MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

If yung prrs virus is napunta sa boots (bota/shoes) ng tao , anong tawag duon?

a. Fomite
b. Carrier
c. Vector
d. *

A

a. Fomite

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2
Q

Bacteria responsible in food spoilage that can destroy at 60c.

A

Salmonella

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3
Q

Bacteria that can cause spoilage to food even if refrigerated.

A
Enterobacteriaceae
Salmonella
E. coli
Shigella
Yersinia
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4
Q

Pathogenic vs infective

A

Pathogenic -(of a bacterium, virus, or other microorganism) causing disease.

Infective -capable of causing infection.
“the infective eggs or larvae of the roundworm”

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5
Q

Question about zheil-nelsen procedure

A

Ziehl Neelsen Acid-fast stain
Step 2: Smear Preparation

  • Cover the smear with carbolfuchsin dye
  • Dry heat for 2-5 minutes.
  • Cool and rinse with Alcohol
  • Wash the top and bottom of slide with water and clean the slide bottom well.
  • Counterstain with Methylene Blue for 30 seconds to 1 minute.
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6
Q

Acid fast take up the primary stain which turns out to be color?

A

pink

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7
Q

Non-Acid fast take up the primary stain which turns out to be color?

A

blue

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8
Q

Yersinia pestis is transmitted by.

a. flea
b. tick
c. mite
d. *
A

a.flea

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9
Q

Which protozoan 90 days sexual rest and isolated?

a. Brucella
b. Trichomonas
c. *
d. *

A

b. Trichomonas

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10
Q

Why nitrate ingredient in bacon is controversial?

d. Explosive
e. Mutagenic
f. Carcinogenic
g. *

A

f. Carcinogenic

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11
Q

Culture media.

A

Nutrient broth, nutrient agar and peptone water. Staphylococcus and Enterobacteriaceae grow in these media. media are blood agar and Lowenstein-Jensen media.

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12
Q

Bacteria that can thrive in sugar?

A

Clostridium

Gluconobacter

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13
Q

PED (Porcine epidemic diarrhea)

A
  • not related to any other member of the Coronaviridae.
  • virus persists in consecutive litters of pigs after weaning and after they lose their immunity from antibody in the milk
  • pathogenesis and immune mechanisms are similar to those reported for TGE
  • Oral infection results in viral replication in the epithelial cells of the small intestinal villi.
  • Cells on colonic villi also become infected.
  • No other tissue tropisms have been shown.
  • Virus is excreted in the feces.
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14
Q

a zoonotic disease affecting a broad range of species. Naturally occurring infections can cause illnesses that range from an acute, highly fatal form to a less acute and less serious clinical illness that can also be fatal.

A

Anthrax

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15
Q

Which of the following species is most likely to develop acute fatal disease with anthrax infection?

A

Cattle

Infection in cattle and wild herbivores produces an abrupt fever followed by rapid decline and sudden death. Often, the course of disease is not observed, and animals are found dead on pasture. Sheep are also highly susceptible to anthrax. Dogs (B), humans (C), and pigs (D) are more resistant and usually develop a more mild and chronic form of illness that is often amenable to postexposure antibiotic treatment.

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16
Q

Anthrax is controlled in endemic areas through a variety of measures that include annual vaccination, rapid detection and reporting, treatment of exposed asymptomatic animals, and burning or burial of suspected and confirmed cases. Which of these measures, if used alone, would most effectively prevent cases of anthrax disease?

A. Annual vaccination
B. Rapid detection and reporting
C. Treatment of asymptomatic animals
D. Burning or burial of suspect and confirmed cases

A

A. Annual vaccination

Annual vaccination of all grazing animals in endemic areas is the most effective measure to prevent disease outbreaks. The other measures (B, C, D) are control measures important to minimize impact during an outbreak. Treatment of asymptomatic, exposed animals (C) is with a 7- to 10-day course of antibiotics followed by vaccination.

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17
Q

FIP caused by coronavirus.. FIP can also infect?

A

PIG

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18
Q

CASE FATALITY RATE computation.

A
  • Number died/ Number of affected
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19
Q

Can’t be killed in a medium with 7.5 NACL ?

A

STAPHYLOCOCCUS

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20
Q

C3

A

C3 convertase is a product of all the pathways triggering the complement cascade and is responsible for converting factor C3 into C3a and C3b.

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21
Q

Not seen in mucous membrane.

a. IgE
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgA

A

IgE sinagot ko, di ko ulit sure.

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22
Q

Salmonella in XLD agar?

A

PINK COLONIES WITH BLACK CENTER

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23
Q

Medium for salmonella.

A

BRILLIANT GREEN AGAR

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24
Q

Salmonella can’t ferment what sugar?

A

LACTOSE

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25
Q

Yersinia pestis transmission Between humans

A

bite of rodent fleas or more rarely from infected domestic cats, handling of infected animal tissue, inhalation of aerosolized droplets, or from laboratory exposure. The flea ingests the organism while feeding on a bacteremic host.

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26
Q

Difference between hendra and nipah

A

Hendra virus is a virus that infects large fruit bats (flying foxes). Occasionally the virus can spread from flying foxes to horses and horses can then pass the infection on to humans. A small number of people who had very close contact with infected horses have developed Hendra virus infection.

Nipah virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus, meaning that it can spread between animals and people. Fruit bats, also called flying foxes, are the animal reservoir for NiV in nature. Nipah virus is also known to cause illness in pigs and people. barking pig syndrome.

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27
Q

Surveillance definition

A

Epidemiological surveillance is defined as the “ongoing systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health data that are essential to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice”

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28
Q

First line of defense

A

neutrophil

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29
Q

Which of the ff. granulocyte has no phagocytic activity?

A

Basophils differ from eosinophils and neutrophils in that they are not phagocytes; instead, they degranulate to perform their immune function. They are intermediate in size between the other two classes of granulocytes.

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30
Q

Basohphil

A

Release histamine

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31
Q

Psittacosis length of tetracycline administration.

A

45 days

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32
Q

Stain for fungi

A

Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)

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33
Q

Agar Gel Immunodiffusion (AGID) procedure.

A

Serum is placed in a well in the agar and a MAP antigen preparation is placed in a nearby well. These two test components passively diffuse out of the well into the agar. If the serum sample contains antibodies to antigens of MAP they bind, forming an interlaced antigen-antibody complex that precipitates in the agar. The precipitate is visible to the unaided eye as a thin white line. This same technology is used for diagnosis of other diseases. The test is best interpreted by using a known positive control serum sample (provided in commercial kits) in the assay for comparison. This test has largely been replaced with more sensitive ELISA technology and commercial AGID kits for Johne’s disease are no longer available (in the US).

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34
Q

Agar Gel Immunodiffusion (AGID)?

A

A diagnostic test using serum (the fluid, non-cellular part of blood) that detects antibody produced in response to infection.

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35
Q

Positive control in AGID procedure is place in?

A

a. Center?

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36
Q

Risk Assessment

A

a systematic process of evaluating the potential risks that may be involved in a projected activity or undertaking.

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37
Q

Strangles

A

Strangles is a highly contagious bacterial disease caused by Streptococcus equi equi. It is characterized by swelling of the lymph nodes and the formation of abscesses, primarily in the head and neck. Disease severity varies and younger horses often exhibit more severe clinical signs than older horses.

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38
Q

S equi equi

A

Survival of the organism in the environment depends on temperature and humidity; it is susceptible to desiccation, extreme heat, and exposure to sunlight and must be protected within mucoid secretions to survive. Under ideal environmental circumstances, the organism can survive ~4 wk outside the host. Under field conditions, most organisms do not survive 96 hr.

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39
Q

clinical findings of Strangles

A
The incubation period of strangles is 3–14 days, and the first sign of infection is fever (103°–106°F [39.4°–41.1°C]). 
Within 24–48 hr of the initial fever spike, the horse will exhibit signs typical of strangles, including mucoid to mucopurulent nasal discharge, depression, and submandibular lymphadenopathy. 
Horses with retropharyngeal lymph node involvement have difficulty swallowing, inspiratory respiratory noise (compression of the dorsal pharyngeal wall), and extended head and neck. 
Older animals with residual immunity may develop an atypical or catarrhal form of the disease with mucoid nasal discharge, cough, and mild fever. 
Metastatic strangles (“bastard strangles”) is characterized by abscessation in other lymph nodes of the body, particularly the lymph nodes in the abdomen and, less frequently, the thorax.
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40
Q

The most common cause of brain abscess in horses, albeit rare.

A

S equi

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41
Q

Loefflers stain

A

Anthrax

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42
Q

Strangles dx.

A

Diagnosis is confirmed by bacterial culture of exudate from abscesses or nasal swab samples. CBC reveals neutrophilic leukocytosis and hyperfibrinogenemia. Serum biochemical analysis is typically unremarkable. Complicated cases may require endoscopic examination of the upper respiratory tract (including the guttural pouches), ultrasonographic examination of the retropharyngeal area, or radiographic examination of the skull to identify the location and extent of retropharyngeal abscesses.

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43
Q

Strangles tx.

A

Ruptured abscesses should be flushed with dilute (3%–5%) povidone-iodine solution for several days until discharge ceases. NSAIDs can be administered judiciously to reduce pain and fever and to improve appetite in horses with fulminant clinical disease. Tracheotomy may be required in horses with retropharyngeal abscessation and pharyngeal compression.

Administration of penicillin during the early stage of infection (≤24 hr of onset of fever) will usually arrest abscess formation. The disadvantage of early antimicrobial treatment is failure to mount a protective immune response, rendering horses susceptible to infection after cessation of therapy. If antimicrobial therapy is indicated, procaine penicillin (22,000 IU/kg, IM, bid) is the antibiotic of choice. Untreated guttural pouch infections can result in persistent guttural pouch empyema with or without chondroid formation.

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44
Q

Removal of chlorine in aquarium

A

Sodium thiosulfate

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45
Q

Ph of longanisa to inhibit/kill the Clostridium

A

< 5.3

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46
Q

Questions on Japanese B encephalitis. – transmission

A

Thru birds?

Culex tritaeniorhynchus (in humans)
The virus is maintained in a cycle between mosquitoes and vertebrate hosts, primarily pigs and wading birds.
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47
Q

Bacteria growing in high sugar content

a. Acinetobacter
b. Clostridium

A

b. Clostridium

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48
Q

Most pathogenic AI H5N1

A

H5N1

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49
Q

H5N1

A

Asian highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) A(H5N1) virus occurs mainly in birds and is highly contagious among them.

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50
Q

Most possible AI strain to be pandemic

a. H1N1
b. H3N2
c. H5N1
d. H7N3

A

b. H3N2 - killing 1 million people in 1968 (Pandemic Influenza flu

  • Asian H5N1 was first detected in humans in 1997 during a poultry outbrea
  • H7N3 Avian influenza that infects poultry in close proximity to humans is a concern because of its pandemic potential
  • H1N1 first global flu pandemic in 40 years.
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51
Q

Zoonotic disease of turtle

a. Campylobacter
b. Psuedomonas
c. Salmonella

A

c. Salmonella

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52
Q

Principle of coggins test

A

Immunodiffusion

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53
Q

Positive result of coggins test

A

Presence of line

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54
Q

Screening test for AI

a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. Viral identification

A

a. ELISA

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55
Q

Confirmatory test for virus

a. Immunodiffusion
b. PCR
c. LAMP

A

b. PCR

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56
Q

Bacteria with an earthy odor

A

Streptomyces

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57
Q

Detect agent in unvaccinated pigs.

a. PCR
b. ELISA
c. FAT

A

??

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58
Q

What vaccine does the WHO recommend for preexposure in man?

A

Rabies vaccine

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59
Q

In which organ does the IB vaccine react to?

A

IBV initially targets the epithelium of the respiratory tract, but depending on the viral strain it can also infect other organs, mostly the reproductive tract and the kidneys. New IBV variants, resulting in different genotypes, serotypes and pathotypes, are continuously reported

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60
Q

ELISA s/p(sample-to-positive) ratio

A

For AI. Samples with an S/P of 0.5 or greater contain anti-AI antibodies and are considered POSITIVE

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61
Q

Which is not zoonotic?

a. Ehrlichia
b. Toxoplasma
c. Babesia

A

a. Ehrlichia

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62
Q

Innate immunity cells

A

white blood cells that mediate innate immunity and include basophils, dendritic cells, eosinophils, Langerhans cells, mast cells, monocytes and macrophages, neutrophils and NK cells.

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63
Q

Purpose of adjuvant

A

An adjuvant is an ingredient used in some vaccines that helps create a stronger immune response in people receiving the vaccine. In other words, adjuvants help vaccines work better.

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64
Q

Diagnostic test for leptospirosis in dogs

A

MAT or ELISA

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65
Q

Microscopic test for Leptospira (Darkfield microscopy not included in the choices)

A

The most common way to diagnose leptospirosis is through serological tests either the Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT) which detects serovar-specific antibodies, or a solid-phase assay for the detection of Immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies.

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66
Q

Lesions of blue tongue

A

areas of most friction. Some affected sheep have severe swelling of the tongue, which may become cyanotic (‘blue tongue”) and even protrude from the mouth.

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67
Q

Cytokines

A

Cytokines are a large group of proteins, peptides or glycoproteins that are secreted by specific cells of immune system. Cytokines are a category of signaling molecules that mediate and regulate immunity, inflammation and hematopoiesis.

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68
Q

Period of occurrence of disease

A

Outbreak is a term used in epidemiology to describe an occurrence of disease greater than would otherwise be expected at a particular time

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69
Q

Type of study that determines risk factor?

a. Cross-sectional
b. Cohort
c. Case-control
d. Experimental

A

b. Cohort

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70
Q

Test for cryptococcosis

A

Culture is the gold standard but is too insensitive [7]. Antigen tests are more commonly used to detect cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) by either latex agglutination (LA) or enzyme immunoassay (EA).

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71
Q

Immunoglobulin present in milk of pigs.

a. IgA
b. IgG

A

a. IgA

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72
Q

Causes arthritis in man when milk is ingested (bacteria)

A

Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis

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73
Q

Responsible for cell-mediated immune response?

a. IL-1
b. 4
c. 11
d. 12

A

a. IL-1

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74
Q

Responsible for humoral immune response?

a. IL-1
b. 4
c. 11
d. 12

A

b. 4

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75
Q

Bacillus (Anthrax case) morphology/criteria?

a. Gram (-), etc
b. Gram (+), rods with round ends, etc
c. Gram (+), rods with square ends, etc

A

c. Gram (+), rods with square ends, etc

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76
Q

Animal H7N9 to human transmission?

A

Direct

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77
Q

Category of AI in Phil.?

a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. None

A

b. Epidemic

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78
Q

Mode of transmission of poultry to swine farm in a half kilometer distance?

a. Downhill wind
b. Nakawalang manok

A

a. Downhill wind

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79
Q

PRRS sample?

a. Semen
b. Urine

A

a. Semen - boar

pwede ring blood serum

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80
Q

Retrograde infection of Brucella is thru intra-mammary via teat canal. What is the mode of transmission of Brucella through milk?

a. Hematogenous
b. Iatrogenic

A

a. Hematogenous

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81
Q

Most likely cause of mastitis, EXCEPT?

a. Nakahiga sa (mud)
b. Undisinfected farrowing stall

A

b. Undisinfected farrowing stall

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82
Q

Emerging food zoonosis?

a. EHEC
b. Campylobacter
c. Yersinia

A

b. Campylobacter

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83
Q

Rabies booster in unvaccinated human according to WHO?

a. 0, 7, 21, 28 days
b. 0, 7, 14, 28 days

A

b. 0, 7, 14, 28 days

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84
Q

Gut immunity in presence of continuous pathogen?

a. Humoral
b. Passive
c. Active

A

a. Humoral

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85
Q

Adult RBC with nucleus?

a. Reticulocyte
b. Metarubricyte
c. Rubriblast

A

b. Metarubricyte

Reticulocyte - immature without nucleus
Rubriblast - earliest erythrocyte precursor in the erythrocytic series, preceding the basophilic erythroblast and having a large nucleus containing several nucleoli, surrounded by a small amount of cytoplasm

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86
Q

Responsible in anamnestic response?

A

Memory B cells

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87
Q

Determines mounting of immunity of body?

a. Plasma B cell
b. Helper T cells

A

b. Helper T cells

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88
Q

Innate immunity associated with reticuloendothelial system, EXCEPT?

a, Dendritic cells

b. Monocyte
c. Macrophage
d. Lymphocyte

A

a, Dendritic cells

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89
Q

Which will you use during examination of a skin scraping of ringworm under the microscope?

a. Mineral oil
b. 10% buffered formalin
c. 0.9% NaCl

A

should be Potassium Hydroxide (KOH)

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90
Q

What is the punishment if you have been found to maltreat an animal that caused its death?

A

1-2 years imprisonment and a fine less than 100,000 pesos

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91
Q

Acts allowed and not allowed in the Animal Welfare Act

A

(1) When it is done as part of the religious rituals of an established religion or sect or a ritual required by tribal or ethnic custom of indigenous cultural communities; however, leaders shall keep records in cooperation with the Committee on Animal Welfare;
(2) When the pet animal is afflicted with an incurable communicable disease as determined and certified by a duly licensed veterinarian;
(3) When the killing is deemed necessary to put an end to the misery suffered by the animal as determined and certified by a duly licensed veterinarian;
(4) When it is done to prevent an imminent danger to the life or limb of a human being;
(5) When done for the purpose of animal population control;
(6) When the animal is killed after it has been used in authorized research or experiments; and
(7) Any other ground analogous to the foregoing as determined and certified licensed veterinarian.

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92
Q

Not allowed in animal welfare act

A

No person, association, partnership, corporation, cooperative or any government agency or instrumentality including slaughter houses shall establish, maintain and operate any pet shop, kennel, veterinary clinic, veterinary hospital, stockyard, corral, stud farm or stock farm or zoo for the breeding, treatment, sale or trading, or training of animals without first securing from the Bureau of Animal Industry a certificate of registration therefor.

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93
Q

Types of healing

A

Primary Intention Healing. …
Secondary Intention Healing. …
Tertiary Intention Healing.

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94
Q

Most effective treatment for cribbing in horses

A

Surgery

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95
Q

Tool used for shaping of bones

A

Rongeur (state board)

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96
Q

According to RA 10631, killing of which animals is unlawful?

A

Any animal

horse and dog

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97
Q

Unwritten law

A

Commons

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98
Q

Epidural site for pig

A

Lumbosacral

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99
Q

2 surgeons need to pass each other in a room, how do they do it?

A

Back to back

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100
Q

First move in handling or restraining an animaL

a. Talk in a calm voice
b. Close possible exits

A

a. Talk in a calm voice

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101
Q

Treatment for frothy bloat

A
  • Passing a stomach tube is the best treatment for gassy bloat.
  • trochar and cannula
  • For frothy bloat, antifoaming agents - linseed oil and turpentine (old) ,dimethicone or polaxolene are easier to give as the effective dose is much smaller.
  • pasture should not be grazed for at least ten day (pag may outbreak), ll cattle on that pasture should be removed immediately and put onto a high fibre diet (hay or straw)
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102
Q

Halflife of oxytetracycline upon injection.

A

1-2 minutes

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103
Q

Examiners are composed of

A

3 licensed veterinarians

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104
Q

Meaning of CITES.

A

Convention for International Trade of Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora

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105
Q

Drug of choice for erysipelas.

A

penicillin

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106
Q

Clorsulon can be used for which pregnant animal.

A

cow

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107
Q

What disease results from ingestion of raw milk causing systemic infection in man and mastitis and abortion in cattle?

A

Mycobacterium or Brucells spp.

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108
Q

Castration of 8-month-old cat is what type of surgery?

A

Elective

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109
Q

How many towel forceps are in surgical pack?

A

Four

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110
Q

What instrument is used in holding tissue?

A

Forceps

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111
Q

What to do for non-productive cough in a healthy dog?

A

X-Ray

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112
Q

Most prominent sign of parturient paresis?

A

Sternal recumbency with head tucked in the flank

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113
Q

Prevalence with P/S ratio less than or equal to 0.04….?

a. 5.0
b. 0.4
c. 1000.00

A

???

114
Q

Penalty in animal welfare?

a. 1 to 2 years imprison, less than P100,000.00
b. 6 months, less than P50,000.00

A

a. 1 to 2 years imprison, less than P100,000.00

115
Q

Animals considered to be slaughtered in Animal Welfare Act:

A

All domestic food animals including deer, crocodile and rabbit

116
Q

Septic arthritis in adult horse?

a. Systemic penicillin
b. Articular lavage and systemic penicillin
c. Articular lavage, systemic penicillin & gentamicin, intraarticular kanamycin
d. Articular lavage only

A

c. Articular lavage, systemic penicillin & gentamicin, intraarticular kanamycin

117
Q

Drug for tapeworm? 2 questions

A

Praziquantel

118
Q

Granulation for open wound healing?

a. 1st intention
b. 2nd intention
c. 3rd intention
d. 4th intention

A

b. 2nd intention

119
Q

About instrument used related in carving bones

a. Curette
b. Rongeur

A

a. Curette

Rongeur - shape or cut bones

120
Q

Well aligned fracture with immovable cast. Prognosis?

A

Excellent

121
Q

Description of a cast?

A

An orthopedic cast, or simply cast, is a shell, frequently made from plaster or fiberglass, that encases a limb (or, in some cases, large portions of the body) to stabilize and hold anatomical structures—most often a broken bone (or bones), in place until healing is confirmed. It is similar in function to a splint.

122
Q

Can be a nidus in suturing cystotomy?

a. Catgut
b. Polyglactin
c. Polyglycon

A

a. Catgut

123
Q

Johne’s dsisease etiology.

A

Mycobacterium paratuberculosis

124
Q

Coggin’s test (syn. AGID)

A

Equine infectious anemia (syn. Swamp fever) (Lentivirus)

125
Q

Disease of respiratory system for young, reproductive system for adult.

A

PRRS

126
Q

Hypochromic microcytic anemia.

A

Iron deficiency

127
Q

XLD agar.

A

Salmonella

128
Q

AST (antibiotic sensitivity test).

A

Mueller hinton agar

129
Q

Requirement of APP.

A

V factor

130
Q

Primary lymphoid organ.

A
  • BONE MARROW : pinaka main( based on immuno books

- THYMUS

131
Q

Units for MCV.

A

fL (femtoliter)

132
Q

Units for MCH.

A

Picogram

133
Q

Units for MCHC.

A

g/dL

134
Q

Gram staining.

A

Mordant: iodine

135
Q

Produce histamine.

A

Mast cell, basophil

136
Q

Acute vs chonic inflammation.

A

Acute: neutrophil
Chronic: monocyte

137
Q

DNA viruses.

A

BBPROFA

138
Q

RNA viruses.

A

Positive and negative sense

139
Q

Red tap

A

Serum

140
Q

Violet tap

A

Plasma : EDTA

141
Q

Green tap

A

Heparin

142
Q

Immunoglobulin in milk.

A

IgA

143
Q

Viral isolation.

A

Chorioallantoic membrane (CAM)

144
Q

Viral infection isolated in joints of poultry.

A

Reovirus

145
Q

Epidemic tremor/ avian encephalomyelitis.

A

Picornavirus

146
Q

Rose bengal.

A

Brucella

147
Q

Sample handling and storage.

A

Refrigerate

148
Q

Systematic collection, analysis, interpretation and dissemination of health data.

A

Surveillance

149
Q

Occurrence of more cases of diseases than expected in a given area.

A

Epidemic

150
Q

New cases in a population.

A

Incidence

151
Q

Number of cases in a given population.

A

Prevalence

152
Q

Lactose fermenter.

A

Salmonella

153
Q

Hyperestrogenism in pig.

A

Fusarium graminearum (zearalenone)

154
Q

Black disease.

A

Clostridium novyi

155
Q

Black leg.

A

Cl. chauvoei

156
Q

PCR is for detetection of:

A

Antigen; DNA

157
Q

ELISA is for detetection of:.

A

Antibodies

158
Q

Nitrate poisoning, sample to collect:

A

Aqueous humor of the eye

159
Q

Hantavirus being transmitted to humans by:

A

Rodents

160
Q

Nipah virus reservoir host:

A

Fruit bats

161
Q

Transmission of EIA.

A

Blood sucking insects

162
Q

Found in meat juice?

a. Yersinia enterocolitica
b. E. coli

A

a. Yersinia enterocolitica

163
Q

Least used in testing virus in fruit bats?

a. FA
b. IgG, IgM titer

A

??

164
Q

Man with brucellosis should have a titer of?

a. 1:80
b. 1: 120
c. 1:160
d. 1:40

A

c. 1:160

165
Q

Responsible for high antigenicity?

a. capsule
b. spikes
c. cell wall
d. capsid

A

d. capsid

166
Q

How much increase to indicate infection?

A

4-fold

167
Q

Added to vaccines to enhance antigenicity or Ab response?

A

adjuvant

168
Q

Vaccination failure caused by man?

A

wrong storage temperature

169
Q

Does not lead to vaccination failure?

A

vaccinating during estrus

170
Q

Not a sign of pregnancy in cow?

a. enlargement of abdomen
b. not back in estrus
c. mucoid vulvar discharge
d. development of mammary gland

A

c. mucoid vulvar discharge

171
Q

Altricial except? (2qts)

A

Answer: ability to thermoregulate

172
Q

Epidemiology (2qts) Case: 1000 pigs, 500 infected, 20 died. Compute fore: (1) infectivity, (2) virulence

A

MAgompute kaaa!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

173
Q

Cryptococcus infection into man?

A

Dried feces

174
Q

Suppuration on bullet wound?

a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. E. Coli

A

???

175
Q

Advantage of iodine over alcohol and chlorhexidine?

a. maintained in presence of blood
b. bactericidal and sporicidal
c. coagualtion of protein

A

b. bactericidal and sporicidal

176
Q

Iodine used in fungal infection?

a. povidone iodine?
b. tincture of iodine
c. potassium iodide
d. Lugol’s iodine

A

a. povidone iodine

177
Q

Where to collect samples of BVD?

A

aspirate from unruptured vesicle

178
Q

Drug resistance gene transferred by?

A

bacteriophage

179
Q

Avian influenza –

A

Exotic in the Philippines

180
Q

Not type of sample collection –

a. random,
b. cluster,
c. selective,
d. stratified

A

c. selective,

181
Q

What iodine is used as mordant stain –

A

Lugols

182
Q

Apperance of Salmonella in microscope

A

pink rods

183
Q

Appearance of Bacillus in microscope

A

elongated rods (rod-like),bacilli occur as single cells (e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis), but may occur in pairs (diplobacillus) or form chains commonly refered to as streptococcus (e.g. Bacillus cereus).

184
Q

Apperance of Pasteurella in microscope –

A

Bipolar staining

185
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

blue-green pus bacteria

186
Q

Test for brucella –

A

AGID (Bengal test)

187
Q

Cause abortion at 4th – 6th month –

a. Brucella
b. Lepto

A

a. Brucella

188
Q

Kid ate in restaurant and had campylobacter infection –

A

roasted chicken

189
Q

Vaccine for ND –

A

apathogenic turkey strain

190
Q

Meaning of adjuvant

A

a substance which enhances the body’s immune response to an antigen.

191
Q

Pink eye causative agent –

a. Moraxella bovis (bovine),
b. Chlamydia ovis or Mycoplasma conjunctivae (goat and sheep)

A

ALL

192
Q

Causative agent of blackleg

A

Cl. chavoei

193
Q

Routine vaccination in goat –

a. brucella,
b. chlamydia,
c. e. coli?

A

c. e. coli?

pregnant - chlamydia

194
Q

Clostridial vaccine –

A

toxoid and adjuvant

195
Q

Disease without hemoglobinuria –

A

anaplasmosis

196
Q

Animal not affected by mad cow disease –

A

pig

197
Q

Control of CAE –

A

screen all

198
Q

Thrush –

A

candidiasis

199
Q

How is PED virus transmitted? –

A

Tire of truck? Fly?

200
Q

Regulation of shellfish in coastal areas, public health importance –

A

waste accumulation in shellfish, waste are dumped in coastal areas

201
Q

Disease connected with rodents?

A

Hanta

202
Q

Size of pores of mask used during AI investigation?

A

N95

203
Q

Test for brucella=

A

Rose Bengal test

204
Q

Medium for salmonella=

A

brilliant green agar

205
Q

Definition of endemic

A

The amount of a particular disease that is usually present in a community is referred to as the baseline or endemic level of the disease. This level is not necessarily the desired level, which may in fact be zero, but rather is the observed level. In the absence of intervention and assuming that the level is not high enough to deplete the pool of susceptible persons, the disease may continue to occur at this level indefinitely. Thus, the baseline level is often regarded as the expected level of the disease.

Endemic refers to the constant presence and/or usual prevalence of a disease or infectious agent in a population within a geographic area.

206
Q

Definition of pandemic

A

Pandemic refers to an epidemic that has spread over several countries or continents, usually affecting a large number of people.

207
Q

Definition of sporadic

A

Sporadic refers to a disease that occurs infrequently and irregularly.

208
Q

Definition of hyperendemic

A

refers to persistent, high levels of disease occurrence.

209
Q

Definition of epidemic

A

refers to an increase, often sudden, in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in that population in that area

210
Q

Definition of Outbreak

A

carries the same definition of epidemic, but is often used for a more limited geographic area.

211
Q

Definition of Cluster

A

refers to an aggregation of cases grouped in place and time that are suspected to be greater than the number expected, even though the expected number may not be known.

212
Q

Mordant in gram staining=

A

lugol’s solution ( iodine)

213
Q

In milk ring test, the ring formed at the reaction is the? Bacteria? Chemicals?

A

214
Q

Shiga toxin or shiga- like toxin=

A

ETEC ( E.coli)

215
Q

Test to detect added water in milk

A

Purity test: Boil milk on slow heat for 2-3 hours until it solidifies and become onerous (khoya). Rock solid, rough residue means the milk is adulterated while oily residue means it is of good quality.21 Jun 2019

216
Q

Which bacteria would most like likely be acquired after eating kinilaw? –

a. e.coli?
b. vibrio?
c. Listeria?

A

b. vibrio?

217
Q

Which bacteria would most like likely be acquired after eating not thoroughly cooked hamburger?

A

E. coli

218
Q

Can be molds at room temperature and yeast at body temperature=

A

dimorphic

219
Q

Bacterial diarrhea within “24 hr bug period”Salmonella diarrhea= 12-72 hours; Staph aureus= 1-6 hrs; C. botulinum= 16-18 hrs

A

,,,

220
Q

With vomiting and diarrhea?

A

Staphylococcus infection?

221
Q

Antirabies vaccine schedule in man?

a. 0, 7, 14, 21?
b. 0, 7, 14, 28?
c. 0, 7, 10, 14?

A

a.0, 7, 14, 21?

check mo to ulit

222
Q

A cattle exposed to flood can acquire=

A

leptospirosis

223
Q

Brucella can be found=

A

unpasteurized milk

224
Q

During post-mortem exam, the sublingual lymph node and spleen have lesions , what is the decision?

a. Condemn?
b. Pass?

A

….

225
Q

When does Abortion in brucella happens?

A

7 mos

226
Q

Factor V – found in

A

chocolate agar

227
Q

Bacterial cause of metritis=

A

E. coli

228
Q

Incubation period of HPAI=

A

7-10 days ( few days to 1 week)

229
Q

FMD and AI is classified as what type of disease in the Philippines=

A

Exotic

230
Q

Definition of exotic disease.

A

xotic diseases are infectious diseases that normally do not occur in the region of your pig farm either because they have never been present there or because they were eradicated and then kept out by government control measures.

231
Q

First to see a protozoan under a microscope?

A

Leuweenhoek

232
Q

Transmitter of orf=

A

mosquitoes

233
Q

Virus associated with hendra virus=

A

nipah virus (henipaviridae)

234
Q

Transmitter/ carrier of hendra=

A

flying foxes

235
Q

Period of bacterial growth wherein there is a quiescent period=

A

stationary

236
Q

Period of bacterial growth wherein there is no multiplication of bacteria=

A

lag phase

237
Q

What will you do if the first lab diagnosis of S. pyogenes in milk confirms positive?=

A

check the pre-milking teat hygiene

238
Q

Source of salmonella in chicken before slaughtering=

A

bird itself

239
Q

Source of salmonella in chicken after slaughtering=

A

evisceration/ cutting

240
Q

FXN of interferon=

A

anti viral agent

241
Q

Indication of below 6.5 pH of meat=

A

low keeping quality

242
Q

Disease which is associated with cockroach as transmitter=

a. TB,
b. Lepto,
c. Anthrax,
d. Clostridium

A

…..

243
Q

virus common in tumors of marine mammals=

A

pappilomavirus

244
Q

diagnostic test of PRRS= ELISA, RT-PCR, HAHI, precipitation test

A

,,,

245
Q

a substance produced by a microorganism that is effective in killing or inhibiting the growth of other microorganism

A

….

246
Q

test for antibiotic residue in meat

A

The SCAN-tests are based on direct application of meat fluid or homogenized egg or milk onto a growth medium seeded with a sensitive test bacterium. After overnight incubation, the presence of antibiotic residues is shown by the formation of growth inhibition zones around the sample holes.

247
Q

Type of reproduction of herpes virus-

A

budding

248
Q

Function of viral protein=

A

antigenic property

249
Q

Dead end host of rabies=

a. cattle
b. cat
c. bat
d. dog

A

a. cattle

250
Q

neck pitting in cattle is normal when it is =

A

1-2 seconds

251
Q

Sabbaraud’s dextrose agar=

A

fungi culture

252
Q

Downer animal=

A

pass as suspect

253
Q

Description of colony and color of brucella?

A

Coccobacilli and red

254
Q

Greenish like growth in frozen meat –

A

molds

255
Q

Data is seen in retrospective view is an example of? –

A

analytical study

256
Q

Bacteria that is short rod in shape and is found in the cotyledons of the fetus –

A

Brucella

257
Q

It does not care about the exposure nor diseased population –

A

cross sectional

258
Q

It cares about the exposure and non-exposure of the population –

A

cohort study

259
Q

Definition of concomitant variation

A

a method of scientific induction devised by J. S. Mill according to which a phenomenon varying in any way whenever another phenomenon varies in some particular way is a cause or effect of that phenomenon or is related to it through some fact of causation.

260
Q

Storing food below the environmental temperature –

A

refrigeration

261
Q

Rod shape bacteria –

A

E. coli

262
Q

Which of the following cannot be detected using Coomb’s test –

A

Heinz body anemia

263
Q

Function of interferon –

a. interfere with viral protein synthesis?
b. increase DNA synthesis of cell?
c. Act as a shield in a cell?

A

Interferons (IFNs) are proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, parasites or tumor cells. They allow for communication between cells to trigger the protective defenses of the immune system that eradicate pathogens or tumors.

Interferons are a large family of related cytokines first identified by their ability to confer resistance to viral infections. They are firmly established as components of the innate arm of the immune system providing rapid and broad protection against a wide variety of invading pathogens.

-Interferon is secreted by cells in response to stimulation by a virus or other foreign substance, but it does not directly inhibit the virus’s multiplication. Rather, it stimulates the infected cells and those nearby to produce proteins that prevent the virus from replicating within them.

264
Q

Interleukin that stimulates T-cell –

A

IL 2

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is one of a family of polypeptides that mediate interactions between leukocytes. It was initially called T-cell growth factor. It stimulates proliferation and enhances function of other T-cells, natural killer (NK) cells and B-cells.

265
Q

Interleukin that stimulates B-cell – IL 1? IL 2? IL 8? IL 12?

A

8 or 1 - google

Th2 cells also release the antiinflammatory interleukins, IL-4 and IL-10. These potent inhibitors of INF-gamma secretion by Th1 cells act to reduce cell-mediated immune activity. These two interleukins also stimulate activation of B lymphocytes and mast cells.

266
Q

Use of formalin in leptospira in urine sample? –

a. stabilized,
b. preserved,
c. prevent growth of the organism?

A

???

267
Q

Best describe an anaerobic bacteria

A

– cannot grow in the presence of oxygen

268
Q

Temperature which can kill Salmonela in cooking –

a. 70 C?
b. 212 C?
c. 50 C?

A

a. 70 C

Salmonella are destroyed at cooking temperatures above 150 degrees F. The major causes of salmonellosis are contamination of cooked foods and insufficient cooking.

269
Q

An example of acquired active immunization –

A

vaccination

270
Q

During inspection in a slaughter house, pigs showed hyperimmunity against Hog cholera because they were vaccinated 10 days ago, what is your judgement?

a. condem?
b. Reject slaughter?
c. Pass?
d. Suspect?

A

d. Suspect

271
Q

During inspection in a slaughter house, you figured out that the pigs had just recently farrowed 10 days ago, what will you do?

a. condem?
b. Reject slaughter?
c. Pass?
d. Suspect?

A

..

272
Q

Define hyphae

A

each of the branching filaments that make up the mycelium of a fungus.

273
Q

Which of the following is an example of a vehicle –

a. water, wind and land?
b. Tire of a vehicle?
c. An insect?

A

b. Tire of a vehicle?

c. An insect?

274
Q

An arthropod that transmit disease

A
  • vector
275
Q

Rabies is an example of

A

– arthropozoonoses

276
Q

Used to differentiate gram positive from gram negative bacteria –

A

gram stain

277
Q

This organism will only survive and replicates inside the living cell-

A

viruses

278
Q

Bacteria that release pyocyanin –

A

Pseudomonas

279
Q

Fungal specimen that came from nail and skin scraping –

A

potassium hydroxide

280
Q

What would be the major sign to be seen in Aeromonas hydrophila poisoning? (di ko alala pero parang ganito mga choices)

a. vomiting +++, diarrhea -
b. vomiting -, diarrhea +++
c. vomiting ++, diarrhea - -

A

….