BASIC SCIENCES Flashcards

1
Q

A cat that hunts outdoors develops a rapidly progressive disease with signs including anemia and icterus. Death occurs a few days after the onset of clinical signs. Histopathologic examination of the lungs and liver reveals blood vessels filled with very large cells containing parasitic inclusions. The most likely cause of this cat’s death is infection with:

        A. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
	B. Cytauxzoon felis
	C. Leishmania braziliensis
	D. Paragonimus kellicotti
	E. Eucoleus (Capillaria) aerophila
A

Ans. B.

Cats acquire fatal infection with this parasite from tick bites; the sylvatic cycle is tick-bobcat-tick.

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2
Q

An Arabian foal with inherited combined immunodeficiency develops diarhhea. Examination of the feces by sugar flotation reveals large numbers of very small oocysts typical of a parasite known to cause diarrhea in immunocompromised hosts. The name of this parasite is:

	A. Eimeria leukarti
	B. Cryptosporidium parvum
	C. Klossiella equi
	D. Trypanosoma brucei
	E. Parascaris equorum
A

Ans. B.

Immunocompromised horses, not unlike dogs, cats, and people, can develop severe diarrhea due to cryptosporidiosis.

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3
Q

Necropsy of a lamb from a flock that recently developed severe diarrhea reveals numerous whitish, raised lesions, 3-6 mm in diameter, in the intestinal mucosa. Fecal examinations have not disclosed any parasites present in great numbers; however, saline smears prepared from the lesions reveal hundreds to thousands of small elongate organisms. A likely cause of the diarrhea and the intestinal lesions is:

	A. Eimeria ahsata
	B. Giardia duodenalis (G. lamblia)
	C. Isospora canis
	D. Sarcocystis arieticanis
	E. Trichuris ovis
A

Ans. A.
Disease is likely to occur before oocysts are being shed in the feces. Diagnosis requires examination of the intestinal mucosa of dead animals.

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4
Q

You and your spouse own a veterinary clinic in a small town, and your 3-year-old daughter accompanies you to the office everyday, where she plays in the reception area. After about 6 months, you note that your daughter is not sleeping well and is complaining that her anal area itches. Your pediatrician diagnoses pinworm infection. Your daughter probably obtained her infection from:

	A. your family dog
	B. a dog visiting your clinic
	C. eggs in feces-contaminated soil in your 
            backyard
	D. another child
	E. your family horse
A

Ans. D.

People often refuse to accept that their pet is not at fault.

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5
Q

Puppies with hookworm eggs in their feces 2 weeks after birth have typically become infected with Ancylostoma caninum by:

A. ingestion of infective larvae from soil
B. transmammary migration od larvae from the 
        bitch
C. transplacental migration of larvae from the 
        bitch
D. penetration of the skin by infective larvae
E. ingestion of hookworm eggs containing 
        infective larvae
A

Ans. B.

Young puppies with eggs in their feces were likely infected via the dam’s milk.

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6
Q

The prepatent period of Diroflaria immitis poses problems in diagnosis of heartworm infection in dogs. By definition, the prepatent period of heartworms is that period between:

A. the time th e mosquito ingests a microfilariae 
        and the time the infective-stage larva is fully 
        developed
B. the time the adult worms have died and the 
        time the microfilariae are ultimately cleared from 
        the blood due to old age and natural parasite 
        death
C. the time a dog has been chemotherapeutically 
        cleared of its microfilariae and the time the  
        microfilariaefrom the existing adults return to 
        detectable levels in the circulation
D. the time infective-stage larvae are inoculated 
         by a mosquito and the time adult worms first 
         appear in the pulmonary vessels
E. the time infective-stage larvae are inoculated by 
        a mosquito and the time microfilarae first 
        appear in the bloodstream
A

Ans. D.
The diagnostic dilemma is that there are no detectable microfilariae and antigen tests do not begin to detect infection until several weeks to months after the mosquito bite.

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7
Q

The prepatent period of whipworm (Trichuris vulpis) infection is:

	A. 1 week
	B. 1 month
	C. 3 months
	D. 5 months
	E. 1 year
A

Ans. C.

It takes about 3 months for whipworms to mature.

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8
Q

In the southeastern United States and the Caribbean, cats are probably the major source of eggs from which the larvae develop that cause the zoonotic syndrome called cutaneous larva migrans. The nematode that most commonly causes this zoonotic disease is:

	A. Ancylostoma tubaeforme
	B. Ancylostoma braziliense
	C. Uncinaria stenocephala
	D. Ancylostoma caninum
	E. Ollulanus tricuspis
A

Ans. B.
Geographic distributions are important for certain parasitic diseases. The distribution of cutaneous larva migrans mainly parallels that of Ancylostoma braziliense; thus such lesions would typically not be expected in places where this species of hookworm is not found. This worm is found mainly along the eastern coast of the United States and around the Caribbean. In the dog or cat host, the eggs of the different Ancylostoma species are usually indistinguishable.

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9
Q

Necropsy of an equine fetus aborted late in pregnancy reveals pneumonia with fibrinonecrotic casts in bronchi. Which organism is most likely the cause of the abortion?

	A. Aspergillus organisms
	B. equine herpesvirus
	C. equine viral arteritis virus 
	D. Streptococcus equi
	E. Taylorella equigenitalis
A

Ans. B.
Equine herpesvirus causes necrosis of the bronchoiolar epithelium, with sloughing of the mucosa, fibrin deposition, formation of casts.

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10
Q
Over the past 2 weeks, one of your dairy clients has lost four heifers with clinical signs of CNS disease, including circling. You suspect listeriosis. What is th emost appropriate sample to submit to a diagnostic laboratory for culture and histopathologic examination to confirm your tentative diagnosis?
	A. cerebral cortex
	B. hippocampus
	c. cerebellum
	D. brainstem
	E. spinal cord
A

Ans. D.

CNS lesion caused by Listeria organisms are characteristically found in the brainstem.

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11
Q

The most common lesion of Salmonella infection in horses is:

	A. hemorrhagic colitis
	B. fibrinotic colitis
	C. ulcerative enteritis
	D.proliferative enteritis
	E. granulomatous enteritis

Ans. B.
Salmonella infection produces fibrin and necrosis of the colonic mucosa.

A

Ans. B.

Salmonella infection produces fibrin and necrosis of the colonic mucosa.

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12
Q

A mare exhibits stallionlike behavior and has an enlarged ovary. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

	A. dysgerminoma
	B. cystic follicles
	C. oopheritis
	D. granulose cell tumor
	E. hydrosalpinx
A

Ans. D.
Answer choices a and c may emlarge the ovary but are rare and do not occur in horses; choice b does not occur in horses; choice e is dilatation of the oviduct.

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13
Q

At necropsy of a dog, one kidney has a dilated pelvis with loss of half the medulla. This lesion is called:

	A. cystic kidney
	B. papillary necrosis
	C. pyelonephritis
	D. hydronephrosis
	E. hydroureter
A

Ans. D.
Answer choice a is characterized by cysts in the kidney; choice b is necrosis of the renal crest; choice c is inflammation of the medulla; choice e is dilatation of the ureter.

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14
Q

A white plaque on the cornea of a Hereford cow most likely represents:

	A. keratits
	B. a corneal ulcer
	C. squamous cell carcinoma
	D. lymphoid hyperplasia
	E. coloboma
A

Ans. C.
Answser choices a and b produce ulcers and not plaques; choice d occurs on the third eyelid; choice e is a congenital defect in an ocular structure.

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15
Q

The pregnant, cat-owning client most at risk for passing toxoplasmosis to her fetus during gestation is one who:

A. has repeatedly eaten raw or rare beef
B. does a lot of backyard gardening
C. already has high circulating Toxoplasma antibody titer at the time of conception
D. does not have a high circulating Toxoplasma antibody titer at the time of conception
E. owns a cat with a high circulating Toxoplasma antibody titer at the time of conception
A

Ans. D.
The fetus of an immune woman or sheep is protected unless the mother or dam is immunosuppressed, such as by corticosteroids or, in people, AIDS.

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16
Q

Necropsy of a horse reveals infection of the skeletal and cardiac muscle with Sarcosystis bertrami. Typical clinical signs of chronic myositic infection (infection with the bradyzoite stage) with this parasite, as with other species of Sarcosystis, are:

	A. muscle pain and loss of function
	B. inappetence and wasting
	C. diarrhea and dehydration
	D. CNS signs
	E. absent
A

Ans. E.

Though acute disease may occur, chronic infections only rarely cause significant signs.

17
Q

Three parasites that can infect people via ingestion of uncooked or undercooked pork are:

A. Toxoplasma gondii, Taenia solium, Stephanurus dentatus
B. Trichinella spiralis, Taenia solium, Hyostrongylus rubidus
C. Toxoplasma gondii, Taenia solium, Trichinella spiralis
D. Trichinella spiralis, Taenia solium, Oesophagostomum radiatum
E. Toxoplasma gondii, Eimeria deblieki, Trichinella spiralis
A

Ans. C.
People can become infected with Toxoplasma, Taenia, and Trichinella organisms from eating imporperly cooked infected pork.

18
Q

The most likely cause of death in Ancylostoma caninum-infected puppies that die of peracute hookworm disease during the second week of life is:

	A. renal failure
	B. diarrhea
	C. anemia
	D. pneumonia
	E. hepatic failure
A

Ans. C.

These parasites are voracious blood feeders.

19
Q

Puppies that develop patent Toxocara canis infection at the beginning of their fourth week of life have most likely become infected woth this parasite by:

A. ingestion of infective larvae
B. transmammary migration of larvae from the bitch
C. transplacental migration of larvae from the bitch
D. penetrations of the skin by infective larvae
E. ingestion of roundworm eggs containing infective larvae
A

Ans. C.

Transplacentally aquired Toxocara canis larvae can be pathogenic in utero or after parturition.

20
Q

In a dog with disease caused by Dirofilaria immitis, common clinical findings include:

	A. hepatic dysfunction
	B. renal dysfunction
	C. coughing, decreased exercise tolerance, and weight loss
	D. vomiting
	E. edema of the extremities
A

Ans. C.

The other findings could be present, but they would typically represent more severe or advanced stages of disease.

21
Q

In a large cattery in Oregon, some cats begin vomiting intermittently. Repeated fecal examinations fail to identify any parasites other than a few coccidia and Giardia organisms that are not confined only to the vomiting cats. When one of the affected cats dies from other causes, necropsy reveals small nematodes (less than 1 mm long) within a focal lesion about 3 cm in diameter in the stomach. The male worms have a copulatory bursa. The most likely cause of vomiting in these cats is:

	A. Ancylostoma tubaeforme
	B. Ollulanus tricuspis
	C. Strongyloides tumefaciens
	D. Physaloptera praeputialis
	E. Gnathostoma spinigerum
A

Ans. B.

Stomach infection with Ollulanus tricuspis can cause vomiting in cats

22
Q

In a cat with coughing and dyspnea, nematode larvae in the feces have dorsally spine tails. This cat is most likely infected with:

	A. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
	B. Crenosoma vulpis
	C. Ollulanus tricuspis
	D. Physaloptera praeputialis
        E. Eucoleus aerophilus (Capillaria aerophila)
A

Ans. A.

The larvae of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus have a dorsal spine on the tail.

23
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in horses causes which gross lesion?

	A. complete collapse of the lung
	B. diffuse consolidation of the lung
	C. diffuse pleuritis
	D. tracheal collapse
	E. overinflation of the lung
A

Ans. E.
Lesions are primarily in the bronchioles and progress to obstruction, preventing escape of air from the lungs when the thorax is opened.

24
Q

Which nutritional problem is associated with dilative cardiomyopathy of cats?

	A. taurine deficiency
	B. vitamin E/selenium deficiency
	C. zinc deficiency
	D. copper deficiency
	E. folic acid deficiency
A

Ans. A.

Taurine is an essential nutrient in cats. Deficiency causes dilative cardiomyopathy.

25
Q

In the past week, a discrete, raised, red mass has developed in the skin of the leg of a 2-year-old dog. This lesion most likely is a:

	A. mast cell tumor
	B. squamous cell carcinoma
	C. melanoma
	D. papilloma
	E. histiocytoma
A

Ans. E.

Histiocytoma typically occurs in dogs less than 2 years of age.

26
Q

What is the significance of small nodules in the adrenal cortex of an aged dog?

A. the dog has an adrenocortical adenoma
B. the dog has adrenocortical hyperplasia
C. this is a normal finding, with no pathologic significance
D. the dog has an adrenocortical carcinoma
    E. the dog has adrenocortical hypertrophy that will eventually cause hyperadrenocorticism
A

Ans. C.

Accessory cortical tissue is common and nonfunctional.

27
Q

A dog develops acute renal failure after ingesting antifreeze. Despite therapy the dog dies and necropsy reveals kidney with pale, slightly swollen cortices. What is the most likely pathologic diagnosis?

	A. glomerulonephritis
	B. pyelonephritis
	C. acute interstitial nephritis
	D. acute tubular necrosis
	E. embolic nephritis
A

Ans. D.
Antifreeze (ethylene glycol) is a renal toxin that produces tubular necrosis. These kidneys have pale, slightly swollen cortices.

28
Q

A 6-month-old steer in good body condition is found dead. Necropsy reveals an area of hemorrhage and emphysema n the right gluteal muscles; there is a distinct odor of rancid butter. The most likely cause of these findings is:

	A. vitamin E/selenium deficiency
	B. Neospora myositis
	C. clostridial myositis
	D. Fusobacterium necrophorum myositis
	E. monensin toxicosis
A

Ans. C.
Answer choices a and e cause pale muscle only; choice b usually causes no gross lesions and occurs in dogs; choice d has never been reported