destruction
c. Rbc is resistant

A

b. Extravascular destruction

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2
Q

Clostridial infection if foal (horse)

A

Clostridium perfringens is a bacteria that causes inflammation of the small and large intestine in young foals. The disease progresses rapidly, requires intensive medical care, and has a high mortality rate. Foals are often exposed to the bacteria in contaminated feces.

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3
Q

Vitamin d toxicity.

A

The main consequence of vitamin D toxicity is a buildup of calcium in your blood (hypercalcemia), which can cause nausea and vomiting, weakness, and frequent urination. Vitamin D toxicity might progress to bone pain and kidney problems, such as the formation of calcium stones.

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4
Q

Vitamin d toxicity treatment.

A

Hydration

Diuretics

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5
Q

Aflatoxin present in corn?

A

ZEARALENONE

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6
Q

Urethral obstruction?

A

A ureteral obstruction is a blockage in one or both of the tubes (ureters) that carry urine from your kidneys to your bladder. Ureteral obstruction can be curable. However, if it’s not treated, symptoms can quickly move from mild — pain, fever and infection — to severe — loss of kidney function, sepsis and death

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7
Q

Felv (feline leukemia virus)

A

Feline leukemia virus (FeLV) is one of the most important infectious diseases of cats worldwide. Affected cats can develop anemia (a low red blood cell level), cancers, and/or suppression of the immune system. The disease worsens over time and is usually fatal.

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8
Q

Felv (feline leukemia virus) clinical signs.

A
  • anemia
  • cancer (especially lymphoma and leukemia)
  • suppression of the immune system (increasing the risk of other infections)
  • immune-mediated disease (in which the cat’s immune system causes damage to its own cells)
  • reproductive problems (loss of pregnancy and “fading kitten” syndrome)
  • intestinal inflammation, neurologic disorders (including nerve dysfunction and blindness)
  • stomatitis (severe inflammation in the mouth)
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9
Q

Felv (feline leukemia virus) transmission.

A

Feline leukemia virus is transmitted between cats via infected saliva and urine. Direct contact with these body fluids, mutual grooming, shared litter boxes and food dishes, and fighting (bite wounds) all expose uninfected cats to the virus. To become infected, cats typically require prolonged, repeated exposure to the virus. Mother cats can also transmit the virus to their kittens while they are in the womb and through breast milk. It is likely that the transmission from a mother to her kittens is the greatest source of infection. Young kittens have the highest risk for catching the virus, whereas adults may have some inherent protection. However, cats of all ages can catch the virus and develop the disease.

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10
Q

Cppp (Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia) etiology

A
  • Mycoplasma capricolum capripneumoniae (Mycoplasma biotype F38) is the causative agent.
  • It appears to be transmitted by infective aerosol.
  • Morbidity can be 100%, and mortality 60%–100%.
  • Introduced into a new region by healthy carriers.
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11
Q

Cppp (Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia) clinical signs.

A
  • Weakness, anorexia, cough, hyperpnea, and nasal discharge accompanied by fever (104.5°–106°F [40.5°–41.5°C]) are often found.
  • Exercise intolerance progresses to respiratory distress, with open-mouth breathing and frothy salivation.
  • A septicemic form of the disease without specific respiratory tract involvement has been described.
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12
Q

Cppp (Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia) lesions.

A
  • excess of straw-colored pleural exudate and acute fibrinous pneumonia.
  • Consolidation is sometimes confined to one lung.
  • Distention of interlobular septa by serofibrinous fluid, commonly seen in infections caused by M mycoides capri, is rarely seen in contagious caprine pleuropneumonia.
  • In antibiotic-treated or recovered animals, the predominant lesion is a sequestrum similar to that seen in contagious bovine pleuropneumonia.
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13
Q

Cppp (Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia) diagnosis

A
  • clinical signs, epidemiology, and necropsy findings are used to establish a diagnosis.
  • causative organism should be isolated and identified, but isolation may be difficult, and special media is required for culture.
  • PCR, which can be performed directly on the pleural fluid or affected lung, has greatly facilitated the diagnosis of contagious caprine pleuropneumonia.
  • Serologic tests are complement fixation, passive hemagglutination, and ELISA; the latex agglutination test can be done in the field directly on whole blood as well as on serum samples in the laboratory.
  • Serologic cross-reactions may occur with other members of the Mycoplasma mycoides cluster.
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14
Q

Cppp (Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia) control

A
  • Quarantine of affected flocks is desirable.
  • Vaccines are available in some countries, and good to excellent protection has been reported.
  • Treatment with tylosin at 10 mg/kg/day, IM, for 3 days, has been effective, as has oxytetracycline (15 mg/kg).
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15
Q

How do young goat

(european dairy breeds) acquire the CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis) infection?

A

Feeding of infected milk and colostrum

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16
Q

CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis)

A

A neurologic form of the disease is seen in young goats, usually 2–4 mo old but as old as 1 yr. It is characterized by a progressive paresis with incoordination leading to paralysis, usually involving the hindlimbs and later the forelimbs.

  • In older, adult goats, the virus infection manifests as a chronic, progressive arthritis involving one or more joints and usually involving the carpal joints.
  • The initial sign is usually swelling of the affected joint(s), followed by progressive degeneration of articular and periarticular tissues with calcification, leading to decreased range of motion, ankylosis, and overt loss of mobility.
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17
Q

CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis) virus?

A

Enveloped, single-stranded RNA lentivirus in the family Retroviridae

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18
Q

CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis) diagnosis?

A

ELISA

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19
Q

CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis) diagnosis?

A

ELISA and Agar Gel Immunodiffusion Test

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20
Q

CAE is primarily seen in adult goats but can occur in kids as young as?

A

6 mos old.

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21
Q

CAE is primarily seen in adult goats but can occur in kids as young as?

A

6 mos old.

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22
Q

Signs of polysynovitis-arthritis in CAE infection include joint capsule distention and varying degrees of lameness. The joints most frequently involved is the?

A

Carpal joints

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23
Q

The onset of arthritis in CAE infection may be sudden or insidious, but the clinical course is always progressive. Affected goats lose condition and usually have poor hair coats. Encephalomyelitis is generally seen in kids ____ age but has been described in older kids and adult goats. Affected kids initially exhibit weakness, ataxia, and hindlimb placing deficits.

A

2-4 months old

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24
Q

Hypertonia and hyperreflexia are also common. Over time, signs progress to paraparesis or tetraparesis and paralysis. Depression, head tilt, circling, opisthotonos, torticollis, and paddling have also been described in what infection?

A

CAE

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25
Q

The “hard udder” syndrome attributed to CAE virus infection is characterized by _________________ at the time of parturition.

A

firm, swollen mammary gland and agalactia

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26
Q

T/F: In CAE infection, milk quality is usually unaffected.?

A

True

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27
Q

Pathologic lesions of CAE virus infection are generally described as:

A

Lymphoproliferative with degenerative mononuclear cell infiltration

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28
Q

Nerve affected in Mareks disease?

a. Sciatic
b. Vagus
c. Brachial
d. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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29
Q

Differentiate mareks with ibr?

A

With bursal atrophy

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30
Q

Site of swabbing for viral isolation in Avian flu?

a. oropharyngeal
b. cloaca
c. nasal

A

a. oropharyngeal

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31
Q

Wet vs. dry form of Infectious coryza?

A

The dry form is characterized by raised, wart-like lesions on unfeathered areas (​head, … The wet form may cause respiratory distress by obstructing the upper air passages

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32
Q

Infectious coryza causative agent?

A

Avibacterium paragallinarum.

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33
Q

Infectious coryza clinical signs.

A

Decreased activity, nasal discharge, sneezing, and facial swelling.

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34
Q

Diagnosis of Infectious coryza (IC)?

A

Diagnosis is based on PCR assay, bacterial culture, or production of typical clinical signs in susceptible chickens following inoculation with nasal exudate from an infected bird

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35
Q

IBH (inclusion body hepatitis) vs IBD( infectious bursal disease).

A

IBH -caused by fowl adenoviruses. Clinical signs are nonspecific but often include a sudden increase in mortality. Gross lesions include a swollen liver containing multiple pale or hemorrhagic foci and hydropericardium. Definitive diagnosis is usually made by histopathology or PCR. There is no treatment, but prevention is achieved by vaccination.

IBD - seen in young domestic chickens worldwide and is caused by infectious bursal disease virus (IBDV/ birnavirus). Signs can include depression, watery diarrhea, ruffled feathers, and dehydration. Morbidity is high and mortality is usually low, but some very virulent strains are capable of causing 60% or higher mortality. Macroscopic and microscopic lesions in the cloacal bursa and molecular identification of the viral genome are used to diagnosis the disease. Vaccination to induce maternal immunity in young chicks is initially used to control the disease. Vectored and live-attenuated vaccines can be used to induce active immunity in chicks as the maternal antibodies wane.

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36
Q

Gizzard erosion

A

FAdV (especially FAdV-1)

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37
Q

HORSE MYELOPATHY

A
  • Cervical stenotic myelopathy (CSM) is one of the most common causes of spinal ataxia in young horses. The layman’s term for CSM is wobbler syndrome.
  • Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) is caused by CNS infection of equids with either of the apicomplexan protozoa Sarcocystis neurona or Neospora hughesi. Common clinical signs are asymmetric ataxia and weakness of limbs and regional neurogenic muscle atrophy. Less common signs are obtundation, seizures, facial paralysis, head tilt, and other signs of cranial nerve dysfunction. Serologic support for the diagnosis is obtained using serum:CSF titer ratios for ELISA or indirect fluorescent antibody tests. EPM is treated with antiprotozoal drugs and immunomodulators.
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38
Q

BOVINE VIRAL DIARHEA

A
  • Bovine viral diarrhea/mucosal disease is a pestivirus infection of cattle and other ruminants.
  • Infection leads to immunosuppression and can cause signs in multiple body systems in addition to the digestive tract.
  • Mucosal disease is an uncommon form of infection in persistently infected cattle and is typically fatal.
  • Clinical signs range from inapparent infection to fever, depression, decreased milk production, abortion, diarrhea, and death.
  • Diagnosis is based on clinical signs, virus isolation, serology, and PCR. Treatment consists of supportive care. Improved biosecurity and vaccines are used for prevention and control.
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39
Q

REMEMBER: BOVINE VIRAL DIARHEA

A

BVD must be distinguished from other viral diseases that produce diarrhea and mucosal lesions. These include malignant catarrhal fever, which usually is a sporadic disease in more mature cattle, bluetongue, and rinderpest, which is currently considered to be eradicated worldwide.

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40
Q

Clinical Findings and Lesions of Bovine Viral Diarrhea

A

Infection of immunocompetent susceptible animals with either noncytopathic or cytopathic BVDV is termed acute or transient BVD. Inapparent or subclinical infection without any clinical signs that is followed by seroconversion is the most common form of infection in the field. Acute clinical disease may range from mild disease of high morbidity and low mortality to severe enteric disease with considerable mortality. Biphasic fever (~104°F [40°C]), depression, decreased milk production, transient inappetence, rapid respiration, excessive nasal secretion, excessive lacrimation, and diarrhea are typical signs of acute clinical BVD.

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41
Q

Clinical Findings and Lesions of Bovine Viral Diarrhea

A

Clinical signs of disease usually are seen 6–12 days after infection and last 1–3 days. Transient leukopenia may be seen with onset of signs of disease. Recovery is rapid and coincides with production of viral neutralizing antibody. Gross lesions seldom are seen in cases of mild disease. Lymphoid tissue is a primary target for replication of BVDV, which may lead to immunosuppression and enhanced severity of intercurrent infections.

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42
Q

Associated with another disease, what is the pathognomonic sign of hemorrhagic septicemia?

A

Mucopurulent, subcutaneous swelling in the pharyngeal region

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43
Q

Computation of wbc

A

Calculations:

  • One large area is 1 x 1 mm, and the depth is 0.1 mm.
  • Total area counted in 4 large squares = 4 x 1 x o. 1 = 0.4 µL (4/10).
  • Y x 10/4 is the total WBC in the cell in 1 µL.
  • Now dilution is 1:20.
  • Number of WBC in 1µL = Y x 10 x 20/4 = Y x 50 = Total WBC count.
  • Total TLC = counted cells (Y) x 50 = TLC/cmm.
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44
Q

Instrument used, describing the squares of the instrument

A

The Neubauer chamber is a thick crystal slide with the size of a glass slide (30 x 70 mm and 4 mm thickness). In a simple counting chamber, the central area is where the cell counts are performed.

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45
Q

Owner wearing short pants is following his dog chasing a rat in a field with tall grasses. How does the owner get leptospirosis infection?

A

Wound Cut from grass

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46
Q

Not a diagnostic method in leptospirosis

A

culture - gold standard but not often used

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47
Q

Situation about a vet na nagkadiarhea after niya magtreat ng isang dog na may diarhea din. One question is paano niya nakuha?

a. Food ingestion
b. Water intake
c. *
d. *

A

A. food ingestion

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48
Q

Situation about a rabbit hunter sa forest na nagkaroon ng tularaemia. One question is paano niya nakuha?

a. Deer fly bite
b. Ingestion of the rabbit
c. *
d. *

A

a. Deer fly bite

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49
Q

Mode of transmission of brucellosis except?

A

direct contact with blood, placenta, fetuses or uterine secretions, or through consumption of contaminated raw animal products (especially unpasteurized milk and soft cheese).

hanapin mo yung hindi included if lumabas sa exam

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50
Q

Black leg is common in what season?

a. summer
b. Rainy
c. Flooded pasture
d. Humid

A

a. summer

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51
Q

Principal indicator of liver damage?

a. Sgot
b. Sgpt
c. *

A

b. Sgpt - ALT test measures the level of alanine aminotransferase, also called ALT or SGPT. ALT is one of the enzymes that help the liver convert food into energy. High levels of these enzymes can be a sign that the liver is injured or irritated, and the enzymes are leaking out of the liver cells.

Sgot -The SGOT test is a blood test that’s part of a liver profile. It measures one of two liver enzymes, called serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase. This enzyme is now usually called AST, which stands for aspartate aminotransferase. An SGOT test (or AST test) evaluates how much of the liver enzyme is in the blood.

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52
Q

Can be used in diagnosis for heart failure?

a. Ast
b. Alt
c. *

A

b Alt

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53
Q

When you incised enlarged abdomen in Hemo-Sept positive animal what is to be found ?—

A

Red gelatinous Fluid

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54
Q

Nerves frequently affected by mareks

a. Vagus
b. Brachial
c. Sciatic
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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55
Q

Aflatoxin—-

A

HEPATIC NECROSIS

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56
Q

Seen in birds that survived AVIAN ENCEPHALOMYELITIS?

A

Splayleg

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57
Q

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the liver?

A

Hepatocytes has four sides

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58
Q

Surra affects?

A

HORSES AND CAMELS

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59
Q

Test used to identify blockage of biliary duct.

A

ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE

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60
Q

Botulism. In duck

A

( Limberneck)

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61
Q

Acute inflammation —

A

NEUTROPHIL

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62
Q

MONOCYTES

A

Not involved in acute inflammation.

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63
Q

Another name for Type III Hypersensitivity-

A

SERUM SICKNESS

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64
Q

Typhlitis

A
  • Eimeria tenella
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65
Q

Not a good test for erythrocyte in horses?

A

ESR

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66
Q

Will not cause atrophy—–

A

OVERUSE

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67
Q

Age that is commonly affected by PED?

A

all ages

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68
Q

Clinical signs manifested by Canine Distemper—

A

MYOCLONUS

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69
Q

Smell in black leg disease?

A

Butynol?

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70
Q

Hypersensitivity III

A

Arthus reaction

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71
Q

Lesion caused by E. tenella

A

Typhlitis

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72
Q

Lesion described as lumpy jaw (but not actually mentioned as lumpy jaw)

A

Actinomyces bovis

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73
Q

Maximum days for anthrax sample?

A

3 days?

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74
Q

Toxin released by puffer fish

A

Tetrodotoxin

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75
Q

Where is the White spots lesion in Pullorum disease?

A

Heart? Liver? Spleen?

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76
Q

Where is the bleeding in swine dysentery?

A

Cecum and colon? Colon and rectum? Jejunum and ileum? Ileum and colon?

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77
Q

A cat has difficulty in urinating. What is the initial protocol to do?

A

CBC?

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78
Q

What is the reason why it is difficult to identify microorganism present in dried urine samples?

A

Natural flora in urethra? Collected sample is too little? Too many bacteria present?

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79
Q

What stain is used for dried urine sample?

A

Gram staining? Giemsa? Acid fast stain?

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80
Q

A cat is in pain after the attempt to collect urine sample. What should you do to end the pain and gain sample?

A

Radiography? Cystocentesis?

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81
Q

Wild mushroom toxin

A

Muscarine

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82
Q

Equine infections anemia diagnosis

A

Immunodiffusion,

coggins test

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83
Q

Causative agent of Feline infectious peritonitis

A

Coronavirus

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84
Q

Proud flesh?

A

Remove/exise the affected part ?

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85
Q

Cloudy urine?

A

Fatty materials

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86
Q

Sweet smelling urine

A

Ketonuria

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87
Q

Which is absent in acute inflammation?

a. Macrophage?
b. Lymphocyte
c. Dendtritic cells
d. Mast cells

A

c. Dendtritic cells

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88
Q

Which do not cause respiratory infection in primates?

a. Klebsiella
b. Yersinia
c. Bordetella
d. Mycoplasma?

A

b. Yersinia

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89
Q

How does FIP spread in the body?

A

Bone marrow? Lymph node?

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90
Q

Sign to be seen in case of gall bladder obstruction?

A

White or clay colored stool

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91
Q

Where to located plasmodium if not present in blood?

A

Capillaries?

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92
Q

Drug of choice for strangles?

A

procaine penicillin (22,000 IU/kg, IM, bid) is the antibiotic of choice

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93
Q

How the drug for strangles should be administered?

A

Lavage? Parenteral?

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94
Q

What part of the body is nectroitc if dermatitis is present?

A

Thigh and around the cloaca? Tips of wing and thigh?

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95
Q

E. coli can proliferate at which part of the chicken?

A

Trabeculae? Tarsal bone?

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96
Q

Similar sign of parvovirus and cytomegalovirus?

A

Inclusion bodies? Abortion with different fetal size?

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97
Q

Lesion of Eimeria praecox?

A

No lesion? Yellow to liquid in small intestine? Transverse patches?

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98
Q

Which part of the brain is affected in mad cow disease?

A

Medulla?cerebral cortex? Grey matter? All?

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99
Q

Clinical sign of cribbing in horse?

A

Head pressing? Resting the head? All of the choices are about head

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100
Q

Characteristic lesion of mad cow dss in brain?

A

Bee hive appearance? Sponge-like?

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101
Q

Least way to diagnose anemia in horse?

A

ESR

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102
Q

Cell with cart wheel appreance?

A

Plasma cell

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103
Q

Differentiate chronic liver disease from acute bile obstruction?

A

Vandenbergh

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104
Q

Anthrax

A

Loeffler smear

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105
Q

Sign of sudan toxicity

A

Knuckling of forelegs? Hindlimb paralysis?

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106
Q

How to treat salter harris fracture

A

Physeal compression? Physeal traction? Pinning each side of fracture line?

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107
Q

Why horse limb wounds are left open in horses?

A

For aeration

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108
Q

Treatment of fungus in crop

A

Nystatin

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109
Q

Lesion of FMD

A

Tigerheart

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110
Q

FMD Cause of death in young pigs

A

Myocarditis

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111
Q

Piglets that treated with specific drug, suddenly collapses and died?

A

Iron toxicity

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112
Q

Trichomonas foetus infection causes?

A

Abortion with visible fetus? Early resorption of fetal membrane? Sterility in bulls?

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113
Q

Requirement for 2nd intention healing

A

Granulation

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114
Q

Trypanosome severely affects

A

Horse? Camel?

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115
Q

Species also affected by equine herpes virus 1? 4?

A

Cattle? Pig?

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116
Q

Trypanosoma means?

A

Rotten? Unclean?

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117
Q

Difference in the lesion of avian fatty liver and IBD in bursa of fab?

A

Haemorrhage? Atrophy?

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118
Q

Avian malaria lesion?

A

Copper in color?

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119
Q

Melanochromocytoma

A

Melanin-related

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120
Q

Normal color of normal pig liver?

A

Cherry red?

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121
Q

Avian leucosis vs ILT

A

Avian leukosis virus is shed by the hen into the albumen or yolk, or both; infection probably occurs after the onset of incubation.

Technical update: Infectious Laryngotracheitis (ILT)
HEALTH & DISEASETREATMENTS AND PREVENTIONPOULTRY HEALTH
by 5m Editor
7 January 2019, at 12:00am
Infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT) is a viral respiratory disease caused by an herpesvirus of chickens and some other gallinaceous birds (e.g. pheasants, peafowl). It is an economically significant disease in commercial egg producing flocks, with an essentially global distribution. In regions where ILT is endemic, the commercial poultry industry is faced with multimillion-dollar losses as a result of mortality, egg production losses, and decreased bird growth [1].

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122
Q

PED age affected

A

all ages

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123
Q

Lesion of glasser’s disease

A

Polyserositis-polyarthrtitis

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124
Q

Organ affected by aflatoxin

A

Liver

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125
Q

Organ affected by ochratoxin

A

Kidneys

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126
Q

Osteoclast

A

Parathormone

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127
Q

Osteoblast

A

Calcitonin

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128
Q

Nipah disease situational questions –Etiology, transmission, pathogenesis, etc

A

Nipah virus, Fruitbats

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129
Q

Body part that is not affected by dermatophytoses

A

Intestinal lumen

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130
Q

Cause of fumonisin in horse

A

Leukoencephalomalacia

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131
Q

Aflatoxin

A

Liver

132
Q

Ochratoxin

A

Kidney

133
Q

Normal color of pig liver

a. Cherry ret to dark red
b. Pale
c. with spots
d. light brown to dark brown

A

a. Cherry ret to dark red

134
Q

Origin of fibrosarcoma

A

Fibrosarcoma is a rare, highly malignant tumour of mesenchymal cell origin. It derives from pathologically transformed spindle shaped fibroblasts with an excessively high division rate.

135
Q

Confirmatory diagnosis of TVT

A

PCR-based detection assay. Compared with cytologic or histologic diagnosis, PCR yields improved diagnostic accuracy and can facilitate the decision of when to discontinue chemotherapy.

Cytologic examination of fine-needle aspirates or impression smears or by histopathologic evaluation of biopsies.

136
Q

Cells infected by EIA

A

Monocyte

137
Q

EIA

A

The causal agent of equine infectious anemia is an RNA virus, classified in the Lentivirus genus, family Retroviridae. The virus is readily inactivated by most common disinfectants, such as bleach, ethanol, iodophore disinfectants, phenolic compounds, glutaraldehyde, and formalin. Because bleach-based and ethanol disinfectants are readily inactivated in the presence of organic material, for example manure or soil, contaminated surfaces must first be cleaned thoroughly of such matter using soap and water before treating with a disinfectant. Pressure washing of a soiled surface is contraindicated because of the risk of aerosolization of potentially infectious blood or other body fluids on wall or floor surfaces.

138
Q

Clinical signs of EIA

A

The clinical findings and course of infection with equine infectious anemia virus are variable, depending on the virulence of the virus strain, viral dose, and susceptibility of the horse. After an incubation period of 15–45 days or longer in naturally acquired cases of infection, classic cases of the disease have been described as progressing through three clinical phases. An initial or acute episode lasting 1–3 days is characterized by fever, depression, and thrombocytopenia. Because these signs can be mild and transitory, they are often overlooked or misdiagnosed. Typically, this initial phase is followed by a prolonged period associated with:

recurring episodes of fever
depression
thrombocytopenia
increased heart and respiration rates
anemia
jaundice
petechiation on mucous membranes
epistaxis
dependent edema
muscle weakness
loss of condition
139
Q

Immunodiffusion/coggins test

A

Diagnosis for EIA

140
Q

Transmission of EIA

A

Stable flies

141
Q

Proper storage ofr transport of samples

A

a. Fixed Frozen b. Unfixed Refrigerated

142
Q

Consistent nerve affected in Mareks disease

a. Sciatic nerve
b. Brachial
c. Vagal
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

143
Q

Clinical signs manifested by canine distemper survivor

A

Myoclonus

144
Q

Maximum transmit time in anthrax samples

A

3 days

145
Q

Nipah virus is under what genus?

A

Henipavirus

146
Q

Vector of Nipah virus

A

Fruit bats

147
Q

Mode of transmission

A

Ingestion of infected fruits

148
Q

Transmission to humans

A

Animal to animal>animal to human>human to human

149
Q

Sample to be tested in rabies

a. hippocampus
b. cerebellum

A

a. hippocampus

150
Q

TGE age affected

A

All ages

151
Q

ILT vs Poxvirus

A

(similarity of Clinical Signs) Diphtheric

152
Q

Inclusion body hepatitis vs Fatty liver syndrome

A

Kidney lesions

153
Q

Porcine stress syndromemalignant hyperthermia

A

Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a rare, life-threatening, inherited disorder that can lead to metabolic disease of skeletal muscles in susceptible animals after exposure to triggering agents such as halogenated inhalation anesthetics, depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs, stress, and/or exercise.

  • A mutation in the ryanodine receptors (RYR1 locus) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum that surrounds myofibrils of skeletal muscles alters the function of calcium release channels, which results in massive release of calcium into the cytoplasm of the myofibrils.
  • As a result, generalized, extensive skeletal muscle contraction occurs, leading rapidly to a potentially fatal hypermetabolic state known as an MH episode. More than 300 RYR1 variants have been identified, and 31 of those mutations have been confirmed to cause MH according to the molecular genetic guidelines of the European Malignant Hyperthermia Group. Different mutation loci within the RYR1 receptors have been shown to be responsible for MH syndrome in different species.
154
Q

Porcine stress syndrome

A
  • Breed susceptibility varies, with Pietrain, Portland China, and Landrace pigs very susceptible to MH, and Large White, Yorkshire, and Hampshire pigs much less so. In the past, halothane was the most frequently reported trigger of MH in pigs.
  • Isoflurane has been reported to trigger MH in pigs of susceptible breeds, but only one instance of isoflurane-induced MH has been reported in a potbellied pig. Sevoflurane-induced MH also has been reported in purebred Poland China pigs. Episodes of MH induced by desflurane have been reported in Large White, Pietrain, and Pietran-mixed pigs. There have been no reports of isoflurane- or sevoflurane-induced MH in cattle.
155
Q

Degenerative joint disease

A

loss of joint movement and, in many cases, pain. This condition is characterized by thinning of cartilage, buildup of fluid within the joint, and the formation of bony outgrowths around the joint. Joint degeneration can be caused by trauma, infection, the body’s own immune system, or malformation during development. This leads to inflammation of the joint membrane, continued cartilage destruction and inflammation, and abnormal joint function.

156
Q

Degenerative joint disease signs

A

Signs of osteoarthritis include lameness, joint swelling, wasting away of muscle, and thickening and scarring of the joint membrane. Eventually enough damage can occur that a grating sound might be heard during joint movement. X-rays show increased fluid within the joint, soft-tissue swelling around the joint, the formation of bony outgrowths, hardening and thickening of bone beneath the cartilage, and sometimes a narrowed joint space.

157
Q

Degenerative joint disease treatment

A

Treatments can be either medical or surgical. Medical treatment includes weight loss (if needed), exercise on soft surfaces, and warm compresses to affected joints. It may also include the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs to reduce pain and inflammation. However, longterm use of these drugs in dogs can sometimes cause gastrointestinal problems such as loss of appetite, vomiting, and inflammation of the stomach and intestines. Corticosteroids also suppress inflammation, but they are usually given only for a short period in order to avoid adverse effects of continued use. Joint fluid modifiers or other types of pain relievers can also be used. Your veterinarian will prescribe appropriate medication based on your dog’s signs, age, and overall health.

Surgical options include joint fusion, joint replacement, cutting of the joint, and amputation. The outlook for recovery depends on the location and severity of the joint disease.

158
Q

mareks

A

Marek disease is a highly contagious viral disease of poultry characterized by T-cell lymphomas and peripheral nerve enlargement. Standard criteria used for diagnosis include history, clinical signs, gross necropsy, and histopathology.

Marek disease virus is a member of the genus Mardivirus within the subfamily Alphaherpesvirinae.

159
Q

avian leucosis

A

Lymphoid leukosis is a neoplastic disease of poultry caused by avian leukosis virus. The disease is characterized by B-cell lymphoma, occurring in chickens approximately 16 weeks of age and older. Standard criteria used for diagnosis include history, clinical signs, gross necropsy, and histopathology. There is no treatment or vaccine available, so eradication of the virus from breeding flocks is the most effective control method.

160
Q

Mareks vs. Avian leucosis

A

Mareks - T cell lymphoma and peripheral nerve enlargement1

Avian Leukosis - B-cell lymphoma - 16weeks old above

161
Q

Gritty substance.

A

Coagulative or caseous necrosis

162
Q

Bony mass between mandible and maxilla

a. Osteosarcoma
b. Actinomyces
c. Actinobacillus

A

b. Actinomyces

163
Q

Spherocytes indicate what type anemia

A

Microcytic hypochromic

164
Q

Lesion of ILT

A
  • gasping, coughing bloody mucoid exudate, rattling, and extension of the neck during inspiration are seen 5–12 days after natural exposure.
  • Reduced productivity is a varying factor in laying flocks. Affected birds are anorectic and inactive. Mortality varies but may reach 50% in adults and is usually due to occlusion of the trachea by hemorrhage or exudate.
  • Signs usually subside after ~2 weeks, although some birds may show signs for longer periods. Strains of low virulence produce little or no mortality, with mild respiratory signs and a slight decrease in egg production.
165
Q

Cells affected in TGE and PED

A

Intestinal villi (denuding)

166
Q

Color of feces with obstructed gall bladder

a. Yellow
b. White

A

b. White

167
Q

Color of urine of a horse with tying-up (Monday morning sickness or exertional rhabdomyolysis)

A

Brown/chocolate brown - due to myoglobin

168
Q

What is the sample to be collected to test for PRRS in a boar?

A

blood/semen

169
Q

AI questions – 4-5 qts

A

Status in the Philippines – pandemic, endemic, exotic, or epidemic
Transmission
Strain that can affect both humans and birds
How can a swine farm be affected by AI from a nearby poultry farm? – Virus is carried downwind from the poutry farm to the swine farm
AI strain present in the Philippines (as of the moment) – H1N1, H5N9, …

170
Q

Malignant catarrhal fever

Necropsy findings

A

inflammation and necrosis of respiratory, alimentary, or urinary mucosal epithelium; subepithelial lymphoid infiltration; generalized lymphoid proliferation and necrosis; and widespread vasculitis. Mucosal ulcerations and hemorrhage are common. Hemorrhages may be present in many parenchymatous organs, particularly lymph nodes. A classic but not pathognomonic histologic lesion is fibrinoid necrosis of small muscular arteries, but vessels of all types may be inflamed, including those in the brain. Prominent white nodules representing intramural and perivascular proliferation may be apparent, particularly in the kidneys.

171
Q

Basophilic stippling is common in what poisoning?

A

Lead poisoning

172
Q

Classical Swine fever

A

Classical swine fever is caused by a small, enveloped RNA virus in the genus Pestivirus of the family Flaviviridae. Classical swine fever virus (CSFV) is antigenically related to the other pestiviruses, mainly to bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV) of cattle and to border disease virus (BDV) of sheep.

The principal lesion produced by CSFV infection is a generalized vasculitis, clinically manifested as hemorrhages and cyanosis of the skin, notably at the ears, lower abdomen, and extremities.

hog cholera/ Turkey egg syndome

173
Q

Water deprivation in pigs can cause?

A

Salt poisoning

174
Q

Ecchymoses in comb, wattle, and shank with edema of the feet is caused by what disease?

A

Avian Influenza

175
Q

Testing for patency of bile duct

a. Slit the duodenum and squeeze the gall bladder
b. Slit gall bladder and squeeze
c. Slit bile duct and squeeze

A

a. Slit the duodenum and squeeze the gall bladder

176
Q

Which is not a goal of ante-mortem inspection?

a. Make sure that loading trucks are clean.
b. Avoid slaughter of injured or in pain animals to avoid contaminating killing floor.
c. To make sure sick animals are not slaughtered to avoid contaminating the killing floor.

A

b. Avoid slaughter of injured or in pain animals to avoid contaminating killing floor.

177
Q

Growth disorder when there continuous growth of cells that may possibly proceed to carcinoma?

a. Metaplasia
b. Neoplasia
c. Hyperplasia
d. Hypertrophy

A

b. Neoplasia

178
Q

Horses cannot have what disorder?

A

Cholecystitis - because they do not have gall bladder

179
Q

Gritty necrosis?

a. Coagulative
b. Liquefactive

A

a. Coagulative

180
Q

In FMD, necrosis in keratinocyte & stratum spinosum?

a. Ulcer
b. Vesicle

A

b. Vesicle

181
Q

Pus in lungs?

a. Abscess
b. Granuloma

A

a. Abscess

182
Q

Necrosis in FMD vesicles?

a. Liquefactive
b. Coagulative

A

a. Liquefactive

183
Q

Atypical hyperplasia prone to carcinoma due to continued applied stress?

a. Neoplasia
b. Aplasia
c. Dysplasia
d. Metaplasia

A

a. Neoplasia

184
Q

Difference of malignant catarrhal fever to FMD?

a. Viremia lasts to 2 days
b. Viremia lasts along the course of disease

A

b. Viremia lasts along the course of disease

185
Q

Other lesions of FMD than vesicles?

a. Erosion of ruminal pillar
b. Necrosis of ruminal wall

A

a. Erosion of ruminal pillar

186
Q

Lesion of Porcine Stress Syndrome (PSS) in pigs from Europe that is absent in pigs from America?

a. Myocardial necrosis
b. Cardiac fat atrophy

A

research

187
Q

Meaning/indication of the term “Amorphous”?

a. Texture
b. Structure

A

b. Structure

188
Q

Normal liver?

a. Firm
b. Friable

A

a. Firm

189
Q

Hydrophic degeneration mostly occurs in?

a. Neuron
b. Cardiac cells
c. Fat cells

A

a. Neuron

190
Q

Hyperthermia.

A

Pig

191
Q

Tumor origin.

A

Bone- osteosarcoma

192
Q

Red infarct.

A

Example: Lungs, small intentine

193
Q

White infarct.

A

Example: heart, kidney

194
Q

Post-mortem clot.

A

Unattached

195
Q

Types of graft that is from within the body?

A

Autograft

196
Q

Types of graft that is from the same genetic composition (identical twin)?

A

Isograft

197
Q

Types of graft that is from the same species?

A

Allograft

198
Q

Types of graft that is from different species?

A

Xenograft

199
Q

Type I of hypersensitivity

A

Immediate (IgE)

200
Q

Type II of hypersensitivity

A

Cytotoxic (IgG, IgM)

201
Q

Type III of hypersensitivity

A

Immune-complex

syn: Serum-sickness

202
Q

Type IV of hypersensitivity

A

Delayed (T cells)

203
Q

Pain mediator

A

Examples: Serotonin, PGE2, Histamine, Bradykinin

204
Q

Zebra-stripe lesion of rinderpest indicates:

A

Ulceration

205
Q

Different classification of necrosis.

A

Caseous: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

206
Q

Lead poisoning.

A

Reticulum

207
Q

Exudate.

A

Inflammatory

208
Q

Liver fibrosis.

A

Livefluke

209
Q

Absence of proximal limbs.

A

Phocomelia (sea limbs)

210
Q

Undifferentiated cells.

A

Malignant

211
Q

Cytotoxic T cell.

A

Tumor

212
Q

IFN (interferon).

A

Virus

213
Q

Muscle necrosis.

A

Lactase dehydrogenase

214
Q

Least check vital organ during necropsy of bird.

A

Kidney

215
Q

Areas to be cut to atain display stage in necropsy of buffalo

A

???

216
Q

Non contagious yet infectious disease of horse caused by RNA virus?

A

EIA/Swamp fever

217
Q

Affected carcass should not be opened

A

Anthrax.

218
Q

Anthrax sample collection

A

Postmortem blood sample from peripheral vein (ear vein, jugular vein)
(Stain with M’Fadyean methylene blue stain)

219
Q

Tetralogy of fallot

eisenmenger complex- absence of p. stenosis

A

VSD, RVH, Pulmonary stenosis, Dextraposed aorta

220
Q

Cecal cores is caused by?

A

Eimeria tenella

221
Q

Flaccid paralysis is caused by?

A

Botulism

222
Q

Spastic paralysis is caused by?

A

Tetanus

223
Q

Color of a fatty liver?

a. white
b. black
c. copper
d. yellow

A

d. yellow

224
Q

An agricultural product toxic to birds?

a. avocado
b. pineapple

A

a. avocado

225
Q

Mainly a hepatotoxin?

A

aflatoxin

226
Q

Shock?

a. hypotension
b. tachycardia
c. vomiting
d. pharyngeal paralysis

A

???

227
Q

Horse with rhabdomyolysis after surgery?- stateboard

a. serum creatine
b. creatinine

A

check to stateboard

228
Q

Crepitus/ crepitant swelling.

A

Blackleg

229
Q

Most common in: dog?
Choices:

a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency

A

a. PDA - common congenital defect of dogs, and it occurs less commonly in cats. Persistent flow through the ductus leads to excess blood flow (volume overload) to the pulmonary circulation and left heart chambers, most commonly leading to left CHF within the first 1–2 years of life. PDA occurs most commonly in small-breed dogs and causes a continuous murmur loudest over the left base and bounding pulses. Prompt diagnosis and treatment (either by interventional device occlusion or surgical ligation) before the development of clinical signs is associated with an excellent outcome.

230
Q

Most common in cattle?
Choices:

a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency

A

b. VSD/Ventricular septal defect, ectopic heart, ventricular hypoplasia

231
Q

Most common in pig?

a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency

A

Tricuspid valve dysplasia, atrial septal defect, subaortic stenosis

232
Q

Most common in cat?

a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency

A

b. VSD - Ventricular septal defect is a common congenital defect of cats and also occurs in dogs and can vary in location and size. Most defects are small enough to restrict significant shunting between ventricles, resulting in a high-pressure gradient and a loud-intensity, right-side murmur. Diagnosis can be made with echocardiography. Prognosis and treatment options depend on defect size, location, and severity of shunting. Development of pulmonary arterial hypertension is possible. Many affected animals require no treatment and have a good prognosis.

233
Q

Most common in Sheep?

a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency

A

b. VSD/Ventricular septal defect

234
Q

Most common in horse?

a. PDA
b. VSD
c. aortic/pulmonic stenosis
d. mitral insufficiency

A

Ventricular septal defect, PDA, tetralogy of Fallot, tricuspid atresia

235
Q

Where to see gross lesion in lead poisoning? (3qts)

a. reticulum
b. rumen
c. intestine

A

a. reticulum

236
Q

Least likely to cause pathologic fracture?

a. osteomyelitis
b. osteochondritis dissecans
c. rickets

A

a. osteomyelitis

237
Q

How many water to be added in formalin for preservation of brain? -Ole

a. until sinked
b. 50%
c. 25%

A

??

238
Q

What to remove to lift brain in goats?

A

calvaria

239
Q

Last to be examined in chicken necropsy?

a. liver
b. kidney

A

b. kidney

240
Q

Least likely submitted for examination in chicken?

a. heart
b. liver
c. kidney
d. lung

A

c. kidney

241
Q

Necropsy finding in rumen of cattle affected with FMD?

a. air pockets
b. ulcer
c. erosion

A

c. erosion pwede ring ulcers

242
Q

Salivation and ulcer of gingiva with diarrhea and fever?

a. FMD
b. VS
c. Anthrax
d. BVD

A

???

243
Q

Most common cause of lead poisoning in wild birds?

a. drinking from infected lake
b. gun shot

A

b. gun shot

244
Q

Site of red infarct?

A

Answer: lungs, liver, brain, GI tract

245
Q

Preferred thickness of tissue for lab exam –

A

5-7 mm

246
Q

Max thickness of tissue for lab exam –

A

5 cm

247
Q

Test serum blood for enzymes but the test will be delayed. What enzyme should not be test because it will be deteriorated –

A

SDH / Sorbitol dehydrogenase

248
Q

Color of urine of horse with bladder stone –

A

bloody red

249
Q

Color of urine of horse with tying up –

A

brownish red (myoglobinuria)

250
Q

Lipid droplets when there is fatty infiltration –

A

cytoplasm

251
Q

Viral disease that has no inclusion body

A

??

252
Q

Swelling in the ventral neck of Carabao in hemosep is due to –

A

gelatinous fluid

253
Q

Cells in the intestine of cattle with Johne’s disease –

A

macrophage and giant cells

254
Q

Secretion of bile

A

choleresis

255
Q

Color of feces in obstructed gall bladder –

a. white,
b. yellow,
c. green or
d. black

A

a. white, (my best guess)

chalky

256
Q

Bacterial cause of valvular endocarditis?

A

staphylococcus aureus bacteria and occasionally by the bacterial strains brucella and listeria.

257
Q

Liver function test not used in cattle –

ALT or SGPT

A

????

258
Q

Tumor in schiatic nerve is observed in what disease–

A

Marek’s

259
Q

Avian leucosis, where to find tumor –

a. Eye,
b. Bursa of fab,
c. proven,
d. NOTA

A

b. Bursa of fab,

260
Q

Avian leucosis, where not to find tumor -

A

all organs except liver, spleen, and bursa where tumor is common and are occasionally found in the kidneys, gonads, and mesentery

261
Q

Panting aka.

A

hyperapnea

262
Q

Characteristic of TVT under microscope –

A

palisade or vacuoles in the cytoplasm

263
Q

Color of lymph node of carabao with TB –

a. Greyish red,
b. whitish red

A

?

264
Q

Clinical sign of ipil ipil poisoning -

A

alopecia

265
Q

Wear and tear pigment –

A

Lipofuschin

266
Q

How many grams of feed for T2 detection –

A

100? 200?

267
Q

Transmission between H7N9 vs H5N1?

A

H7N9 - travel of infected humans or infected poultry

H5N1- aliva, nasal secretions, and feces.

268
Q

Avian influenza sample –

a. tracheal swab?
b. Cloacal swab?

A

although it is optimal to collect both oropharyngeal and cloacal swabs, oropharyngeal swabs should be collected from gallinaceous poultry and cloacal swabs should be collected from waterfowl.

269
Q

Infected with lepto, the animal has jaundice, what is the affected organ –

A

liver

270
Q

Confirmatory for PED diagnosis? –

a. PCR,
b. Elisa,
c. HA
d. HI

A

Laboratory diagnosis in neonates is made by PCR and/or direct immunofluorescence on cryostat sections of small intestine or colon. ELISA to detect viral antigens in feces or intestinal contents is more useful for older pigs. Antibodies can be detected in paired serum samples through ELISA-blocking.

271
Q

Confirmatory for PRRS diagnosis?

a. PCR,
b. Elisa,
c. HA
d. HI

A
  • Serology and PCR
  • The most commonly used serologic assay to help diagnose porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome is the ELISA. It measures IgG antibodies to PRRS virus. It cannot measure the level of immunity in an animal or predict whether the animal is a carrier. Titers are detected within 7–10 days after infection and can persist for up to 144 days. Tests for PRRS virus include PCR, virus isolation, and immunohistochemistry. Nucleic acid sequencing of the open reading frame 5 region of the virus is an excellent tool for epidemiologic investigations in the field to confirm similarity between isolates recovered from different sites. Recently, oral fluid sampling has been widely applied as a means to sample a population of pigs.
272
Q

Confirmatory for AI diagnosis?

a. PCR,
b. Elisa,
c. HA
d. HI

A

AGID or ELISA

273
Q

Necropsy finding difference between rinderpest and IBR?

A

kitam kinni Merck!

274
Q

Necropsy finding difference between ND, Coryza and IB?

A

kitam kinni Merck!

275
Q

Necropsy finding in the rumen of cattle died due to FMD?

A

Erosions

276
Q

Area that remains when the lesions of pox slough off=

A

pit

277
Q

Does not interfere with protein detection in urine-

A

ketone

278
Q

How thin should be the tissue sample before fixing and sending it to the laboratory-

A

10 mm

279
Q

The black/brown lesion of pox=

A

scab

280
Q

Air sac haemorrhages – aspergillosis? Trichomoniasis?

A

…..

281
Q

Difference between tenosynovitis and synovitis

A

Tenosynovitis - tendon

Synovitis - joints

282
Q

Difference between exudates and transudates

A

Transudate” is fluid buildup caused by systemic conditions that alter the pressure in blood vessels, causing fluid to leave the vascular system. “Exudate” is fluid buildup caused by tissue leakage due to inflammation or local cellular damage.

283
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus –

A

cyanosis :The patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a vascular structure that connects the proximal descending aorta to the roof of the main pulmonary artery near the origin of the left branch pulmonary artery. This essential fetal structure normally closes spontaneously after birth.

284
Q

Difficulty in inspiration but normal expiration –

a. pleuritis?
b. Bronchitis?

A

…..

285
Q

Old name of SGPT-

A

ALT

286
Q

Old name of SGOT-

A

AST

287
Q

If you inject horse with glucose solution, how much time it

A

,.

288
Q

Organ submitted for identification of weil’s disease=

A

liver

289
Q

russel bodies are=

A

secretory granules

290
Q

Cells are preserved in this type of necrosis=

A

coagulative

291
Q

Rosary beads lesion-

A

rickets

292
Q

comparison of lesions in postmortem and ante mortem clot

A

clot in post mortem is unattached

293
Q

meaning of scar

A

mark remaining after the healing of a wound, such as one caused by injury, illness, smallpox vaccination, or surgery.

294
Q

innate immunity

A

innate immune system is essentially made up of barriers that aim to keep viruses, bacteria, parasites, and other foreign particles out of your body or limit their ability to spread and move throughout the body. The innate immune system includes: Physical Barriers.

295
Q

cells present when there is chronic infection=

A

macrophage

296
Q

site of blood collection in dogs=

A

saphenous vein, kapag wala sa choices ang cephalic vein

297
Q

brick red area which is a reaction to shock of an animal is found in=

A

mucous membrane, gums,

298
Q

Type of calculi present in salivary gland =

A

ranula

299
Q

One of the findings of necropsy is the presence of unclotted blood=

A

anthrax

300
Q

Will not cause icterus=

A

extravascular hemolysis

301
Q

Unilateral consolidation of which organ is an important lesion in fowl cholera=

A

lungs

302
Q

Turkey egg kidney=

A

hog cholera

303
Q

Presence of stiffening of muscle=

A

rigor mortis

304
Q

Presence of gradual congestion within the half side (body) of the animal=

A

livor mortis

305
Q

Lesion in livor mortis=

A

hypostatic congestion

306
Q

Presence of hemorrhages in different parts of the body=

A

purpura hemorrhagica

307
Q

wear and tear pigment=

A

lipofuscin

308
Q

TGE lesion=

A

villous atrophy

309
Q

Type of necrosis wherein the cellular structure of the cell is preserved –

A

coagulative necrosis

310
Q

Type of necrosis wherein cheesy materials were seen –

A

caseous necrosis

311
Q

Tumor of the adrenal medulla –

A

pheochromocytoma

312
Q

Most common tumor found in caged birds?

a. osteosarcoma?
b. Xanthoma?

A

Choose the best.B?

Pituitary adenomas are most common in budgerigars and cockatiels. They may be seen as acute conditions of the nervous system, with signs such as seizures and muscle spasms. (Merck)

Xanthomas are discrete masses or diffuse, thickened areas of skin that are yellow-orange and dimpled in appearance. They are accumulations of fat and cholesterol and are most commonly found in cockatiels and budgies (and they are more often found in females).

Osteosarcoma has been described as a rare tumor in birds primarily occurring on the appendicular skeleton (1-4). Most reported cases of osteosarcoma in birds were left untreated and the patient euthanized (3,5-8), although amputation of the affected limb in cases of appendicular osteosarcoma has been described (2,4-6).

313
Q

Yellow colored tumor found in wings of birds –

A

xanthoma

314
Q

Exudates found just after the tissue trauma –

A

serous exudates

315
Q

Exudates characterized primarily by neutrophils –

A

purulent exudates

316
Q

Exudates characterized primarily by mucus –

A

Mucoid

317
Q

Which of the following does not cause abortion –

a. PRRS?
b. Hog Cholera?
c. Parvo?

A

c. Parvo?

318
Q

First cell found in acute response

A

– neutrophils

319
Q

Malignant tumor of epithelial origin

A

– carcinoma

320
Q

Condition wherein bacteria had already cause changes in the body

A

– putrefaction

321
Q

Describes fungal infection

A

– gangrenous?

322
Q

Largest cell in the blood stream –

A

megakaryocyte

323
Q

Bone marrow aspiration in a 20kg dog can be perform using –

a. ileal crest?
b. Ischiatic tuber?

A

b?

324
Q

BONE MARROW ASPIRATE VS. BONE MARROW CORE BIOPSY

A

The advantage of bone marrow aspiration over bone marrow core biopsy is the ability to distinguish individual cellular morphology, which is important in identifying cell lineages; characterizing morphologic abnormalities, especially subtle ones, within a lineage; and calculating ratios, such as myeloid-to-erythroid and maturation ratios. The extensive processing required to prepare bone core biopsy samples alters cellular morphology, rendering individual cellular identification more difficult. On the other hand, bone marrow core biopsies are required to evaluate overall marrow cellularity, architectural relationships, and the presence of myelofibrosis or necrosis. Appreciation of marrow architecture, which maintains spatial relationships, facilitates the diagnosis of osteomyelitis and metastatic disease within the marrow space. Accordingly, bone marrow aspirates and core biopsies are complementary techniques, and both may be required for full and accurate interpretation of the pathophysiologic process.

325
Q

Flea bite dermatitis can be best seen in what part of the body? –

a. base of tail?
b. Around eyes and mouth?

A

a. base of tail?

326
Q

Which of the following cannot interfere in the result of urine submerged in a dipstick?

A

Ketone bodies

327
Q

Site of lesion when the birds are manifesting “honking”? –

a. trachea?
b. Larynx?

A

???

VM'21 (14 decks)

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