CLINICAL SCIENCES Flashcards
One mL of a 10% solution of a drug contains how many mg of that drug?
A. 10 mg/mL B. 20 mg/mL C. 1.0 mg/mL D. 0.1 mg/mL E. 100 mg/mL
Ans. E.
A 10% solution = 10 g/100 mL = 10,000 mg/100mL = 100 mg/mL
If you administer 350 mL of a 5% solution of guaifenesin to a 250-kg pony, how many mg/kg would be administered?
A. 35 B. 250 C. 70 D. 10 E 100
Ans. C.
350 mL x 50 mg/mL = 17,500 mg/250 kg = 70 mg/kg
Thiobarbiturates:
A. are characterized by slow induction of anesthesia B. should never be used in cats C. may produce cardiac arrhythmias ff. intravenous administration D. are not bound to plasma proteins E. produce effect that can be reversed with naloxone
Ans. C.
In healthy dogs there is high incidence (up to 40% of cases) of transient ventrivular arrythmias ff. anesthetic induction with intravenous thiobarbiturates. This does not usually cause clinical problems in healthy patients.
Propofol:
A. is very irritating when administered perivascularly
B. should be administered intamuscularly because it is a colloidal solution
C. is dissolved in a soybean oil/egg lecithin emulsion
D. should be refrigerated because it is unstable at room temperature
E. can be used in multidose vials because it contains a bacteriostatic agent
Ans. C.
In the commercially available product, propofol is dissolved in a nonirritant milky oil emulsion and can be given intramuscularly (requires large volume) as well as intravenously. It is stable at room temperature but contains no preservative agents.
Which of the ff. provides surgical analgesia of more than 2 hours duration when administered epidurally in an appropriate dose?
A. bupivacaine 0.5% (Marcaine) B. lidocaine 2% (Xylocaine) C. morphine at 0.5 mg/mL (Duramorph) D. mepivacaine 2% (Carbocaine) E. meperidine at 50 mg/mL (Demerol)
Ans. A.
Bupivacaine produces both sensory and motor blockade of 2-3 times longer duration than lidocaine or mepivacaine.
Which inhalation anesthetic is subject to the greatest degree of metabolism?
A. nitrous oxide B. halothane C. methoxyflurane D. desflurane E. isoflurane
Ans. C.
About 50% of an inhaled dose of methoxyflurane and 25% of a dose of halothane are metabolized. Other agents have minimal metabolism.
Halothane:
A. is eliminated completely unchanged via the lungs
B. is the most potent respiratory depressant of the commonly used inhalation anestheitics
C. is the only inhalation agent that lowers the threshold to cathecolamine-induced ventricular arrhythmias
D. depresses cardiac function by decreasing myocardial contractility, causing vasodilation and depressing the sinoatrial node
E. is more expensive to use than methoxyflurane
Ans. D.
Up to 20% of the inhaled dose of halothane is metabolized. Isoflurane cause more respiratory depression in dogs and horses. Methoxyflurane and isoflurane are arrhythmogenic, although significantly less so than halothane. Halothane is by far the cheapest commonly used inhalation agent.
If soda lime in breathing circuit becomes exhausted during an anesthetic procedure, you would expect to observe:
A. only an increased respiratory rate B. only an increased depth of breathing C. an increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure D. an increased heart rate and increased blodd pressure E. no physiologic changes
Ans. D.
Hypercapnia results in sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
In horses, which of the ff. indicates a deep plane of anesthesia?
A. mean arterial pressure of 60 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 6/min, corneal reflex present B. mean arterial pressure of 75 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 4/min, spontaneously closes eye C. mean arterial pressure of 60 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 3/min, periodic nystagmus D. mean arterial pressure of 76 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 6/min, brisk palpebral reflex E. mean arterial pressure of 70 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 4/min, spontaneously closes eye, lacrimation
Ans. A.
A corneal reflex can persist even at deep levels of anesthesia. Loss of the corneal reflex is a sign of very deep anesthesia. Repeated testing of the corneal reflex can damage the cornea.
Tachycardia during anesthesia:
A. may be due to hyperkalemia B. may be due to hypercapnia C. shoul be treated ith lidocaine D. should be treated with isoproterenol E. is a sign of deep anesthesia
Ans. B.
A high blood carbon dioxide level cause cardiovascular stimulation, mediated via the sympathetic nervous system.
Lung compliance is a measure of:
A. the resistance to lung inflation by manual compression of the reservoir bag B. the amount of pressure required to inflate the lung C. the difference in pressure between the ventilator and the rebreathing circuit D. the change in lung volume for each unit of transpulmonary pressure change E. end-inspriratory pressure indicated on the pressure gauge located in the breathing circuit
Ans. D.
Compliance is a measure of static pressure-volume relationships (L/cm), whereas resistance is a measure of dynamic pressure flows (L/cm H2O/sec).
Which species is most susceptible to the effects of xylazine?
A cats B rabbits C. horses D. swine E. cattle
Ans. E.
Cattle are most susceptible to the effects of xylazine. Sheep and goats are also very sensitive to xylazine.
Which neuromuscular relaxant cannot be effectively antagonized?
A. gallamine B. pancuronium C. antracurium D. succinylcholine E. vecuronium
Ans. D.
Succinylcholine is hydrolyzed by cholinesterases. It must be metabolized to end its effects.
Causes of erroneous refractive index-derived total plasma protein values include all the ff. except:
A. lipemia B. Heinz bodies C. in vivo hemolysis D. in vitro hemolysis E. extreme overanticoagulation with EDTA
Ans. B.
Heinz bodies do not interfere with plasma protein values, but they can erroneously elevate hemoglobin values.
Neonatal isoerythrolysis in foals is best diagnosed by:
A. crossmatching the foal's RBC's and the mare's serum B. crossmatching the mare's RBC's and the foal's serum C. blood typing the mare for Aa and Qa RBC antigens D. crossmatching the stallion's RBC's and the foal's serum E. crossmatching the mare's colostrum against the stallion's RBC's
Ans. A.
In neonatal isoerythrolysis, the mare’s serum contains antibodies against the foal’s RBC’s.
Thyroid hormone levels are likely to be decreased in animals in any of the ff. except:
A. young animals B. lymphocytic thyroiditis C. phenobarbital administration D.glucocorticoid administration E. animals with concurrent illness
Ans. A.
Young animals have high levels of thyroid hormone.
An abundance of eosinophils on a peripheral blood smear is most commonly associated with:
A. neoplastic disease B. infection C. trauma D. allergic conditions E. stress
Ans. D.
Eosinophilia occurs commonly in response to antigen-antibody reactions, as well as with inflammation of certain organs, such as the lungs, which tend to be allergy targets.
Which method is least appropriate for urine collection?
A. midstream free catch B. manual compression of the bladder C. aspiration of urine from the cage floor or litterbox D. bladder catheterization E. cystocentesis
Ans. C.
Urine specimens collected from the floor or litterbox are likely to be contaminated.
Calcium oxalate crystals in urine sediment are most often associated with:
A. ethylene glycol (antifreeze) toxicity B. gout C. bacterial cystitis D. end-stage renal disease E. organophosphate insecticide poisoning
Ans. A.
Calcium oxalate crystals may also be found in small numbers in normal urine.
Concerning toxic neutrophils, which statement is least accurate?
A. Their presence suggests inflammation. B. Their presence is usually related to localized or systemic bacterial infections. C. Changes in the neutrophil cytoplasm arise from disturbed maturation of neutrophil precursors. D. Dohle bodies indicate severe toxicity. E. The prognosis is more favorable when neutrophil numbers and the severity of toxicity diminish over time.
Ans. D.
Dohle bodies indicate mild toxicity.
cidosis is most likely to produce which change?
A. shift of potassium from extracellular to intracellular
B. shift of potassium from intracellular to extracellular
C. shift of sodium from extracellular to intracellular
D. decrease in serum ionized calcium level
E. increase in total serum calcium level
Ans. B.
Acidosis increases ionized calcium levels but does not change total calcium levels.
Hypercalcemia has been associated with all of the ff. conditions except:
A. lymphoid malignancies B. anal sac apocrine-gland carcinoma C. hypoadrenocorticism D. fungal infections E. milk fever
Ans. E.
Certain fungal infections, such as blastomycosis, have been associated with hypercalcemia.
Concerning an acute or recent hemorrhagic effusion, which statement is least accurate?
A. It has a clear supernatant and red sediment. B. Intact erythrocytes may be present C. It contains macrophages with phagocytized erythrocytes. D. It contain hemosiderin-laden marophages. E. It contain platelets.
Ans.D.
Hemosiderin-laden macrophages are seen in long standing or chronic hemorrhagic effusions.
In a dog, hypersegmented neutrophils in an effusion indicate:
A. sepsis B. immune-mediated disease C. a long-standing pathologic condition D. normal canine neutrophils E. a degenerative change
Ans. C.
Hypersegmentation of neutrophils is an indication of chronicity.
Which cell type is likely to be present in highest numbers in a normal transtracheal wash?
A. goblet cells B. ciliated columnar epithelial cells C. alveolar macrophages D. neutrophils E. lymphocytes
Ans. C.
Alveolar macrophages are more commonly observed in bronchoalveolar lavages.
Radiographic signs of pleural effusion include all of the ff. except:
A. a widened, radiopaque pleural space B. widened, opaque interlobar fissure lines C. partial collapse of the lung lobes D. radiolucent air surrounding the lung lobes E. blunting of the costophrenic angles on ventrodorsal views
Ans. D.
Radiolucent air surrounding the lung lobes is a sign of pneumothorax.
An air bronchogram is consistent with which type of lung pattern?
A. alveolar B. vascular C. linear interstitial D. nodular interstitial E. bronchial
Ans. A.
Air bronchograms are only seen with an alveolar pattern.
You note a large cranial abdominal mass on abdominal radiographs of a cat. The stomach is displaced dorsally and caudally by this mass. What is the most likely site of this mass?
A. liver B. ovary C. kidney D. prostate E. bladder
Ans. A.
Hepatomegaly displaces the stomach caudodorsally. The other organs listed are caudal to the stomach.
A 9-month-old German shepherd has shifting forelimb lameness, with pain on palpation over both humeral diaphyses. Radiographs reveal multifocal, patchy increases in opacity in the medullary cavity of the right and left humeri. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. panosteitis
B. osteochondritis dissecans
C. hypertrophic osteodystrophy
D. ununited anconeal process
E. fragmented coronoid process
Ans. A.
These signs are typical of panosteitis. The patient characteristics and physical examination findings support the diagnosis.
After processing a radiograph, you notice an intensely black artifact with the appearance of arborized black lines. The most likely cause of this artifact is:
A. underdevelopment B. overdevelopment C. light fog D. developer splashed on the film in the darkroom. E. static electricity
Ans. E.
Static often causes this type of artifact.
Active periosteal reaction on the palmarolateral and palmaromedial aspects of the proximal phalanx in a horse is most likely caused by abnormal pulling of the:
A. suspensory ligament B. superficial digital flexor tendon C. deep digital flexor tendon D. impar ligament E. middle sesamoidean ligament
Ans. E
This ligament attaches at the affected region.
In dogs, the right cranial lobar pulmonary artery and vein are best seen on which radiographic projection?
A. left lateral B. right lateral C. dorsoventral D. ventrodorsal E. standing lateral
Ans. A.
In the other options the vessels are not clearly seen.
On radiographs of a 9-year-old male German shepherd with chronic hematuria, you observe two distinct spheric, large (8 cm diameter), soft tissue masses in the caudoventral abdomen. The most reasonable conclusion is that:
A. the cranial mass is the bladder and the caudal mass is an enlarged prostate gland B. the caudal mass is the bladder and the cranial mass is an enlarged prostate gland C. exploratory surgery should be performed D. retrograde positive-contrast urethrography should be performed E. this is a normal finding and there is no need for further studies or treatment
Ans. D.
This procedure allows identification of one mass as the bladder and more accurate assessment of the other mass.
The kidney is a complex organ comprised of capsule, cortex, medullary pyramids, pelvis, and pelvic diverticula. Which of the ff. best describes the relative echogenocity of the cortex, medullary pyramids, and pelvis/pelvic diverticula, from the most hyperechoic to the least hyperechoic? Assume that the kidney is normal and the animal is not undergoing physiologic diuresis.
A. cortex > medullary pyramids > pelvis > and diverticula B. pelvis and diverticula > medullary pyramids > cortex C. pelvis and diverticula > cortex > medullary pyramids D. medullary pyramids > pelvis and diverticula > cortex E. The kidney has a uniform hypoechoic appearance, with differences in echogenicity seen only with pathologic changes.
Ans. C.
The capsule is a bright linear echo when the ultrasound beam is perpendicular to the kidney. The cortex and medulla are both hypoechoic, but the cortex is always more echogenic than the medulla. Echogenicity of the renal cortex should be approximately the same as that of the spleen. The reanl pelvis is hyperechoic unless distended. Diverticula are hyperechoic.
Which structure is most likely to produce distal enhancement in an ultrasound image?
A. renal cortical mineralization
B. a gas-filled stomach
C. lead buckshot
D. a renal pelvic calculus
E. a hepatic cyst
Ans. E.
Because cystic structures are fluid-filled, sound waves penetrate these structures to a greater degree than for soft tissues. This results in more sound waves reaching tissues deep to the cyst. As a result, there is a comparatively greater reflection of sound waves in these deeper structures, producing a brighter image deep to the cyst.
Which disorder is most likely to produce a generalized increase in liver echogenicity (brightness)? A. acute hepatitis B. hepatic lipidosis C. biliary obstruction D. hepatic venous congestion E. multiple hepatic cysts
Ans. B.
Animals with hepatic lipidosis have a generalized increase in hepatic parenchymal echogenicity.
Concerning endoscopic examination of a mare’s genital tract, which statement is most accurate?
A. The vagina and cervix should be thoroughly flushed with glutaraldehyde solution before endoscope insertion. B.The diestral cervix is flattened, partially open, and situated near the floor of the cranial vagina. C. The estrual cervix is closed and situated near the center of the cranial vagina. D. The endometrium rapidly becomes hyperemic when uterus is insufflated with air. E. The endometrial folds are highly prominent, hyperemic, and edematous during estrus.
Ans. D.
Introduction of air into the uterus produces a hyperemic response.
Which type of red blood cell morphology is compatible with phenothiazine toxicity in horses?
A. target cells B. Heinz bodies C. stomatocytosis D. basophilic stippling E. nucleated red blood cells
Ans. B.
Heinz bodies are clumps of denatured hemoglobin caused by oxidative injury, as with phenithiazine toxicity and onion toxicosis.
Which of the ff. best describes the most likely hematologic findings in a dog given corticosteroids 12-24 hours previously?
A. lymphocytosis, neutropenia, monocytosis, eosinopenia B. lymphopenia, neutropenia, monocytopenia, eosinopenia C. lymphopenia, mature neutrophilia, monocytosis, eosinophilia D. lymphopenia, mature neutrophilia, monocytosis, eosinopenia E. lymphocytosis, mature neutrophilia, monocytosis, eosinopenia
Ans. D.
Corticosteroid administration produces lymphopenia, mature neutrophilia, monocytosis, and eosinopenia.
An exaggerated response to mild anemia, in the form of polychromasia, nucleated erythrocytes, and basophilic stippling, is most often seen in animals with:
A. iron toxicity B. iron deficiency C. lead poisoning D. folate deficiency E. copper deficiency
Ans. B.
Lead poisoning produces these hematologic findings.
On an impresion smear made from an ulcerated area on the forelimb of a cat, you find multiple, small (2-4 mm), basophilic-staining organisms whose shape varies from round to oval to fusiform (cigar-shaped), with a thin, clear halo. the most likely cause of the lesion in this cat is:
A. leishmaniasis B. toxoplasmosis C. sporotrichosis D. histoplasmosis E. cytauxzoonosis
Ans. C.Many Sporothrix organisms are found in infected cats, but the organisms are difficult to find in infected dogs and horses. Fusiform (cigar) shapes are characteristics of Sporothrix shenckii.
Steatitis defines:
A. inflammation of the mammary glands B. excessive lipid globules in feces, associated with enteritis C. inflammation of adipose tissue D. excessive conjugated bilirubin in the serum, associated with hepatitis E. inflammation of lymph vessels
Ans. C.
None of the other answers correctly defines steatitis.
Which of the ff. is least likely to cause macrocytic anemia?
A. erythremic myelosis B. folic acid deficiency C. vit. B12 deficiency D. iron deficiency E. cobalt deficiency in ruminants
Ans. D.
Iron deficiency causes microcytic hypochromic anemia.
Which of the leukocyte predominates in the peripheral blood of a normal weanling pig?
A. basophil B. monocyte C. neutrophil D. eosinophil E. lymphocyte
Ans. E.
Lymphocytes predominate in the blood of weanling pigs.
Which hematologic abnormality is associated with long-term bracken-fern ingestion in cattle?
A. aplastic anemia B. myeloid leukemia C. severe leukopenia D. eryhtroid leukemia E. iron-deficiency anemia
Ans. A. Bracken-fern poisoning causes aplastic anemia.
Which cell type may occasionally be observed in synovial fluid and is diagnostic of systemic lupus erythematosus?
A. lupus erythematosus (LE) cells B. Mott cells C. giant cell D. leptocytes E. siderocytes
Ans. A
Mott cells are vacuolated plasma cells. Giant cells are seen with chronic granulomatous disease. Siderocytes are red blood cells containing iron particles. Leptocytes are thin, folded red blood cells.
A giant cell is formed by fusion of:
A. heterophils B. neutrophils C. hepatocytes D. lymphocytes E. macrophages
Ans. E.
Giant cells may also be formed by fusion of monocytes or epithelioid cells.
In which species are the granules of eosinophils almost exclusively rod-shaped?
A. dogs B. cats C. cattle D. sheep E. horses
Ans.B.
Dogs have pleomorphic granules, but they are generally round. Round granules are seen in horses, cattle, and sheep. Horses have prominent granules that fill the cytoplasm.
Which of the ff. best describes the mechanism of anemia associated with myelophthistic disease?
A. lack of erythropoietin
B. iron diversion to storage pools
C. infection with such agents as panleukopenia virus
D. dietary deficiencies, such as vitamin B12 and folic acid
E. physical replacement of bone marrow by abnormal proliferation
Ans. E.
In myelophthistic disease, hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow are replaced by abnormal cells, such as fibrous or neoplastic tissue.
In horses, neonatal isoerythrolysis is most commonly seen:
A. after parturition in primiparous dams B. in first-born offspring after ingestion of colostrum C. during the last half of gestation if the dam is sensitized to the foal's erythrocytes D. in the dam after breeding if the dam was previously exposed to the stud's erythrocytes E. in neonatal foals after ingestion of colostrum if the dam has been sensitized to fetal erythrocytes
Ans. E.
Antibodies in the colostrum cause destruction of the foal’s RBC’s.
Concerning the coagulation cascade in birds, which statement is most accurate?
A. Birds do not have thrombocytes. B. Birds lack the extrinsic pathway. C. Birds lack a complete intrinsic pathway. D. Birds do not have a common pathway. E. In addition to the intrinsic, extrinsic, and common pathways, birds have another clotting pathway.
Ans. C.
Birds have an incomplete intrinsic pathway.
Which of the ff. is a hematopoietic neoplasm of lymphoid tissue in chickens?
A. Marek's disease B. Johne's disease C. Tyzzer's disease D. pullorum disease E. Newcastle disease
Ans. A.
Marek’s disease is caused by a DNA herpesvirus and results in lymphoid proliferation in peripheral nerves aand central nervous system inflammation. Johne’s disease is an infiltrative disease of the bovine intestine. Newcastle disease is avian pneumoencephalitis. Tyzzer’s disease is seen in many animals and is caused by Bacillus piliformis. Pullorum disease is Salmonella pullorum infection in birds.
The Coggins test for equine infectious anemia and the single radial immunodiffusion method of immunoglobulin quantitation have in common the requirement that the antigen must be:
A. insoluble B. soluble C. membrane bound D. intracellular E. purified
Ans. B.
Both of these are immunodiffusion tests requiring soluble antigen and antibody so as to form insoluble complexes at the equivalence point.
A Holstein calf with persistent neutrophilia and lack of pus formation at sites of bacterial infection is most likely afflicted with:
A. severe combined immunodefficiency B. primary agammaglobulinemia C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome D. bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency E. cyclic neutropenia
Ans. D.
This calf has an inherited trait that makes it unable to make the CD11/CD18 adhesion molecule; thus the leukocytes cannot adhere to the vascular endothelium and cannot undergo diapedesis and move into the tissues.
Nonprotein nitrogen is used least efficiently in a:
A. high-producing dairy cow B. low-producing dairy cow C. pregnant cow D. gelding on pasture E. feedlot steer
Ans. D.
Nonprotein nitrogen has little benefit for hindgut fermenters, such as horse.
Which cow is most likely to develop milk fever?
A. 2-year-old Jersey fed alfalfa hay before calving B. 5-year-old Holstein fed timothy hay during the dry period C. 2-year-old Holstein fed alfalfa hay before calving D. 5-year-old Holstein fed alfalfa hay during the dry period E. 3-year-old Jersey fed timothy hay during the dry period
Ans. D.
Excessive calcium fed during the dry period plays the largest role in development of milk fever in multiparous cows.
The effect of an intravenous injection of acetylcholine on blood pressure can be blocked by:
A. metoclopramide B. propranolol C. d-tubocurare D. atropine E. nitroprusside
Ans. D.
Intravenous acetylcholine reduces blood pressure through muscarinic receptors on the vascular endothelium. Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist.
Which one of the ff. most accurately describes ketamine anesthesia?
A. Ketamine causes rapid induction to stage III of anesthesia. B. Peripheral reflexes are lost at surgical planes of anesthesia. C. Ketamine has a wider therapeutic index (LD50/ED50) than barbiturates. D. Ketamine is a potent visceral analgesic. E. Ketamine induces potent muscle relaxation.
Ans. C.
The therapeutic index of ketamine is wider in most species than that of barbiturates. It produces a cataleptic anesthetic state in whcih peripheral reflexes are maintained. Ketamine is a poor visceral analgesic.
Concerning phenytoin, Which statement is most accurate?
A. It is 100% bioavailable. B. In dogs, its elimination half-life is longer than that of phenobarbital. C. It induces hepatic microsomal enzymes. D. It is metabolized to phenobarbital and phenylethylmalonamide. E. It is the anticonvulsant drug of choice in cats.
Ans. C.
Phenytoin, like some other anticonvulsants, is a potent inducer of microsomal enzymes. This drug has a very short half-life in dogs, and continued use further shortens its elimination half-life via enzyme induction.
Which of the ff. does not increase the risk of renal failure associated with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy?
A. hypovolemia B. vomiting C. hypotension D. diuretic therapy E. oxygen therapy
Ans. E.
Answers A through D tend to lower blood volume & result in prerenal azotemia. Volume contraction predisposes animals to ACE inhibitor-induced renal failure.
Which antacid increases the risk of gastric rupture?
A. aluminum hydroxide B magnesium hydroxide C. magnesium sulfate D. sodium bicarbonate E. sodium sulfate
Ans. D.
Oral sodium bicarbonate results in liberation of CO2, which can result in gastric rupture, particularly at the site of gastric ulceration.
Sulfonamides may produce any of the ff. side-effects except:
A. hypoprothrombinemia B keratoconjunctivitis sicca C. aplastic anemia & thrombocytopenia D. yellow staining of dental enamel E. hypthyroidism.
Ans. D.
Tetracyclines, not sulfonamides, are associated with enamel staining.
Concernign amphotericin B, which statement is most accurate?
A. Alopecia is the most serious common adverse effect & is self-limiting B. Nephrotoxicity is the most serious common adverse effect & is predictable & dose related. C. Nephrotoxicity is the most serious common adverse effect, is not reversible, & is usually fatal. D. Hepatocellular toxicity is the most serious common adverse effect & is more severe in dogs than in cats. E. Hepatocellular toxicity is the most seroius common adverse effect & is usually fatal.
Ans. B.
The major toxicity associated with amphotericin B therapy is dose-dependent nephrotoxicity.
Which cellular drug is particularly effective in treating chronic granulocytic leukemia?
A. mechlorethamine B. cyclophosphamide C. melphalan. D. busulfan E. carmustine
Ans. D.
Busulfan is particularly effective for chronic granulocytic leukemia but is not effective in acute leukemia.
Excretion of drugs by the kidneys is:
A. unaffected by variation in renal blood flow B. generally more rapid if the drug is not extensively protein bound C. more rapid with drugs that are actively secreted by tubular cells. D. always increased by administration of diuretics E. a minor pathway for elimination of drugs
Ans. C.
Such drugs have a large renal clearance limited primarily by renal blood flow.
An anticoagulant that is suitable for systemic administration is:
A. calcium EDTA
B. dicumarol
C. sodium fluoride
D. thromboplastin
E. sodium oxalate
Ans. B.
Dicumarol is a vitamin K antagonist within the liver. The other compounds listed are unsuitable for such use.
Heartworm disease can be prevented in dogs living in enzootic areas by administering, at monthly intervals, the larvicidal drug:
A. dithiazamine B. ivermectin C. thiacetarsamide D. diethylcarbamazine E. levamisole
Ans. B.
Ivermectin is approved in the US for prevention of heartworm infections in dogs.
Aminophylline, prednisone, & terbutaline are used in combination to treat:
A. infections with gram-positive bacteria B. intestinal malabsorption C. squamous-cell carcinoma D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease E. diabetes insipidus
Ans. D.
Aminophylline ( a bronchodilator), prednisone (an antiinflammatory glucocorticoid), & terbutaline (a selective b2-adrenergic agonist) can be given in combination to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Which of the ff. describes minimal exposure time & temperature for autoclaving a surgical pack?
A. 121 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes B. 121 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 minutes C. 250 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 minutes D. 250 degrees Celsius for 20 minutes E. 250 degrees Fahrenheit for 20 minutes
Ans. A.
The minimal standard for sterilization of surgical instruments in an autoclave is 121 degrees Celsius (250 degrees Fahrenheit) for at least 15 minutes.
Which incision is most appropriate for exploratory surgery in a dog’s abdomen, in which the precise location of the problem is not known?
A. dorsal midline B. flank C. paracostal D. paramedian E. ventral midline
Ans. E.
The ventral midline approach to the abdomen gives the most extensive access to the abdominal cavity.
Which of the ff., when used alone as a surgical scrub soap, forms a bacteriostatic film over the skin?
A. chlorhexidine B. chlorpheniramine C. hexadimethrine D. hexachlorophene E. povidone-iodine
Ans. D.
Hexachlorophene forms a bacteriostatic film on the skin if used exclusively to wash the hands & arms. Other soaps remove the protective film
What is the usual significance of a small seroma deep to (beneath) the skin suture line after aseptic surgery?
A. acute emergency B. cosmetic problem only C. minor significance D. no significance E. serious but not an acute emergency
Ans. B.
Unless they are very large or ruptured, postoperative seromas are unsighty but of little other importance to the animal’s health.
With which type of abdominal incision can the abdominal wall be most effectively closed using a single layer of sutures?
A. high flank B. low flank C. paracostal D. paramedian E ventral midline
Ans. E.
The linea alba, on the ventral midline of the abdominal muscle wall, is the tendinous attachment of the ventral abdominal muscles. One layer of sutures in this area effectively closes the whole thickness of the abdominal wall, after which the skin is closed.
In the second-intention healing, which of the ff. must be present before wound contraction or epithelial regeneration can occur?
A. collagen fibers B. exudative tissue C. fibrin clot D. granulation tissue E. scar tissue
Ans. D.
After dead & damaged tissue has been removed from a wound by inflammation, a bed of granulation tissue, consisting primarily of collagen fibers & capillaries, must form on the floor of the wound so that the processes that reduce the size of the wound can begin.
A normal stud dog of which breed produces an ejaculate containing the greatest number of sperm?
A. miniature schnauzer B. German shepherd C. basenji D. great Dane E. Sperm numbers are about the same in all these breeds.
Ans. D.
Sperm numbers per ejaculate are a functiuon of testicular size, which is a function of body size. Thus, big dogs produce more sperm than little dogs.
Estrogenic hormones are frequently used in treatment of mismating in the bitch. Concerning such treatment, which statement is least accurate?
A. Bitches under 4 years of age are less likely to suffer bone marrow toxicity. B. This treatment increases the incidence of uterine infection by about 30%. C. Treated bitches remain in heat longer than normal. D. The treatment causes no adverse side effects. E. The success rate is directly related to the time between mismating & onset of therapy.
Ans. D.
Although not totally immune to the serious side effects of estrogen, young bitches are more tolerant. Answers B, C, & E are true & should be made known to the owner when assessing the risk/benefit ratio before therapy is begun.
