CLINICAL SCIENCES Flashcards
1
Q
One mL of a 10% solution of a drug contains how many mg of that drug?
A. 10 mg/mL B. 20 mg/mL C. 1.0 mg/mL D. 0.1 mg/mL E. 100 mg/mL
A
Ans. E.
A 10% solution = 10 g/100 mL = 10,000 mg/100mL = 100 mg/mL
2
Q
If you administer 350 mL of a 5% solution of guaifenesin to a 250-kg pony, how many mg/kg would be administered?
A. 35 B. 250 C. 70 D. 10 E 100
A
Ans. C.
350 mL x 50 mg/mL = 17,500 mg/250 kg = 70 mg/kg
3
Q
Thiobarbiturates:
A. are characterized by slow induction of anesthesia B. should never be used in cats C. may produce cardiac arrhythmias ff. intravenous administration D. are not bound to plasma proteins E. produce effect that can be reversed with naloxone
A
Ans. C.
In healthy dogs there is high incidence (up to 40% of cases) of transient ventrivular arrythmias ff. anesthetic induction with intravenous thiobarbiturates. This does not usually cause clinical problems in healthy patients.
4
Q
Propofol:
A. is very irritating when administered perivascularly
B. should be administered intamuscularly because it is a colloidal solution
C. is dissolved in a soybean oil/egg lecithin emulsion
D. should be refrigerated because it is unstable at room temperature
E. can be used in multidose vials because it contains a bacteriostatic agent
A
Ans. C.
In the commercially available product, propofol is dissolved in a nonirritant milky oil emulsion and can be given intramuscularly (requires large volume) as well as intravenously. It is stable at room temperature but contains no preservative agents.
5
Q
Which of the ff. provides surgical analgesia of more than 2 hours duration when administered epidurally in an appropriate dose?
A. bupivacaine 0.5% (Marcaine) B. lidocaine 2% (Xylocaine) C. morphine at 0.5 mg/mL (Duramorph) D. mepivacaine 2% (Carbocaine) E. meperidine at 50 mg/mL (Demerol)
A
Ans. A.
Bupivacaine produces both sensory and motor blockade of 2-3 times longer duration than lidocaine or mepivacaine.
6
Q
Which inhalation anesthetic is subject to the greatest degree of metabolism?
A. nitrous oxide B. halothane C. methoxyflurane D. desflurane E. isoflurane
A
Ans. C.
About 50% of an inhaled dose of methoxyflurane and 25% of a dose of halothane are metabolized. Other agents have minimal metabolism.
7
Q
Halothane:
A. is eliminated completely unchanged via the lungs
B. is the most potent respiratory depressant of the commonly used inhalation anestheitics
C. is the only inhalation agent that lowers the threshold to cathecolamine-induced ventricular arrhythmias
D. depresses cardiac function by decreasing myocardial contractility, causing vasodilation and depressing the sinoatrial node
E. is more expensive to use than methoxyflurane
A
Ans. D.
Up to 20% of the inhaled dose of halothane is metabolized. Isoflurane cause more respiratory depression in dogs and horses. Methoxyflurane and isoflurane are arrhythmogenic, although significantly less so than halothane. Halothane is by far the cheapest commonly used inhalation agent.
8
Q
If soda lime in breathing circuit becomes exhausted during an anesthetic procedure, you would expect to observe:
A. only an increased respiratory rate B. only an increased depth of breathing C. an increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure D. an increased heart rate and increased blodd pressure E. no physiologic changes
A
Ans. D.
Hypercapnia results in sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
9
Q
In horses, which of the ff. indicates a deep plane of anesthesia?
A. mean arterial pressure of 60 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 6/min, corneal reflex present B. mean arterial pressure of 75 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 4/min, spontaneously closes eye C. mean arterial pressure of 60 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 3/min, periodic nystagmus D. mean arterial pressure of 76 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 6/min, brisk palpebral reflex E. mean arterial pressure of 70 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 4/min, spontaneously closes eye, lacrimation
A
Ans. A.
A corneal reflex can persist even at deep levels of anesthesia. Loss of the corneal reflex is a sign of very deep anesthesia. Repeated testing of the corneal reflex can damage the cornea.
10
Q
Tachycardia during anesthesia:
A. may be due to hyperkalemia B. may be due to hypercapnia C. shoul be treated ith lidocaine D. should be treated with isoproterenol E. is a sign of deep anesthesia
A
Ans. B.
A high blood carbon dioxide level cause cardiovascular stimulation, mediated via the sympathetic nervous system.
11
Q
Lung compliance is a measure of:
A. the resistance to lung inflation by manual compression of the reservoir bag B. the amount of pressure required to inflate the lung C. the difference in pressure between the ventilator and the rebreathing circuit D. the change in lung volume for each unit of transpulmonary pressure change E. end-inspriratory pressure indicated on the pressure gauge located in the breathing circuit
A
Ans. D.
Compliance is a measure of static pressure-volume relationships (L/cm), whereas resistance is a measure of dynamic pressure flows (L/cm H2O/sec).
12
Q
Which species is most susceptible to the effects of xylazine?
A cats B rabbits C. horses D. swine E. cattle
A
Ans. E.
Cattle are most susceptible to the effects of xylazine. Sheep and goats are also very sensitive to xylazine.
13
Q
Which neuromuscular relaxant cannot be effectively antagonized?
A. gallamine B. pancuronium C. antracurium D. succinylcholine E. vecuronium
A
Ans. D.
Succinylcholine is hydrolyzed by cholinesterases. It must be metabolized to end its effects.
14
Q
Causes of erroneous refractive index-derived total plasma protein values include all the ff. except:
A. lipemia B. Heinz bodies C. in vivo hemolysis D. in vitro hemolysis E. extreme overanticoagulation with EDTA
A
Ans. B.
Heinz bodies do not interfere with plasma protein values, but they can erroneously elevate hemoglobin values.
15
Q
Neonatal isoerythrolysis in foals is best diagnosed by:
A. crossmatching the foal's RBC's and the mare's serum B. crossmatching the mare's RBC's and the foal's serum C. blood typing the mare for Aa and Qa RBC antigens D. crossmatching the stallion's RBC's and the foal's serum E. crossmatching the mare's colostrum against the stallion's RBC's
A
Ans. A.
In neonatal isoerythrolysis, the mare’s serum contains antibodies against the foal’s RBC’s.
16
Q
Thyroid hormone levels are likely to be decreased in animals in any of the ff. except:
A. young animals B. lymphocytic thyroiditis C. phenobarbital administration D.glucocorticoid administration E. animals with concurrent illness
A
Ans. A.
Young animals have high levels of thyroid hormone.
17
Q
An abundance of eosinophils on a peripheral blood smear is most commonly associated with:
A. neoplastic disease B. infection C. trauma D. allergic conditions E. stress
A
Ans. D.
Eosinophilia occurs commonly in response to antigen-antibody reactions, as well as with inflammation of certain organs, such as the lungs, which tend to be allergy targets.
18
Q
Which method is least appropriate for urine collection?
A. midstream free catch B. manual compression of the bladder C. aspiration of urine from the cage floor or litterbox D. bladder catheterization E. cystocentesis
A
Ans. C.
Urine specimens collected from the floor or litterbox are likely to be contaminated.
19
Q
Calcium oxalate crystals in urine sediment are most often associated with:
A. ethylene glycol (antifreeze) toxicity B. gout C. bacterial cystitis D. end-stage renal disease E. organophosphate insecticide poisoning
A
Ans. A.
Calcium oxalate crystals may also be found in small numbers in normal urine.
20
Q
Concerning toxic neutrophils, which statement is least accurate?
A. Their presence suggests inflammation. B. Their presence is usually related to localized or systemic bacterial infections. C. Changes in the neutrophil cytoplasm arise from disturbed maturation of neutrophil precursors. D. Dohle bodies indicate severe toxicity. E. The prognosis is more favorable when neutrophil numbers and the severity of toxicity diminish over time.
A
Ans. D.
Dohle bodies indicate mild toxicity.
21
Q
cidosis is most likely to produce which change?
A. shift of potassium from extracellular to intracellular
B. shift of potassium from intracellular to extracellular
C. shift of sodium from extracellular to intracellular
D. decrease in serum ionized calcium level
E. increase in total serum calcium level
A
Ans. B.
Acidosis increases ionized calcium levels but does not change total calcium levels.
22
Q
Hypercalcemia has been associated with all of the ff. conditions except:
A. lymphoid malignancies B. anal sac apocrine-gland carcinoma C. hypoadrenocorticism D. fungal infections E. milk fever
A
Ans. E.
Certain fungal infections, such as blastomycosis, have been associated with hypercalcemia.
23
Q
Concerning an acute or recent hemorrhagic effusion, which statement is least accurate?
A. It has a clear supernatant and red sediment. B. Intact erythrocytes may be present C. It contains macrophages with phagocytized erythrocytes. D. It contain hemosiderin-laden marophages. E. It contain platelets.
A
Ans.D.
Hemosiderin-laden macrophages are seen in long standing or chronic hemorrhagic effusions.
24
Q
In a dog, hypersegmented neutrophils in an effusion indicate:
A. sepsis B. immune-mediated disease C. a long-standing pathologic condition D. normal canine neutrophils E. a degenerative change
A
Ans. C.
Hypersegmentation of neutrophils is an indication of chronicity.
25
Which cell type is likely to be present in highest numbers in a normal transtracheal wash?
```
A. goblet cells
B. ciliated columnar epithelial cells
C. alveolar macrophages
D. neutrophils
E. lymphocytes
```
Ans. C.
| Alveolar macrophages are more commonly observed in bronchoalveolar lavages.
26
Radiographic signs of pleural effusion include all of the ff. except:
A. a widened, radiopaque pleural space
B. widened, opaque interlobar fissure lines
C. partial collapse of the lung lobes
D. radiolucent air surrounding the lung lobes
E. blunting of the costophrenic angles on ventrodorsal views
Ans. D.
| Radiolucent air surrounding the lung lobes is a sign of pneumothorax.
27
An air bronchogram is consistent with which type of lung pattern?
```
A. alveolar
B. vascular
C. linear interstitial
D. nodular interstitial
E. bronchial
```
Ans. A.
| Air bronchograms are only seen with an alveolar pattern.
28
You note a large cranial abdominal mass on abdominal radiographs of a cat. The stomach is displaced dorsally and caudally by this mass. What is the most likely site of this mass?
```
A. liver
B. ovary
C. kidney
D. prostate
E. bladder
```
Ans. A.
| Hepatomegaly displaces the stomach caudodorsally. The other organs listed are caudal to the stomach.
29
A 9-month-old German shepherd has shifting forelimb lameness, with pain on palpation over both humeral diaphyses. Radiographs reveal multifocal, patchy increases in opacity in the medullary cavity of the right and left humeri. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
```
A. panosteitis
B. osteochondritis dissecans
C. hypertrophic osteodystrophy
D. ununited anconeal process
E. fragmented coronoid process
```
Ans. A.
These signs are typical of panosteitis. The patient characteristics and physical examination findings support the diagnosis.
30
After processing a radiograph, you notice an intensely black artifact with the appearance of arborized black lines. The most likely cause of this artifact is:
```
A. underdevelopment
B. overdevelopment
C. light fog
D. developer splashed on the film in the darkroom.
E. static electricity
```
Ans. E.
| Static often causes this type of artifact.
31
Active periosteal reaction on the palmarolateral and palmaromedial aspects of the proximal phalanx in a horse is most likely caused by abnormal pulling of the:
```
A. suspensory ligament
B. superficial digital flexor tendon
C. deep digital flexor tendon
D. impar ligament
E. middle sesamoidean ligament
```
Ans. E
| This ligament attaches at the affected region.
32
In dogs, the right cranial lobar pulmonary artery and vein are best seen on which radiographic projection?
```
A. left lateral
B. right lateral
C. dorsoventral
D. ventrodorsal
E. standing lateral
```
Ans. A.
| In the other options the vessels are not clearly seen.
33
On radiographs of a 9-year-old male German shepherd with chronic hematuria, you observe two distinct spheric, large (8 cm diameter), soft tissue masses in the caudoventral abdomen. The most reasonable conclusion is that:
A. the cranial mass is the bladder and the caudal mass is an enlarged prostate gland
B. the caudal mass is the bladder and the cranial mass is an enlarged prostate gland
C. exploratory surgery should be performed
D. retrograde positive-contrast urethrography should be performed
E. this is a normal finding and there is no need for further studies or treatment
Ans. D.
| This procedure allows identification of one mass as the bladder and more accurate assessment of the other mass.
34
The kidney is a complex organ comprised of capsule, cortex, medullary pyramids, pelvis, and pelvic diverticula. Which of the ff. best describes the relative echogenocity of the cortex, medullary pyramids, and pelvis/pelvic diverticula, from the most hyperechoic to the least hyperechoic? Assume that the kidney is normal and the animal is not undergoing physiologic diuresis.
A. cortex > medullary pyramids > pelvis > and diverticula
B. pelvis and diverticula > medullary pyramids > cortex
C. pelvis and diverticula > cortex > medullary pyramids
D. medullary pyramids > pelvis and diverticula > cortex
E. The kidney has a uniform hypoechoic appearance, with differences in echogenicity seen only with pathologic changes.
Ans. C.
The capsule is a bright linear echo when the ultrasound beam is perpendicular to the kidney. The cortex and medulla are both hypoechoic, but the cortex is always more echogenic than the medulla. Echogenicity of the renal cortex should be approximately the same as that of the spleen. The reanl pelvis is hyperechoic unless distended. Diverticula are hyperechoic.
35
Which structure is most likely to produce distal enhancement in an ultrasound image?
```
A. renal cortical mineralization
B. a gas-filled stomach
C. lead buckshot
D. a renal pelvic calculus
E. a hepatic cyst
```
Ans. E.
Because cystic structures are fluid-filled, sound waves penetrate these structures to a greater degree than for soft tissues. This results in more sound waves reaching tissues deep to the cyst. As a result, there is a comparatively greater reflection of sound waves in these deeper structures, producing a brighter image deep to the cyst.
36
```
Which disorder is most likely to produce a generalized increase in liver echogenicity (brightness)?
A. acute hepatitis
B. hepatic lipidosis
C. biliary obstruction
D. hepatic venous congestion
E. multiple hepatic cysts
```
Ans. B.
| Animals with hepatic lipidosis have a generalized increase in hepatic parenchymal echogenicity.
37
Concerning endoscopic examination of a mare's genital tract, which statement is most accurate?
A. The vagina and cervix should be thoroughly flushed with glutaraldehyde solution before endoscope insertion.
B.The diestral cervix is flattened, partially open, and situated near the floor of the cranial vagina.
C. The estrual cervix is closed and situated near the center of the cranial vagina.
D. The endometrium rapidly becomes hyperemic when uterus is insufflated with air.
E. The endometrial folds are highly prominent, hyperemic, and edematous during estrus.
Ans. D.
| Introduction of air into the uterus produces a hyperemic response.
38
Which type of red blood cell morphology is compatible with phenothiazine toxicity in horses?
```
A. target cells
B. Heinz bodies
C. stomatocytosis
D. basophilic stippling
E. nucleated red blood cells
```
Ans. B.
Heinz bodies are clumps of denatured hemoglobin caused by oxidative injury, as with phenithiazine toxicity and onion toxicosis.
39
Which of the ff. best describes the most likely hematologic findings in a dog given corticosteroids 12-24 hours previously?
A. lymphocytosis, neutropenia, monocytosis, eosinopenia
B. lymphopenia, neutropenia, monocytopenia, eosinopenia
C. lymphopenia, mature neutrophilia, monocytosis, eosinophilia
D. lymphopenia, mature neutrophilia, monocytosis, eosinopenia
E. lymphocytosis, mature neutrophilia, monocytosis, eosinopenia
Ans. D.
| Corticosteroid administration produces lymphopenia, mature neutrophilia, monocytosis, and eosinopenia.
40
An exaggerated response to mild anemia, in the form of polychromasia, nucleated erythrocytes, and basophilic stippling, is most often seen in animals with:
```
A. iron toxicity
B. iron deficiency
C. lead poisoning
D. folate deficiency
E. copper deficiency
```
Ans. B.
| Lead poisoning produces these hematologic findings.
41
On an impresion smear made from an ulcerated area on the forelimb of a cat, you find multiple, small (2-4 mm), basophilic-staining organisms whose shape varies from round to oval to fusiform (cigar-shaped), with a thin, clear halo. the most likely cause of the lesion in this cat is:
```
A. leishmaniasis
B. toxoplasmosis
C. sporotrichosis
D. histoplasmosis
E. cytauxzoonosis
```
Ans. C.Many Sporothrix organisms are found in infected cats, but the organisms are difficult to find in infected dogs and horses. Fusiform (cigar) shapes are characteristics of Sporothrix shenckii.
42
Steatitis defines:
A. inflammation of the mammary glands
B. excessive lipid globules in feces, associated with enteritis
C. inflammation of adipose tissue
D. excessive conjugated bilirubin in the serum, associated with hepatitis
E. inflammation of lymph vessels
Ans. C.
| None of the other answers correctly defines steatitis.
43
Which of the ff. is least likely to cause macrocytic anemia?
```
A. erythremic myelosis
B. folic acid deficiency
C. vit. B12 deficiency
D. iron deficiency
E. cobalt deficiency in ruminants
```
Ans. D.
| Iron deficiency causes microcytic hypochromic anemia.
44
Which of the leukocyte predominates in the peripheral blood of a normal weanling pig?
```
A. basophil
B. monocyte
C. neutrophil
D. eosinophil
E. lymphocyte
```
Ans. E.
| Lymphocytes predominate in the blood of weanling pigs.
45
Which hematologic abnormality is associated with long-term bracken-fern ingestion in cattle?
```
A. aplastic anemia
B. myeloid leukemia
C. severe leukopenia
D. eryhtroid leukemia
E. iron-deficiency anemia
```
Ans. A. Bracken-fern poisoning causes aplastic anemia.
46
Which cell type may occasionally be observed in synovial fluid and is diagnostic of systemic lupus erythematosus?
```
A. lupus erythematosus (LE) cells
B. Mott cells
C. giant cell
D. leptocytes
E. siderocytes
```
Ans. A
Mott cells are vacuolated plasma cells. Giant cells are seen with chronic granulomatous disease. Siderocytes are red blood cells containing iron particles. Leptocytes are thin, folded red blood cells.
47
A giant cell is formed by fusion of:
```
A. heterophils
B. neutrophils
C. hepatocytes
D. lymphocytes
E. macrophages
```
Ans. E.
| Giant cells may also be formed by fusion of monocytes or epithelioid cells.
48
In which species are the granules of eosinophils almost exclusively rod-shaped?
```
A. dogs
B. cats
C. cattle
D. sheep
E. horses
```
Ans.B.
Dogs have pleomorphic granules, but they are generally round. Round granules are seen in horses, cattle, and sheep. Horses have prominent granules that fill the cytoplasm.
49
Which of the ff. best describes the mechanism of anemia associated with myelophthistic disease?
A. lack of erythropoietin
B. iron diversion to storage pools
C. infection with such agents as panleukopenia virus
D. dietary deficiencies, such as vitamin B12 and folic acid
E. physical replacement of bone marrow by abnormal proliferation
Ans. E.
In myelophthistic disease, hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow are replaced by abnormal cells, such as fibrous or neoplastic tissue.
50
In horses, neonatal isoerythrolysis is most commonly seen:
A. after parturition in primiparous dams
B. in first-born offspring after ingestion of colostrum
C. during the last half of gestation if the dam is sensitized to the foal's erythrocytes
D. in the dam after breeding if the dam was previously exposed to the stud's erythrocytes
E. in neonatal foals after ingestion of colostrum if the dam has been sensitized to fetal erythrocytes
Ans. E.
| Antibodies in the colostrum cause destruction of the foal's RBC's.
51
Concerning the coagulation cascade in birds, which statement is most accurate?
A. Birds do not have thrombocytes.
B. Birds lack the extrinsic pathway.
C. Birds lack a complete intrinsic pathway.
D. Birds do not have a common pathway.
E. In addition to the intrinsic, extrinsic, and common pathways, birds have another clotting pathway.
Ans. C.
| Birds have an incomplete intrinsic pathway.
52
Which of the ff. is a hematopoietic neoplasm of lymphoid tissue in chickens?
```
A. Marek's disease
B. Johne's disease
C. Tyzzer's disease
D. pullorum disease
E. Newcastle disease
```
Ans. A.
Marek's disease is caused by a DNA herpesvirus and results in lymphoid proliferation in peripheral nerves aand central nervous system inflammation. Johne's disease is an infiltrative disease of the bovine intestine. Newcastle disease is avian pneumoencephalitis. Tyzzer's disease is seen in many animals and is caused by Bacillus piliformis. Pullorum disease is Salmonella pullorum infection in birds.
53
The Coggins test for equine infectious anemia and the single radial immunodiffusion method of immunoglobulin quantitation have in common the requirement that the antigen must be:
```
A. insoluble
B. soluble
C. membrane bound
D. intracellular
E. purified
```
Ans. B.
Both of these are immunodiffusion tests requiring soluble antigen and antibody so as to form insoluble complexes at the equivalence point.
54
A Holstein calf with persistent neutrophilia and lack of pus formation at sites of bacterial infection is most likely afflicted with:
```
A. severe combined immunodefficiency
B. primary agammaglobulinemia
C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
D. bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency
E. cyclic neutropenia
```
Ans. D.
This calf has an inherited trait that makes it unable to make the CD11/CD18 adhesion molecule; thus the leukocytes cannot adhere to the vascular endothelium and cannot undergo diapedesis and move into the tissues.
55
Nonprotein nitrogen is used least efficiently in a:
```
A. high-producing dairy cow
B. low-producing dairy cow
C. pregnant cow
D. gelding on pasture
E. feedlot steer
```
Ans. D.
| Nonprotein nitrogen has little benefit for hindgut fermenters, such as horse.
56
Which cow is most likely to develop milk fever?
A. 2-year-old Jersey fed alfalfa hay before calving
B. 5-year-old Holstein fed timothy hay during the dry period
C. 2-year-old Holstein fed alfalfa hay before calving
D. 5-year-old Holstein fed alfalfa hay during the dry period
E. 3-year-old Jersey fed timothy hay during the dry period
Ans. D.
| Excessive calcium fed during the dry period plays the largest role in development of milk fever in multiparous cows.
57
The effect of an intravenous injection of acetylcholine on blood pressure can be blocked by:
```
A. metoclopramide
B. propranolol
C. d-tubocurare
D. atropine
E. nitroprusside
```
Ans. D.
Intravenous acetylcholine reduces blood pressure through muscarinic receptors on the vascular endothelium. Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist.
58
Which one of the ff. most accurately describes ketamine anesthesia?
A. Ketamine causes rapid induction to stage III of anesthesia.
B. Peripheral reflexes are lost at surgical planes of anesthesia.
C. Ketamine has a wider therapeutic index (LD50/ED50) than barbiturates.
D. Ketamine is a potent visceral analgesic.
E. Ketamine induces potent muscle relaxation.
Ans. C.
The therapeutic index of ketamine is wider in most species than that of barbiturates. It produces a cataleptic anesthetic state in whcih peripheral reflexes are maintained. Ketamine is a poor visceral analgesic.
59
Concerning phenytoin, Which statement is most accurate?
A. It is 100% bioavailable.
B. In dogs, its elimination half-life is longer than that of phenobarbital.
C. It induces hepatic microsomal enzymes.
D. It is metabolized to phenobarbital and phenylethylmalonamide.
E. It is the anticonvulsant drug of choice in cats.
Ans. C.
Phenytoin, like some other anticonvulsants, is a potent inducer of microsomal enzymes. This drug has a very short half-life in dogs, and continued use further shortens its elimination half-life via enzyme induction.
60
Which of the ff. does not increase the risk of renal failure associated with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy?
```
A. hypovolemia
B. vomiting
C. hypotension
D. diuretic therapy
E. oxygen therapy
```
Ans. E.
Answers A through D tend to lower blood volume & result in prerenal azotemia. Volume contraction predisposes animals to ACE inhibitor-induced renal failure.
61
Which antacid increases the risk of gastric rupture?
```
A. aluminum hydroxide
B magnesium hydroxide
C. magnesium sulfate
D. sodium bicarbonate
E. sodium sulfate
```
Ans. D.
Oral sodium bicarbonate results in liberation of CO2, which can result in gastric rupture, particularly at the site of gastric ulceration.
62
Sulfonamides may produce any of the ff. side-effects except:
```
A. hypoprothrombinemia
B keratoconjunctivitis sicca
C. aplastic anemia & thrombocytopenia
D. yellow staining of dental enamel
E. hypthyroidism.
```
Ans. D.
| Tetracyclines, not sulfonamides, are associated with enamel staining.
63
Concernign amphotericin B, which statement is most accurate?
A. Alopecia is the most serious common adverse effect & is self-limiting
B. Nephrotoxicity is the most serious common adverse effect & is predictable & dose related.
C. Nephrotoxicity is the most serious common adverse effect, is not reversible, & is usually fatal.
D. Hepatocellular toxicity is the most serious common adverse effect & is more severe in dogs than in cats.
E. Hepatocellular toxicity is the most seroius common adverse effect & is usually fatal.
Ans. B.
| The major toxicity associated with amphotericin B therapy is dose-dependent nephrotoxicity.
64
Which cellular drug is particularly effective in treating chronic granulocytic leukemia?
```
A. mechlorethamine
B. cyclophosphamide
C. melphalan.
D. busulfan
E. carmustine
```
Ans. D.
| Busulfan is particularly effective for chronic granulocytic leukemia but is not effective in acute leukemia.
65
Excretion of drugs by the kidneys is:
A. unaffected by variation in renal blood flow
B. generally more rapid if the drug is not extensively protein bound
C. more rapid with drugs that are actively secreted by tubular cells.
D. always increased by administration of diuretics
E. a minor pathway for elimination of drugs
Ans. C.
| Such drugs have a large renal clearance limited primarily by renal blood flow.
66
An anticoagulant that is suitable for systemic administration is:
```
A. calcium EDTA
B. dicumarol
C. sodium fluoride
D. thromboplastin
E. sodium oxalate
```
Ans. B.
| Dicumarol is a vitamin K antagonist within the liver. The other compounds listed are unsuitable for such use.
67
Heartworm disease can be prevented in dogs living in enzootic areas by administering, at monthly intervals, the larvicidal drug:
```
A. dithiazamine
B. ivermectin
C. thiacetarsamide
D. diethylcarbamazine
E. levamisole
```
Ans. B.
| Ivermectin is approved in the US for prevention of heartworm infections in dogs.
68
Aminophylline, prednisone, & terbutaline are used in combination to treat:
A. infections with gram-positive bacteria
B. intestinal malabsorption
C. squamous-cell carcinoma
D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E. diabetes insipidus
Ans. D.
Aminophylline ( a bronchodilator), prednisone (an antiinflammatory glucocorticoid), & terbutaline (a selective b2-adrenergic agonist) can be given in combination to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
69
Which of the ff. describes minimal exposure time & temperature for autoclaving a surgical pack?
A. 121 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes
B. 121 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 minutes
C. 250 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 minutes
D. 250 degrees Celsius for 20 minutes
E. 250 degrees Fahrenheit for 20 minutes
Ans. A.
The minimal standard for sterilization of surgical instruments in an autoclave is 121 degrees Celsius (250 degrees Fahrenheit) for at least 15 minutes.
70
Which incision is most appropriate for exploratory surgery in a dog's abdomen, in which the precise location of the problem is not known?
```
A. dorsal midline
B. flank
C. paracostal
D. paramedian
E. ventral midline
```
Ans. E.
| The ventral midline approach to the abdomen gives the most extensive access to the abdominal cavity.
71
Which of the ff., when used alone as a surgical scrub soap, forms a bacteriostatic film over the skin?
```
A. chlorhexidine
B. chlorpheniramine
C. hexadimethrine
D. hexachlorophene
E. povidone-iodine
```
Ans. D.
Hexachlorophene forms a bacteriostatic film on the skin if used exclusively to wash the hands & arms. Other soaps remove the protective film
72
What is the usual significance of a small seroma deep to (beneath) the skin suture line after aseptic surgery?
```
A. acute emergency
B. cosmetic problem only
C. minor significance
D. no significance
E. serious but not an acute emergency
```
Ans. B.
Unless they are very large or ruptured, postoperative seromas are unsighty but of little other importance to the animal's health.
73
With which type of abdominal incision can the abdominal wall be most effectively closed using a single layer of sutures?
```
A. high flank
B. low flank
C. paracostal
D. paramedian
E ventral midline
```
Ans. E.
The linea alba, on the ventral midline of the abdominal muscle wall, is the tendinous attachment of the ventral abdominal muscles. One layer of sutures in this area effectively closes the whole thickness of the abdominal wall, after which the skin is closed.
74
In the second-intention healing, which of the ff. must be present before wound contraction or epithelial regeneration can occur?
```
A. collagen fibers
B. exudative tissue
C. fibrin clot
D. granulation tissue
E. scar tissue
```
Ans. D.
After dead & damaged tissue has been removed from a wound by inflammation, a bed of granulation tissue, consisting primarily of collagen fibers & capillaries, must form on the floor of the wound so that the processes that reduce the size of the wound can begin.
75
A normal stud dog of which breed produces an ejaculate containing the greatest number of sperm?
```
A. miniature schnauzer
B. German shepherd
C. basenji
D. great Dane
E. Sperm numbers are about the same in all these breeds.
```
Ans. D.
Sperm numbers per ejaculate are a functiuon of testicular size, which is a function of body size. Thus, big dogs produce more sperm than little dogs.
76
Estrogenic hormones are frequently used in treatment of mismating in the bitch. Concerning such treatment, which statement is least accurate?
A. Bitches under 4 years of age are less likely to suffer bone marrow toxicity.
B. This treatment increases the incidence of uterine infection by about 30%.
C. Treated bitches remain in heat longer than normal.
D. The treatment causes no adverse side effects.
E. The success rate is directly related to the time between mismating & onset of therapy.
Ans. D.
Although not totally immune to the serious side effects of estrogen, young bitches are more tolerant. Answers B, C, & E are true & should be made known to the owner when assessing the risk/benefit ratio before therapy is begun.
77
Radiography may help determine the viability of late-term fetuses. Which of the ff. is not a radiographic sign of fetal death?
A. intrauterine gas
B. absence of molar teeth in the fetal jaws
C. malalignment of cranial bones, with overlap
D. fetal subcutaneous gas
E. hyperextension of the fetal bodies
Ans. B.
| Absence of molar teeth is a function of fetal age. The other choices listed are signs of fetal death.
78
You spay a 6-month-old mixed-breed bitch, & 4 1/2 years later the angry owner presents the dog for examination. The owner insists the dog had a heat cycle about 1 month previously & may have had another heat during the past year. Assuming the owner is correct, which statement is most accurate?
A. The patient is likely to have an elevated serum estradiol level.
B. The patient is likely to have an elevated serum progesterone level.
C. The patient is likely to have hyperadrenocorticism.
D. Vaginal cytologic examination is likely to show a preponderance of superficial cells.
E. Ultrasonography is likely to reveal a cystic ovary.
Ans. B.
The only reliable indicator of a functional ovarian remnant is an elevated serum progesterone level. It is too late for an elevated serum estradiol level. Spayed bitches with hyperadrenocorticism do not cycle. Answer D would not be present. Parabasal cells would predominate. Ultrasonography is totally unreliable in this circumstance.
79
What is the least developed accessory sex gland of bulls?
```
A. prostate gland
B. bulbourethral gland
C. seminal vesicular gland
D. ampulla
E. body of the epididymis
```
Ans.A.
| The prostate gland of bulls is poorly developed.
80
Postcoital pyometra is virtually pathognomonic sign of infection with:
```
A. E. coli
B. Actinomyces pyogenes
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Campylobacter fetus var. fetus
E. Tritrichomonas fetus
```
Ans. E.
| Pyometra is almost always seen postpartum, except when caused by venereal transmission of trichomoniasis.
81
Aggressive rectal palpation can result in abortion by:
A. causing one or more placentomes to hemorrhage
B. slipping the chorioallantoic membrane
C. damaging the amniotic vesicle
D. traumatizing the young fetus
E. triggering regression of the corpus luteum
Ans. C.
| The delicate vascular attachments of the amniotic vesicle are vulnerable to damage during palpation.
82
A cow with uterus unicornis:
```
A. is sterile
B. has long periods of anestrus
C. also has only one ovary
D. has an insufficient number of caruncles to sustain a pregnancy
E. is likely to develop hydrallantois
```
Ans. B.
The unaccompanied corpus luteum persists for long periods through lack of luteolytic signal because there is no adjacent uterine horn.
83
Multiple ovulation in mares:
A. are extremely rare
B. occur in about 75% of all mares and are generally dual ovulations
C. are generally triple ovulations ocurring 1 day apart
D. are generally triple ovulations occuring 1-2 hours
E. occur in about 20% of mares and are generally dual ovulations
Ans. E.
Approximately 20% of all mares have multiple ovulations, most of which are double ovulations within 24 hours of each other.
84
To induce luteolysis in a mare, the best method is to administer:
A. prostaglandin at least 5 days after the end of estrus
B. prostaglandin 1-4 days after the end of estrus
C. human chorionic gonadotropin 1-4 days after end of estrus
E. altrenogest at least 5 days after the end of estrus
Ans. A.
| Prostaglandin is luteolytic only when a mature corpus luteum exists, which is 5 days after the end of estrus
85
The regimen for inducing parturition in sows involves use of:
A. 20 mg of dexamethasone on day 112 of gestation; parturition occurs in 2 days
B. 20 mg of dexamethasone on day 112, followed by 20 IU of oxytocin on day 113; parturition occurs in 24 hours
C. 10 mg of prostaglandin F2 alpha on day 112, followed by 5 IU of oxytocin 24 hours later, parturition begins 24-30 hours after prostaglandin injection
D. 20 mg of estradiol cypionate on day 112, followed by 20 IU of oxytocin on day 113; parturition occurs on day 114
E. a combination of equine chorionic gonadotropin (pregnant mare serum gonadotropin) and human chorionic gonadotropin on day 113 of gestation; parturition occurs 24 hours later
Ans.C.
| None of the other regimens works well in sows.
86
Lordosis in swine is characterized by:
A. rolling, high-pitched squealing, and frequent defecation
B. frequent urination, squatting, and polydipsia
C. erect hair, frequent rubbing, and rooting
D. swelling and reddening of the vulva, immobile stance, arched back, and erect ears
E. a cool nose, straight tail, and frequent sweating
Ans. D.
| This is the only answer that accurately describes lordosis in swine.
87
Pregnancy is signated by maternal recognition of fetal:
```
A. prostaglandin
B. estrogen
C. progesterone
D. testosterone
E. adrenocorticoids
```
Ans. B.
| Estrogens produced by the fetuses themselves around day 12 after mating signal the sow that pregnancy has occurred.
88
Arthrogyrosis and hydranencephaly in fetal lambs are caused by:
```
A. toxoplasmosis
B. brucellosis
C. Akabane virus disease
D. border disease
E.enzootic abortion of ewes
```
Ans. C.
| Arthrogyrosis and hydranencephaly are caused by Akabane virus disease.
89
Artificial insemination in the doe is commonly performed by:
A. transcervical insemination using a vaginal speculum
B. transcervical insemination via rectal manipulation
C. transabdominal insemination via a laparoscope
D. cranial vaginal deposition of semen
E. transabdominal insemination using a syringe and 4-inch needle
Ans. A.
Artificail insemination has successfully been performed in goats for years via transcervical insemination using a vaginal speculum to locate and stabilize the cervix.
90
Concerning urolithiasis (urinary calculi) in male goats, which statement is least accurate?
A. It is an important problem in Pygmy goat wethers.
B. Management factors associated with the condition are prepubertal castration, high-concentrate diets, and insufficient water intake during very cold weather.
C. Common sites of obstruction are the base of the urethral process and the distal bend of the sigmoid flexure.
D. Catheterization of the urinary bladder is an important part of therapy.
E. Ultrasonography may be used to confirm the presence of bladder lesions and calculi in the urethra.
Ans. D.
Catheterization of the buck's bladder is very difficult or impossible because of a diverticulum in the dorsum of the urethra at the level of the ischial arch.
91
The testes have all the ff. functions except:
A. production of male gametes
B. secretion of steroid hormones that control development
C. secretion of steroid hormones the control function of accessory sex organs
D. secretion of steroid hormones that suppress song behavior
E. secretion of steroid hormones that influence secondary sex characteristics
Ans. D.
| The testes secrete testosterone, which increases the size of the brain nuclei associated with song behavior.
92
In male birds, which cells secrete testosterone?
```
A. b cells of the islets of Langerhans
B. Sertoli cells
C. chromaffin cells
D. argentaffin cells
E. Leydig cells
```
Ans. E.
| Interstitial glandular Leydig cells are the testicular source of testosterone.
93
A hermaphrodite:
A. is sexually attracted to members of the same sex
B. is sexually attracted to members of the opposite sex
C. has only one type of gonad, either ovaries or testicles
D. has both testicular and ovarian tissue
E. lacks gonadal tissue altogether
Ans. D.
| Hermaphrodites have both testicular and ovarian tissue.
94
Chronic diarrhea, achromotrichia, emaciation, and lameness in cattle suggests toxicosis involving:
```
A. arsenic
B. lead
C. mercury
D. molybdenum
E. selenium
```
Ans. D.
| Molybdenum promotes copper excretion, resulting in copper deficiency.
95
Which category of the insecticidal compounds presents a problem of persistent residues in fatty tissues of animals?
```
A. carbamates
B. organochlorines
C. organophosphates
D. pyrethrins
E. juvenile hormones
```
Ans. B.
| Chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticides are highly lipophilic.
96
Concerning the estrous cycle of queens, which statement is most accurate?
A. Queens have one estrous cycle every season.
B. Cervical stimulation causes estrogen release from the pituitary gland.
C. The breeding season starts as peiods of daylight begin to shorten.
D. The amount of LH release depends on the day of the estrous cycle and the number of matings.
E. After estrus, unmated queens have a 10-day disestrus period.
Ans. D.
| Multiple matings at peak follicular activity (e.g., day 2 of estrus) may be needed to stimulate LH release.
97
Which signs are most indicative of estrus in queens?
A. frequent urination and a bloody vulvar discharge
B. increased affection, rolling, and calling
C. switching of the tail and a clear, mucous vulvar discharge
D. vulvar hyperemia and a raised tail head
E. mounting other female cats and restlessness
Ans. B.
| These signs can be so extreme as to have a novice cat owner think that the cat is having convulsions.
98
A drug with a similar mechanism of action to guaifenesin is:
```
A. diazepam
B. glucopyrrolate
C. butorphanol
D. atracurium
E. succinylcholine
```
Ans. A.
| Diazepam is a centrally acting muscle relaxant.
99
Morphine, oxymorphone, and fentanyl produce analgesia and somnolence primarily by their action on:
```
A. alpha-2 adrenergic receptors
B. k-opiate receptors
C. m-opiate receptors
D. internuncial neurons in the spinal cord
E. s-opiate receptors
```
Ans. C.
| Pure opioid agonists exert their effects via agonism of m-opiate receptors
100
As an analgesic, butorphanol:
A. has a longer duration of action than morphine
B. is completely antagonized by naloxone
C. does not depress respiration as much as pure m-opioid agonists (e.g., morphine)
D. is subject to the limitations of the Harrison Narcotic Act
E. provides better visceral analgesia in dogs than does oxymorphone
Ans. C.
| Butorphanol is a mixed (k) agonist and (m) antagonist and so is associated with less respiratory depression.
101
Dogs are given neuroleptanalgesic combinations to achieve profound sedation and analgesia. An example of this combination is:
```
A. atropine and acepromazine
B. droperidol and glycopyrrolate
C. oxymorphone and thiopental
D. butorphanol and ketamine
E. fentanyl and acepromazine
```
Ans. E.
A neuroleptanalgesic combination usually consists of a sedative/tranquilizer (e.g., acepromazine) and an opioid analgesic (e.g., fentanyl).
102
Epidural local anesthesia may cause any of the ff. except:
```
A. CNS depression and seizures
B. hypotension
C. respiratory muscle paralysis
D. local tissue inflammation
E. analgesia of 12 hours' duration
```
Ans. E.
Local anesthetic analgesia persists approximately as long as muscle paralysis/relaxation. The longest duration of effect is from bupivacaine, which lasts 4-6 hours.
103
Which inhalation anesthetic agent is most likely to induce cardiac arrhythmias in the presence of elevated blood levels of cathecolamines?
```
A. isoflurane
B. nitrous oxide
C. methoxyflurane
D. halothane
E. desflurane
```
Ans. D.
In decreasing order of the likelihood of arrhythmogenesis: halothane > methoxyflurane > isoflurane, desflurane, and nitrous oxide.
104
You anesthetize a healthy dog with halothane. During anesthesia the dog develops a ventricular arrhythmia. The most appropriate course of action is to:
A. increase the anesthetic depth
B. attempt defibrillation
C. infuse lidocaine intravenously at 20-40 mg/kg/min
D. increase the flow of oxygen
E. institute intermittent positive-pressure ventilation
Ans. A.
Painful stimulation of lightly anesthetized patients causes catecholamine release, which can lead to ventricular arrhythmias in halothane-anesthetized patients. Increasing the anesthetic depth can eliminate these arrhythmias
105
Which of the ff. values is leats likely to change when the depth of anesthesia is changed?
A. blood pressure
B. expired concentration of carbon dioxide
C. jaw muscle tone
D. oxygen saturation of lingual tissues (pulse oximetry)
E. minute ventilation
Ans. D.
Tissue oxygen saturation (SaO2, measured with pulse oximetry) will not change perceptibly unless there is a marked change in tissue perfusion or hemoglobin saturation with oxygen. Neither will change enough within the range of clinical anesthetic levels to change SaO2, especially if the animal is breathing a high inspired concentration of oxygen.
106
Arterial blood pressure:
A. reflects only the amount of vasoconstriction present
B. may appear spuriously high if an overly wide cuff is used for indirect measurement
C. is more accurately measured using the Doppler indirect method than using an arterial catheter and pressure transducer
D. depends on cardiac output, total peripheral resistance, and circulating blood volume
E. indicates the adequacy of tissue perfusion
Ans. D.
| Arterial pressure = Cardiac output X Peripheral resistance. Cardiac output = Heart rate X Stroke volume.
107
The effect of increased arterial carbon dioxide levels in an otherwise normal anesthetized animal is:
```
A. a decrease in respiratory rate
B. a decrease in respiratory depth
C. a sudden decrease in blood pressure
D. a sudden decrease in heart rate
E. injected mucous membranes
```
Ans. E.
Increased arterial carbon dioxide levels increase the depth and usually the rate of ventilation; increase heart rate, cardiac output, and blood pressure; and cause injection of the mucous membranes.
108
Carbon dioxide acts on the heart by causing:
```
A. decreased cardiac output
B. increased cardiac output
C. decreased ventricular filling in diastole
D. increased venous return
E. decreased afterload
```
Ans. B.
Carbon dioxide causes cardiac epinephrine to be released from the sympathetic nerve endings, resulting in increased cardiac output.
109
Which of the ff. is not an agonist:antagonist pair?
```
A. morphine and naloxone
B. butorphanol and yohimbine
C. detomidine and tolazoline
D. medetomidine and atipamezole
E. diazepam and flumazenil
```
Ans. B.
Butorphanol is opioid agonist; yohimbine is an alpha-2 antagonist. Yohimbine does not antagonize the effects of butorphanol.
110
An 8-year-old dog has a fever, weight loss, and oculonasal discharge. Vaccinations are current (given 6 months ago). The WBC count is 20,000/mL, with 50% lymphocytes that are morphologically normal. The platelet count is decreased, and plasma globulin levels are increased. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
```
A. ehrlichiosis
B. trypanosomiasis
C. physiologic lymphocytosis
D. acute lymphoblastic leukemia
E. postvaccinational lymphocytosis
```
Ans. A.
| Ehrlichiosis can be associated with benign lymphocytosis and monoclonal or polyclonal gammopathy.
111
What type of effusion is most likely to be observed in a cat with FIP?
```
A. transudate
B. septic exudate
C. nonseptic exudate
D. modified transudate
E. hemorrhagic effusion
```
Ans. C.
FIP is associated with moderately cellular effusion, often of mixed cell type and with a high protein level. On smears the background has a characteristic eosiniphilic stippled appearance.
112
Recommendations for submission of fecal samples for culture include all of the ff. except use of:
```
A. swabs
B. fresh feces
C. 5-10 g of feces
D. sterile container
E. air-tight containers
```
Ans. A.
Insufficient sample is the most common error associated with submission of fecal samples. Fastidious microaerophilic or anaerobic organisms cannot usually be recovered from swabs.
113
What artifactual change in the complete blood count is most likely to occur if the blood sample is collected from an excited or agitated patient?
```
A. leukocytosis
B. decreased hematocrit
C. platelet aggregation
D. left shift
E. leucopenia
```
Ans. A.
Physiologic leukocytosis occurs when marginated granulocytes enter the general circulation as a result of excitement or stress.
114
Which cell type is least likely to be found on a peripheral blood smear from a dog with autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
```
A. reticulocyte
B. spherocyte
C. target cell
D. erythrocyte
E. metamyelocyte
```
Ans. E.
| The metamyelocyte is a granulocyte precursor. The other cells are all of the erythrocyte series.
115
You test a 2-year-old clinically normal cat from a single-cat household for feline leukemia virus infection with an ELISA kit designed for in-office use. The test is positive. What is the most appropriate advice for the cat's owner?
A. Isolate the cat & repeat the test in 1-2 mos.
B. Euthanize the cat before it develops full-blown infection.
C. The result was probably in accurate.
D. Isolate the cat but do not bother to retest because the second test will probably be positive.
E. Do not breed this cat.
Ans. A.
| Many of these animals are transiently infected and seroconvert in time.
116
A dog is polydipsic, and you suspect renal disease. You perform a urinalysis and find the specific gravity is 1.010. You conclude that this animal's urine specific gravity:
A. is within normal limits for dogs
B indicates isosthenuria
C. has been affected by consumption of water
D. indicates the patient's kidneys retained their ability to dilute urine
E. is insufficient to determine the concentrating ability of the kidneys without additional tests
Ans. E.
Additional tests suggested include BUN or serum creatinine assay, repeat urine specific gravity testing, and a water deprivation test, if clinically advised.
117
In a horse with suspected exertional myopathy, the red-brown urine is positive for occult blood and protein using a dipstick test. Which additional piece of information supports the diagnosis of myoglobinuria and not hemoglobinuria?
A. A clear supernatant occurs when ammonium sulfate is added to the urine.
B. There is an increase in serum sorbitol dehydogenase activity.
C. There is an increase in serum creatinine kinase activity.
D. Horses do not exhibit hemoglobinuria.
E. The plasma appears pink.
Ans.C.
Myoglobinuria is best diagnosed when there is clinical or laboratory evidence of the muscle damage, as indicated by an increase in serum creatinine kinase activity.
118
Proteinuria may be found in animals with:
```
A. a fever
B. diabetes insipidus
C. a portosystemic shunt
D. hyperadrenocorticism
E. hypothyroidism
```
Ans. A.
| Transitory, mild proteinuria may be related to extrarenal factors that can affect glomerular permeability.
119
Which test is useful in dectecting renal tubular dysfunction?
```
A. BUN assay
B. urine protein/creatinine ratio
C. creatinine clearance
C. fractional albumin clearance
E. fractional sodium clearance
```
Ans. E.
| Fractional electrolyte excretion detects increased or decreased resorption by the renal tubules.
120
The ova of which parasite have a flattened operculum at one end?
```
A. Eimeria
B. Paragonimus kellicotti
C. Trichuris vulpis
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
E. Giardia
```
Ans. B.
| The ova of the lung fluke, Paragonimus kellicotti, have a characteristic flattened operculum at one end.
121
Concerning examination of skin scrapings for mites, which statement is least accurate?
A. A #10 scalpel blade may be used for skin scrapings.
B. Mineral oil may be placed on the lesion to aid recovery of parasites.
C. When looking for Demodex mites, the skin should be firmly pinched to help express the mites from hair follicles.
D. Crapings for Sarcoptes must be made deep into the dermis because the parasites reside within hair follicles.
E. The slide is examined under low power (10x).
Ans. D.
| Sarcoptes mites are found in the superficial hyperkeratotic portions of the epidermis.
122
Pneumothorax may cause any of the ff. radiographic signs except:
A. a widened, radiolucent pleural space
B. partial collapse of lung lobes
C. absence of vascular and interstitial markings outside the lung lobes
D. apparent elevation of the heart off the sternum on lateral views
E. visible, opaque fissure lines
Ans. E.
| Visible opaque fissure lines are a sign of pleural effusion.
123
123. All of the ff. are consistent with left heart enlargement except:
A. an elongated, straight caudal border (lateral view)
B. elevation of the entire trachea, including the main-stem bronchi (lateral view)
C. decreased distance between the left ventricle and left thoracic wall (ventrodorsal view)
D. "reversed-D" appearance on ventrodorsal view
E. bulge of the left auricle at the 2-3 o'clock position on ventrodorsal view
Ans. D.
| A "revresed-D" appearance is typical of right heart enlargement
124
What is the most common site of osteochondrosis in dogs?
```
A. distal medial humeral condyle
B. lateral femoral condyle
C. medial trochlear ridge of the talus
D. caudal humeral head
E. lateral femoral condyle
```
Ans. D.
| Osteochondrosis most commonly affects the caudal aspect of the humeral head.
125
After processing a radiograph, you note multiple, branching, black lines extending across the film. What is the most likely cause of this radiographic artifact?
```
A. light leaking into the darkroom
B. static electricity
C. poor screen-film contact
D. overexposure
E. overly warm developer solution
```
Ans. B.
| Static electricity causes such branching effects.
126
You are presented with a 6-month-old Irish setter with bilateral forelimb lameness persisiting for 1 month. You note swelling of the carpal and tarsal joints. On taking a radiograph of the carpus, you note a region of decreased opacity in the metaphysis of the radius and ulna and regions of soft tissue calcification circumferentially around the radial and ulnar metaphyses. The most likely cause of these findings is:
```
A. scurvy
B. panosteitis
C. osteosarcoma
D. hypertrophic osteodystrophy
E. blastomycosis
```
Ans. D.
| No other option produces these radiographic signs.
127
The hallmark radiographic sign of diskospondylitis is:
```
A. spondylosis
B. osteophyte formation
C. vertebral body end-plate lysis
D. narrowed intervertebral disk space
E. subluxation of the vertebral column
```
Ans. C.
| The other options are much less specific.
128
You take a radiograph of the thorax of a 10-year-old dog with a 6-week history of dyspnea and weight loss. The cardiac silhouette is greatly enlarged and has a spheric shape. What is the least likely cause of this radiographic appearance of the heart?
```
A. pericardial-peritoneal diaphramatic hernia
B. pericarditis
C. heart-base tumor
D. heartworm disease
E. pericardial tumor
```
Ans. D.
| There is no obvious reason why heartworm disease would produce a heart with the shape described.
129
A 6-year-old male German sheperd, hit by a car 1 hour previously, has hematuria. Abdominal radiographs show a loss of serosal margin detail and no visible urinary bladder. No fluid is obtained on abdominocentesis. The most appropriate course of actio is to:
A. tell the owner the bladder is ruptured and explore the abdomen surgically
B. tell the owner the bladder has not been ruptured because the dog is urinating and no fluid was obtained on abdominocentesis
C. perform excretory urography to assess the bladder
D. perform positive-contrast cystography to assess the bladder
E. perform negative-contrast cystography to assess the bladder
Ans. D.
| This is the most accurate method of assessing bladder integrity.
130
Concerning acoustic impedance as related to ultrasonography, which statement is most accurate?
A. Ultrasound is reflected when there is an acoustic impedance difference between two adjacent structures.
B. The acoustic impedance of a tissue can be altered by changing depth (time) gain compensation.
C. Structure with a high acoustic impedance reflect ultrasound and are anechoic.
D. Acoustic impedance describes the intensity of ultrasound.
E. Acoustic impedance describes the frequency and wavelength of ultrasound produced by an ultrasound transducer.
Ans. A.
Acoustic impedance of a tissue can be calculated from the density of the tissue and the propagation speed of sound in the tissue. Sound is reflected from an interface between two tissues with different acoustic impedances. The intensity (viewed as brightness) of sound reflected depends on the angle of the ultrasound beam and the difference in acoustic impedance.
131
Which structure is most likely to produce a shadowing artifact in an ultrasound image?
```
A. a urinary bladder calculus
B. a renal/splenic interface that is not perpendicular to the ultrasound beam
C. a complex splenic mass
D. a bile-distended gall bladder
E. a fluid-distended small intestine
```
Ans. A.
A urinary bladder calculus would be most likely to produce a shadowing artifact because of reflection of almost all ultrasound waves by the calculus. Because very few waves penetrate deep to the calculus, virtually no signal is generated in this region and an anechoic shadow is produced.
132
Which disorder often produces a marked increase in renal cortical echogenicity (brightness)?
```
A. renal lymphoma
B. acute leptospirosis
C. polycystic renal disease
D. chronic obstructive hydronephrosis
E. acute ethylene glycol toxicity
```
Ans. E.
Animals with acute ethylene glycol intoxication have a marked increase in renal cortical echogenecity. The change in echogenicity is probably the result of accumulation of calcium oxalate crystals in renal tubules.
133
Concerning prepubic percutaneous cystoscopy using a rigid arthroscope in small animals, which statement is most accurate?
A. Xylazine sedation is sufficient for restraint and analgesia.
B. An incision must be made with a scalpel through the skin and abdominal wall.
C. Penetration of the opposite (dorsal) bladder wall warrants immediate laparotomy to suture the bladder wall.
D. An indwelling urethral catheter is left in place for 48-72 hours after the procedure.
E. A small bladder with a very thick wall is ideal for the procedure.
Ans. D.
| The bladder must be kept undistended to allow the puncture sites to heal.
134
Which anticoagulant does not act by binding calcium?
```
A. heparin
B. sodium EDTA
C. sodium citrate
D. potassium EDTA
E. potassium oxalate
```
Ans. A.
Heparin serves as an anticoagulant by accelerating the activity of antithrombin III. The other anticoagulants listed chelate or bind calcium.
135
In horses, which of the following is the best indicator of a bone marrow response to anemia?
A. polychromasia
B. increased reticulocyte count
C. improved mucous membrane color
D. increased packed cell volume on serial determinations
E. increased nucleated red blood cell count
Ans. D.
Horses do not release immature red cells from the bone marrow. Therefore polychromasia and reticulocytes are not seen, nor are nucleated red blood cells seen. Mucous membrane color is a poor method of determining the response to anemia.
136
Von Willebrand's disease is most common in:
```
A. boxers
B. Irish setters
C. Labrador retrievers
D. Doberman pinschers
E. German short-haired pointers
```
Ans. D.
| The disorder is most common in Dobermans.
137
Which organism commonly affects the central nervous system and might be found on cytologic evaluation of cerebrospinal fluid?
```
A. Sporothrix schenckii
B. Coccidioides immitis
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
E. Cryptococcus neoformans
```
Ans. E.
| Of the organisms listed, only Cryptococcus is likely to be found in CSF.
138
Heinz bodies are most likely to be detected on a smear of blood from healthy:
```
A. pigs
B. cats
C. dogs
D. cattle
E. horses
```
Ans. B.
| Heinz bodies are most common in feline blood.
139
Avian thrombocytes differ from mammalian thrombocytes in that avian thrombocytes:
```
A. are phagocytic
B. are nucleated cells
C. have no role in hemostasis
D. can transport oxygen
E. play a major role in immune responses
```
Ans. B.
| Avian thrombocytes are nucleated cells.
140
Which of the ff. is not a hereditary coagulopathy?
```
A. Pelger-Huet anomaly
B. factor X deficiency
C. von Willebrand's disease
D. hemophilia A (factor VII) deficiency
E. hemophilia B (factor IX) deficiency
```
Ans. A.
| Pelger-Huet anomaly is and inherited disorder associated with abnormal neutrophil segmentation.
141
In a blood smear from a markedly anemic cat, you find large numbers of nucleated red blood cells in the absence of polychromasia and reticulocytosis. The most likely cause of this finding is:
```
A. lead poisoning
B. erythremic myelosis
C. Pelger-Huet anomaly
D. lymphoblastic leukemia
E. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
```
Ans. B.
Lead poisoning occurs in cats but has been reported only rarely and causes no anemia or only mild anemia. In addition, polychromasia would be expected. Erythremic myelosis is reported in cats, and blood smears typically show large number of nucleated RBC's.
142
In which type of leukocyte is "toxic change" most commonly seen?
```
A. basophils
B. eosinophils
C. monocytes
D. neutrophils
E. lymphocytes
```
Ans. D.
Other leukocytes rarely show toxic changes. The most common toxic changes are cytoplasmic vacuolization, cytoplasmic basophilia, toxic granulation, Dohle bodies.
143
Which of the ff. best describes anisocytosis of erythrocytes?
```
A. folded in half
B, variable sizes
C. variable shapes
D. organized like a stack of coins
E. smaller than normal, with no central pallor
```
Ans. B.
Spherocytes are smaller than normal cells and contain no central pallor. Poikilocytosis are of variable shape. Rouleaux refer to stacking of red blood cells. Stomatocytes are folded red blood cells.
144
Which cell type comprises the lining of the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces?
```
A. Kupffer cell
B. epithelial cell
C. endothelial cell
D. mesothelial cell
E. reticuloendothelial cell
```
Ans. D.
| These body cavities are lined with mesothelial cells.
145
What is the correct sequence of maturation in the red bloo cell line, from least mature to most mature?
A. reticulocyte, rubriblast, metarubricyte, prorubricyte, rubricyte, erythrocyte
B. rubriblast, metarubricyte, prorubricyte, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte
C. rubriblast, prorubricyte, rubricyte, metarubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte
D. rubriblast, rubricyte, metarubricyte, prorubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte
E. prorubricyte, metarubricyte, rubricyte, rubriblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte
Ans. C.
| None of the other answers correctly cites the sequence of erythroid cell maturation.
146
All the ff. coagulation factors are produced in the liver except:
```
A. factor X
B. factor IX
C. factor VII
D. fibrinogen
E. von Willebrand factor
```
Ans. E.
| Von Willebrand factor is produced by endothelial cells.
147
Which of the ff. does not cause peripheral blood lymphopenia?
```
A. viral infections
B. Johne's disease
C. epinephrine response
D. ruptured thoracic duct
E. immunosuppressive therapy
```
Ans. C.
| All the other disorders cause lymphopenia.
148
Which of the ff. is a hematologic disorder seen in intact female ferrets with repeated anovulatory cycles?
```
A. aplastic anemia
B. erythroleukemia
C. lyphoid leukemia
D. granulocytic leukemia
E. immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
```
Ans. A.
| Persistently high estrogen levels produce aplastic anemia.
149
B. lymphocytes are predominantly found in which region of lymph nodes?
```
A. cortex
B. medulla
C. paracortex
D. white pulp
E. red pulp
```
Ans. A.
| Germinal centers that produce B lymphocytes are located in the cortex of lymph nodes.
150
Bence-Jones proteins in urine comprise:
```
A. immunoglobulin heavy chains
B. immunoglobulin light chains
C. immunoglobulin J chains
D. secretory components
E. Fab immunoglobulin fragments
```
Ans. B.
| Bence-Jones proteins are light chains.
151
Gross energy minus enrgy lost in feces, urine, and gaseous products of digestion is equal to:
```
A. digestible energy
B. metabolizable energy
C. net energy
D. available energy
E. gross energy
```
Ans. B.
| Gross energy - Fecal energy = Digestible energy. Gross energy - Fecal/urinary/gas energy = Metabolizable energy.
152
What is a primary metabolite of halothane, and how is the toxic effect of this metabolite manifested?
```
A. bromine; lethargy and ataxia
B. bromine; renal damage
C. chlorine; metabolic alkalosis
D. fluorine; hepatic damage
E. fluorine; renal damage
```
Ans. A.
The bond for fluorine is much stronger than for bromine or chlorine; thus little fluorine is released, as with methoxyflurane.
153
Concerning ketamine, which statement is least accurate?
A. Ketamine is derived from phencyclidine.
B. Ketamine is a GABA agonist and glutamate receptor antagonist.
C. Ketamine stimulates the cardiovascular system through a sympathomimetic effect.
D. Ketamine increases cardiac output.
E. Ketamine is excreted in the bile; therefore poor renal function does not preclude its use.
Ans. E.
Ketamine is highly metabolized in the liver and excreted in the urine. Its use is contraindicated in animals with hepatic or renal disease.
154
In which situation is digitalis contraindicated?
A. congestive heart failure
B. first- or second-degree atrioventricular block
C. atrial fibrillation and atrial buffer
D. supraventricular tachycardia
E. concurrent use with diuretics
Ans. B.
Because cardiac glycosides decrease atrioventricular conduction, they are contraindicated in first- or second-degree atrioventricular block.
155
What is the mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics?
A. competitive inhibition of ADH receptors
B. decreased sodium and chloride resorption in the distal tubule
C. competitive inhibition of aldosterone receptors
D. inhibition of chloride transport in the thick ascending loop of Henle
E. increased potassium secretion in the collecting duct
Ans. B.
Thiazide diuretics are secreted into the proximal tubule by an organic acid transport system, where they inhibit both sodium and chloride resorption in the distal tubule.
156
Effects of metoclopramide include all the ff. except:
A. increased lower esophageal sphincter tone
B. increased force of gastric contraction
C. dopamine receptor antagonism
D. increased colonic motility
E. peripheral antiemetic action
Ans. D.
| Metoclopramide is not associated with altered colonic motility.
157
Sulfonamides are structural analogs of:
```
A. tetrahydrofolate reductase
B. folic acid reductase
C. para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
D. pteridine
E. glutamic acid
```
Ans. C.
| Sulfonamides are structural analogs of PABA and prevent conversion of PABA to dihydrofolate.
158
Which drug should not be placed in an automatic, powered syringe for injection because of the risk of cardiovascular toxicity from accidental self-injection?
```
A. tylosin
B. eryhtromycin
C. lincomycin
D. tilmicosin
E. clindamycin
```
Ans. D.
| Cardiovascular toxicity has been observed in primates, swine, and horses
159
What is the antimicrobial mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?
A. binding to the bacterial 50-S ribosomal subunit and inhibition of peptidyltransferase activity
B. reversible binding to the bacterial 50-S ribosomal subunit and inhibition of ribosomal translocation
C. binding to the bacterial 30-S subunit, resulting in the interference with aminocyl tRNA binding to the acceptor (A) site
D. irreversible binding to the bacterial 30-S and possibly 50-S subunit, resulting in abnormal codon:anticodon recognition
E. inhibition of DNA synthesis by disruption of DNA gyrase activity
Ans. D.
| Aminoglycosides result in production of nonsense proteins through interference with reading the mRNA transcript.
160
Which drug has been associated with direct mast-cell degranulation, independent of IgE?
```
A. cytosine arabinoside
B. taxol
C. vincristine
D. bleomycin
E. doxorubicin
```
Ans. E.
| In addition to cardiotoxicity, doxorubicin can cause acute toxicity associated with mast-cell degranulation.
161
```
1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol, the active form of vitamin D., is synthesized in the:
A. liver
B. skin
C. kidney
D. gut
E. bone
```
Ans. C.
Vitamin D3 is converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the liver and is hydroxylated at the one-position by renal mitochondria.
162
Aminophylline, prednisone, and terbutaline are used in combination to treat:
A. infections with gram-positive bacteria
B. intestinal malabsorption
C. squamous-cell carcinoma
D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
E. diabetes insipidus
Ans. D.
Aminophylline (a bronchodilator), predinisone (an antiinflammatory glucocorticoid), and terbutaline (a selective b2-adrenergic agonist) can be given in combination to treat COPD.
163
The rate of elimination of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio is limited by:
```
A. rate of hepatic blood flow
B. rate of bile flow
C. liver size
D. extent of serum protein binding
E. glomerular filtration rate
```
Ans. A.
| Clearance of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio is limited by the rate of hepatic blood flow.
164
Which of the ff. has the poorest potential for healing and return to normal function after damage and effective surgical repair?
```
A. bone
B. intestine
C. liver
D. nervous tissue
E. uterus
```
Ans. D.
The basic functional unit of the nervous system, the neuron, is incapable of reproduction, so damage to the nervous system is often repaired by scar tissue. The other organs and tissues listed have excellent healing potential.
165
Which of the ff. is not a likely cause of dehiscence of an abdominal incision?
```
A. chronic vomiting
B. excessive physical activity
C. stormy recovery from anesthesia
D. surgical wound infection
E. suture material larger than needed
```
Ans. E.
Use of overly large suture material would not cause wound dehiscence. It would actually provide greater holding power than smaller suture material.
166
What is the healing potential of a fractured bone that is properly aligned and kept immobile?
```
A. excellent
B. good
C. fair
D. poor
E. very poor
```
Ans. A.
Bone has excellent healing capacities, provided the fracture fragments are properly aligned and movement is kept to a minimum.
167
What is the correct surgical term for suturing the stomach to the body wall to fix the stomach in place?
```
A. gastrectomy
B. gastropexy
C. gastroscopy
D. gastrostomy
E. gastrotomy
```
Ans. B.
| The suffix -pexy means to fix something in place.
168
Most of the clinical signs seen in animals in shock related to excessive blood loss are attributable to:
```
A. acidosis
B. alkalosis
C. cell death
D. redistribution of blood flow
E. tissue hyperoxia
```
Ans. D.
Redistribution of blood flow results in the pale mucous membranes, poor capillary refill, and cold extremities seen in shock.
169
With what kind of knot should sutures be routinely tied?
```
A. bowline
B. granny knot
C. square knot
D. slip knot
E. half-hitch
```
Ans. C.
| A square knot is conveniently tied and provides a very secure knot
170
In dogs, final maturation of spermatozoa occurs in the:
```
A. seminiferous tubule
B. rete testis
C. epididymis
D. vas deferens
E. seminal vesicles
```
Ans. C.
| Sperm mature in the epididymis.
171
Bacterial prostatitis:
```
A. is uncommon in older male cats
B. produces azoospermia
C. produces oligospermia
D. interferes with copulation
E. has little effect on fertility
```
Ans. A.
Prostatic diseases of all kinds are very uncommon in cats. In dogs, prostatitis frequently causes necrozoospermia (dead sperm). However, it does not usally affect sperm numbers.
172
An 8-year-old cryptorchid standard schnauzer has had no previous surgery other than standard puppy cosmetic procedures. The dog has shown abdominal discomfort for "about a day". Physical examination reveals a firm, nonpainful abdominal mass about 6 cm in diameter and a softer 8-cm mass near the pelvic inlet. You suspect neoplasia involving a retained testis. Which tumor is most likely to be found in this dog?
```
A. Sertoli-cell tumor
B. interstitial-cell tumor
C. Leydig-cell tumor
D. granulosa-cell tumor
E. seminoma
```
Ans. A.
Granulosa-cell tumors occur in females. Only Sertoli-cell tumors usually reach such size. The second (soft) mass probably represents a cystic prostate gland or uterus masculinus as a result of the estrogens produced by the Sertoli-cell tumor.
173
An advantage of nonsurgical collection of bovine embryos over surgical collection of embryos is that nonsurgical collection:
A. requires little skill
B. can be done repeatedly in the same donor, without complications
C. can be done earlier after the onset of estrus in the donor
D. requires a smaller volume of flushing medium
E. permits accurate counting of corpora lutea per rectum
Ans. B.
Unlike surgical embryo collection, nonsurgical collection does not cause adhesion formation and thus can be done repeatedly.
174
A definitive sign of estrus in cows is:
```
A. mucous vulvar discharge
B. ruffled hair on the tail head
C. a large follicle on the ovary
D. vulvar swelling
E. standing to be mounted
```
Ans. E.
| This is the only indisputable sign of estrus.
175
A cow in late gestation has a 360-degree uterine torsion. The most appropriate treatment is:
```
A. CS
B. fetotomy
C. rolling the cow (Schafer method)
D. detorsion with a detorsion rod
E. uterine relaxant therapy (clenbuterol)
```
Ans. A.
In this situation the fetus is not accessible for fetotomy or through use of a detorsion rod. There are no relaxant drugs approved for use in food animals. The degree of torsion is too great to correct by rolling.
176
Schistosomus reflexus is characterized by:
A. a split cranium and torticollis
B. a duplicate caudal vertebral column, with bent rear legs
C. cleft palate and a laterally deviated head
D. an underdeveloped spine and severely contracted tendons
E. a ventral abdominal defect and a ventrodorsally curved spine
Ans. E.
| Affected bovine fetuses have a ventral abdominal defect and a ventrodorsally curbed spine.
177
In dairy cows, the onset of estrus:
A. usually occurs between midnight and 6 AM
B. usually occurs between 6 PM and midnight
C. occurs at any time of day or night
D. usually occurs between noon and 6 PM
E. usually occurs between 6 AM and noon
Ans. A.
| Estrus usually begins between midnight and 6 AM in dairy cows.
178
Concerning detection of the corpus luteum in a mare by a single rectal palpation, which statement is most accurate?
A. The corpus luteum is not readily identifiable by a single palpation.
B. The corpus luteum is easily palpable, primarily because of the "crown" that extends beyond the ovarian surface.
C. The corpus luteum is easily palpable, primarily because of the line of demarcation between luteal tissue and ovarian stroma.
D. The corpus luteum is palpable on the ovary contralateral to the ovulatory follicle.
E. The corpus luteum is palpable, primarily because of the way it changes the shape of the ovary.
Ans. A.
| The corpus luteum is not readily palpable in mares because it is embedded within the ovary.
179
Aside from milk calcium levels, what three criteria are used to determine readiness for induction of parturition in mares?
A. at least 300 days of gestation, cervical relaxation, and correct positioning of the foal
B. at least 300 days of gestation, cervical relaxation, and "waxing" of the teats
C. at least 330 days of gestation, cervical relaxation, and "waxing" of the teats
D. at least 310 days of gestation, correct positioning of the foal, and "waxing" of the teats
E. at least 330 days of gestation, "waxing" of the teats, and correct positioning of the foal
Ans. C.
Mares should be at 330 days of gestation and have cervical relaxation and some "waxing" of the teats before parturition can be induced with a good success rate.
180
Seasonal infertility in swine:
A. is primarily caused by heat stress
B. occurs primarily after June-September matings
C. affects older sows more severely than younger sows
D. is less severe in outdoor breeding herds than in indoor breeding herds
E. is less severe when sows are housed in groups rather than in crates
Ans. B.
Pigs apparently are seasonal breeders. The effects of season are more profound and last longer than the effects of heat stress. Younger sows, outdoor breeding herds, and group-housed sows are more severely affected.
181
What is the normal duration of ejaculation in boars?
```
A. 18 seconds
B. 1-2 mins
C. 4-6 mins
D. 10 mins
E. 11.5 mins
```
Ans. C.
| Boars ejaculate over a period of 4-6 mins.
182
Administration of prostaglandin F2-alpha induces estrus in ewes only when given:
```
A. outside the breeding season
B. during the breeding season
C. in the summer
D. during estrus
E. immediately after lambing
```
Ans. B.
A mature corpus luteum (CL) must be present if prostaglandin F2-alpha is to induce estrus. A mature CL is present only during breeding season. The CL is not mature during estrus and immediately after lambing.
183
The penis of the ram is most accurately described as:
A. fibroelastic, with corkscrew shape
B. fibroelastic, with filiform process
C. fibroelastic, with an unturned tip
D. musculocavernous, with a bell-shaped glans
E. muscular, with flared glans
Ans. B.
| The penis of rams is fibroelastic, with a filiform process at the end of the glans penis.
184
Concerning the intersex condition in goats, which statement is least accurate?
A. An intersex is an animal that externally shows both male and female characteristics.
B. It is more prevalent in dairy goats than in any other domestic species.
C. The gonads (testes or ovotestes) may be scrotal, inguinal, or abdominal in location.
D. Most polled intersexes are karyotypically male (XY).
E. It is more prevalent in dairy goats that are polled (hornless) than in horned goats.
Ans. D.
| Most polled goats are genotypic females (XX).
185
Prolactin induces all of the ff. except:
```
A. nesting behavior
B. incubation
C. cessation of egg laying
D. caring for the young
E. increased production of LH and FSH in both sexes
```
Ans. E.
| Prolactin depresses production of LH and FSH in both sexes.
186
Which hormone decreases production of FSH and LH and stimulates brooding behavior?
```
A. prolactin
B. estradiol
C. progesterone
D. cholecalciferol
E. mibolerone
```
Ans. A.
| Prolactin depresses production of FSH and LH and initiates brooding behavior.
187
Sexual precocity refers to:
A. delayed sexual maturation
B. accelerated sexual maturation
C. failure to deposit ova or deliver young on schedule
D. premature ejaculation
E. inability to attain or maintain an erection
Ans. B.
| Sexually precocious animals reach puberty early.
188
Which pathogen can be transmitted from a female oviparous reptile to her eggs?
```
A. Pasteurella
B. Pseudomonas
C. Salmonella
D. Aeromonas
E. Morganella
```
Ans. C.
| Salmonella is easily transferred from an infected female reptile to her ova, similar to infection in avian species.
189
A 9-month-old male Doberman pinscher puppy is presented because of weight loss and periodic vomiting, with intermittent periods of depression alternating with seizures or hysteria during the past 6 weeks. All vaccinations are current, parasites are not a problem, and there is no history of injury. An abdominal radiograph reveals two large radiodense objects in the stomach. A complete blood count reveals normal leukocyte numbers, mild anemia, and an excessive number of nucleated red blood cells. Based on the history and clinical signs, what is the most likely cause of the problem/
```
A. cadmium toxicosis
B. copper toxicosis
C. iron toxicosis
D. lead toxicosis
E. zinc toxicosis
```
Ans. D.
| The combination of gastrointestinal, neurologic, and hematologic changes suggests only lead toxicosis.
190
190. Fluorescence of blood on exposure to UV light is useful in diagnosing:
```
A. aflatoxicosis
B. ethylene glycol poisoning of cats
C. fluoride poisoning of cattle
D. lead poisoning of waterfowl
E. selenium toxicosis of horses
```
Ans. D.
| Porphyrin metabolism is blocked. The accumulated porphyrins are detected by their fluorescence on exposure to UV light.
