MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards
1
Q
If yung prrs virus is napunta sa boots (bota/shoes) ng tao , anong tawag duon?
a. Fomite
b. Carrier
c. Vector
d. *
A
a. Fomite
2
Q
Bacteria responsible in food spoilage that can destroy at 60c.
A
Salmonella
3
Q
Bacteria that can cause spoilage to food even if refrigerated.
A
Enterobacteriaceae Salmonella E. coli Shigella Yersinia
4
Q
Pathogenic vs infective
A
Pathogenic -(of a bacterium, virus, or other microorganism) causing disease.
Infective -capable of causing infection.
“the infective eggs or larvae of the roundworm”
5
Q
Question about zheil-nelsen procedure
A
Ziehl Neelsen Acid-fast stain
Step 2: Smear Preparation
- Cover the smear with carbolfuchsin dye
- Dry heat for 2-5 minutes.
- Cool and rinse with Alcohol
- Wash the top and bottom of slide with water and clean the slide bottom well.
- Counterstain with Methylene Blue for 30 seconds to 1 minute.
6
Q
Acid fast take up the primary stain which turns out to be color?
A
pink
7
Q
Non-Acid fast take up the primary stain which turns out to be color?
A
blue
8
Q
Yersinia pestis is transmitted by.
a. flea b. tick c. mite d. *
A
a.flea
9
Q
Which protozoan 90 days sexual rest and isolated?
a. Brucella
b. Trichomonas
c. *
d. *
A
b. Trichomonas
10
Q
Why nitrate ingredient in bacon is controversial?
d. Explosive
e. Mutagenic
f. Carcinogenic
g. *
A
f. Carcinogenic
11
Q
Culture media.
A
Nutrient broth, nutrient agar and peptone water. Staphylococcus and Enterobacteriaceae grow in these media. media are blood agar and Lowenstein-Jensen media.
12
Q
Bacteria that can thrive in sugar?
A
Clostridium
Gluconobacter
13
Q
PED (Porcine epidemic diarrhea)
A
- not related to any other member of the Coronaviridae.
- virus persists in consecutive litters of pigs after weaning and after they lose their immunity from antibody in the milk
- pathogenesis and immune mechanisms are similar to those reported for TGE
- Oral infection results in viral replication in the epithelial cells of the small intestinal villi.
- Cells on colonic villi also become infected.
- No other tissue tropisms have been shown.
- Virus is excreted in the feces.
14
Q
a zoonotic disease affecting a broad range of species. Naturally occurring infections can cause illnesses that range from an acute, highly fatal form to a less acute and less serious clinical illness that can also be fatal.
A
Anthrax
15
Q
Which of the following species is most likely to develop acute fatal disease with anthrax infection?
A
Cattle
Infection in cattle and wild herbivores produces an abrupt fever followed by rapid decline and sudden death. Often, the course of disease is not observed, and animals are found dead on pasture. Sheep are also highly susceptible to anthrax. Dogs (B), humans (C), and pigs (D) are more resistant and usually develop a more mild and chronic form of illness that is often amenable to postexposure antibiotic treatment.
16
Q
Anthrax is controlled in endemic areas through a variety of measures that include annual vaccination, rapid detection and reporting, treatment of exposed asymptomatic animals, and burning or burial of suspected and confirmed cases. Which of these measures, if used alone, would most effectively prevent cases of anthrax disease?
A. Annual vaccination
B. Rapid detection and reporting
C. Treatment of asymptomatic animals
D. Burning or burial of suspect and confirmed cases
A
A. Annual vaccination
Annual vaccination of all grazing animals in endemic areas is the most effective measure to prevent disease outbreaks. The other measures (B, C, D) are control measures important to minimize impact during an outbreak. Treatment of asymptomatic, exposed animals (C) is with a 7- to 10-day course of antibiotics followed by vaccination.
17
Q
FIP caused by coronavirus.. FIP can also infect?
A
PIG
18
Q
CASE FATALITY RATE computation.
A
- Number died/ Number of affected
19
Q
Can’t be killed in a medium with 7.5 NACL ?
A
STAPHYLOCOCCUS
20
Q
C3
A
C3 convertase is a product of all the pathways triggering the complement cascade and is responsible for converting factor C3 into C3a and C3b.
21
Q
Not seen in mucous membrane.
a. IgE
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgA
A
IgE sinagot ko, di ko ulit sure.
22
Q
Salmonella in XLD agar?
A
PINK COLONIES WITH BLACK CENTER
23
Q
Medium for salmonella.
A
BRILLIANT GREEN AGAR
24
Q
Salmonella can’t ferment what sugar?
A
LACTOSE
25
Yersinia pestis transmission Between humans
bite of rodent fleas or more rarely from infected domestic cats, handling of infected animal tissue, inhalation of aerosolized droplets, or from laboratory exposure. The flea ingests the organism while feeding on a bacteremic host.
26
Difference between hendra and nipah
Hendra virus is a virus that infects large fruit bats (flying foxes). Occasionally the virus can spread from flying foxes to horses and horses can then pass the infection on to humans. A small number of people who had very close contact with infected horses have developed Hendra virus infection.
Nipah virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus, meaning that it can spread between animals and people. Fruit bats, also called flying foxes, are the animal reservoir for NiV in nature. Nipah virus is also known to cause illness in pigs and people. barking pig syndrome.
27
Surveillance definition
Epidemiological surveillance is defined as the “ongoing systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health data that are essential to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice”
28
First line of defense
neutrophil
29
Which of the ff. granulocyte has no phagocytic activity?
Basophils differ from eosinophils and neutrophils in that they are not phagocytes; instead, they degranulate to perform their immune function. They are intermediate in size between the other two classes of granulocytes.
30
Basohphil
Release histamine
31
Psittacosis length of tetracycline administration.
45 days
32
Stain for fungi
Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)
33
Agar Gel Immunodiffusion (AGID) procedure.
Serum is placed in a well in the agar and a MAP antigen preparation is placed in a nearby well. These two test components passively diffuse out of the well into the agar. If the serum sample contains antibodies to antigens of MAP they bind, forming an interlaced antigen-antibody complex that precipitates in the agar. The precipitate is visible to the unaided eye as a thin white line. This same technology is used for diagnosis of other diseases. The test is best interpreted by using a known positive control serum sample (provided in commercial kits) in the assay for comparison. This test has largely been replaced with more sensitive ELISA technology and commercial AGID kits for Johne’s disease are no longer available (in the US).
34
Agar Gel Immunodiffusion (AGID)?
A diagnostic test using serum (the fluid, non-cellular part of blood) that detects antibody produced in response to infection.
35
Positive control in AGID procedure is place in?
a. Center?
36
Risk Assessment
a systematic process of evaluating the potential risks that may be involved in a projected activity or undertaking.
37
Strangles
Strangles is a highly contagious bacterial disease caused by Streptococcus equi equi. It is characterized by swelling of the lymph nodes and the formation of abscesses, primarily in the head and neck. Disease severity varies and younger horses often exhibit more severe clinical signs than older horses.
38
S equi equi
Survival of the organism in the environment depends on temperature and humidity; it is susceptible to desiccation, extreme heat, and exposure to sunlight and must be protected within mucoid secretions to survive. Under ideal environmental circumstances, the organism can survive ~4 wk outside the host. Under field conditions, most organisms do not survive 96 hr.
39
clinical findings of Strangles
```
The incubation period of strangles is 3–14 days, and the first sign of infection is fever (103°–106°F [39.4°–41.1°C]).
Within 24–48 hr of the initial fever spike, the horse will exhibit signs typical of strangles, including mucoid to mucopurulent nasal discharge, depression, and submandibular lymphadenopathy.
Horses with retropharyngeal lymph node involvement have difficulty swallowing, inspiratory respiratory noise (compression of the dorsal pharyngeal wall), and extended head and neck.
Older animals with residual immunity may develop an atypical or catarrhal form of the disease with mucoid nasal discharge, cough, and mild fever.
Metastatic strangles (“bastard strangles”) is characterized by abscessation in other lymph nodes of the body, particularly the lymph nodes in the abdomen and, less frequently, the thorax.
```
40
The most common cause of brain abscess in horses, albeit rare.
S equi
41
Loefflers stain
Anthrax
42
Strangles dx.
Diagnosis is confirmed by bacterial culture of exudate from abscesses or nasal swab samples. CBC reveals neutrophilic leukocytosis and hyperfibrinogenemia. Serum biochemical analysis is typically unremarkable. Complicated cases may require endoscopic examination of the upper respiratory tract (including the guttural pouches), ultrasonographic examination of the retropharyngeal area, or radiographic examination of the skull to identify the location and extent of retropharyngeal abscesses.
43
Strangles tx.
Ruptured abscesses should be flushed with dilute (3%–5%) povidone-iodine solution for several days until discharge ceases. NSAIDs can be administered judiciously to reduce pain and fever and to improve appetite in horses with fulminant clinical disease. Tracheotomy may be required in horses with retropharyngeal abscessation and pharyngeal compression.
Administration of penicillin during the early stage of infection (≤24 hr of onset of fever) will usually arrest abscess formation. The disadvantage of early antimicrobial treatment is failure to mount a protective immune response, rendering horses susceptible to infection after cessation of therapy. If antimicrobial therapy is indicated, procaine penicillin (22,000 IU/kg, IM, bid) is the antibiotic of choice. Untreated guttural pouch infections can result in persistent guttural pouch empyema with or without chondroid formation.
44
Removal of chlorine in aquarium
Sodium thiosulfate
45
Ph of longanisa to inhibit/kill the Clostridium
< 5.3
46
Questions on Japanese B encephalitis. – transmission
Thru birds?
```
Culex tritaeniorhynchus (in humans)
The virus is maintained in a cycle between mosquitoes and vertebrate hosts, primarily pigs and wading birds.
```
47
Bacteria growing in high sugar content
a. Acinetobacter
b. Clostridium
b. Clostridium
48
Most pathogenic AI H5N1
H5N1
49
H5N1
Asian highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) A(H5N1) virus occurs mainly in birds and is highly contagious among them.
50
Most possible AI strain to be pandemic
a. H1N1
b. H3N2
c. H5N1
d. H7N3
b. H3N2 - killing 1 million people in 1968 (Pandemic Influenza flu
- Asian H5N1 was first detected in humans in 1997 during a poultry outbrea
- H7N3 Avian influenza that infects poultry in close proximity to humans is a concern because of its pandemic potential
- H1N1 first global flu pandemic in 40 years.
51
Zoonotic disease of turtle
a. Campylobacter
b. Psuedomonas
c. Salmonella
c. Salmonella
52
Principle of coggins test
Immunodiffusion
53
Positive result of coggins test
Presence of line
54
Screening test for AI
a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. Viral identification
a. ELISA
55
Confirmatory test for virus
a. Immunodiffusion
b. PCR
c. LAMP
b. PCR
56
Bacteria with an earthy odor
Streptomyces
57
Detect agent in unvaccinated pigs.
a. PCR
b. ELISA
c. FAT
??
58
What vaccine does the WHO recommend for preexposure in man?
Rabies vaccine
59
In which organ does the IB vaccine react to?
IBV initially targets the epithelium of the respiratory tract, but depending on the viral strain it can also infect other organs, mostly the reproductive tract and the kidneys. New IBV variants, resulting in different genotypes, serotypes and pathotypes, are continuously reported
60
ELISA s/p(sample-to-positive) ratio
For AI. Samples with an S/P of 0.5 or greater contain anti-AI antibodies and are considered POSITIVE
61
Which is not zoonotic?
a. Ehrlichia
b. Toxoplasma
c. Babesia
a. Ehrlichia
62
Innate immunity cells
white blood cells that mediate innate immunity and include basophils, dendritic cells, eosinophils, Langerhans cells, mast cells, monocytes and macrophages, neutrophils and NK cells.
63
Purpose of adjuvant
An adjuvant is an ingredient used in some vaccines that helps create a stronger immune response in people receiving the vaccine. In other words, adjuvants help vaccines work better.
64
Diagnostic test for leptospirosis in dogs
MAT or ELISA
65
Microscopic test for Leptospira (Darkfield microscopy not included in the choices)
The most common way to diagnose leptospirosis is through serological tests either the Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT) which detects serovar-specific antibodies, or a solid-phase assay for the detection of Immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies.
66
Lesions of blue tongue
areas of most friction. Some affected sheep have severe swelling of the tongue, which may become cyanotic ('blue tongue”) and even protrude from the mouth.
67
Cytokines
Cytokines are a large group of proteins, peptides or glycoproteins that are secreted by specific cells of immune system. Cytokines are a category of signaling molecules that mediate and regulate immunity, inflammation and hematopoiesis.
68
Period of occurrence of disease
Outbreak is a term used in epidemiology to describe an occurrence of disease greater than would otherwise be expected at a particular time
69
Type of study that determines risk factor?
a. Cross-sectional
b. Cohort
c. Case-control
d. Experimental
b. Cohort
70
Test for cryptococcosis
Culture is the gold standard but is too insensitive [7]. Antigen tests are more commonly used to detect cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) by either latex agglutination (LA) or enzyme immunoassay (EA).
71
Immunoglobulin present in milk of pigs.
a. IgA
b. IgG
a. IgA
72
Causes arthritis in man when milk is ingested (bacteria)
Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis
73
Responsible for cell-mediated immune response?
a. IL-1
b. 4
c. 11
d. 12
a. IL-1
74
Responsible for humoral immune response?
a. IL-1
b. 4
c. 11
d. 12
b. 4
75
Bacillus (Anthrax case) morphology/criteria?
a. Gram (-), etc
b. Gram (+), rods with round ends, etc
c. Gram (+), rods with square ends, etc
c. Gram (+), rods with square ends, etc
76
Animal H7N9 to human transmission?
Direct
77
Category of AI in Phil.?
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. None
b. Epidemic
78
Mode of transmission of poultry to swine farm in a half kilometer distance?
a. Downhill wind
b. Nakawalang manok
a. Downhill wind
79
PRRS sample?
a. Semen
b. Urine
a. Semen - boar
pwede ring blood serum
80
Retrograde infection of Brucella is thru intra-mammary via teat canal. What is the mode of transmission of Brucella through milk?
a. Hematogenous
b. Iatrogenic
a. Hematogenous
81
Most likely cause of mastitis, EXCEPT?
a. Nakahiga sa (mud)
b. Undisinfected farrowing stall
b. Undisinfected farrowing stall
82
Emerging food zoonosis?
a. EHEC
b. Campylobacter
c. Yersinia
b. Campylobacter
83
Rabies booster in unvaccinated human according to WHO?
a. 0, 7, 21, 28 days
b. 0, 7, 14, 28 days
b. 0, 7, 14, 28 days
84
Gut immunity in presence of continuous pathogen?
a. Humoral
b. Passive
c. Active
a. Humoral
85
Adult RBC with nucleus?
a. Reticulocyte
b. Metarubricyte
c. Rubriblast
b. Metarubricyte
Reticulocyte - immature without nucleus
Rubriblast - earliest erythrocyte precursor in the erythrocytic series, preceding the basophilic erythroblast and having a large nucleus containing several nucleoli, surrounded by a small amount of cytoplasm
86
Responsible in anamnestic response?
Memory B cells
87
Determines mounting of immunity of body?
a. Plasma B cell
b. Helper T cells
b. Helper T cells
88
Innate immunity associated with reticuloendothelial system, EXCEPT?
a, Dendritic cells
b. Monocyte
c. Macrophage
d. Lymphocyte
a, Dendritic cells
89
Which will you use during examination of a skin scraping of ringworm under the microscope?
a. Mineral oil
b. 10% buffered formalin
c. 0.9% NaCl
should be Potassium Hydroxide (KOH)
90
What is the punishment if you have been found to maltreat an animal that caused its death?
1-2 years imprisonment and a fine less than 100,000 pesos
91
Acts allowed and not allowed in the Animal Welfare Act
(1) When it is done as part of the religious rituals of an established religion or sect or a ritual required by tribal or ethnic custom of indigenous cultural communities; however, leaders shall keep records in cooperation with the Committee on Animal Welfare;
(2) When the pet animal is afflicted with an incurable communicable disease as determined and certified by a duly licensed veterinarian;
(3) When the killing is deemed necessary to put an end to the misery suffered by the animal as determined and certified by a duly licensed veterinarian;
(4) When it is done to prevent an imminent danger to the life or limb of a human being;
(5) When done for the purpose of animal population control;
(6) When the animal is killed after it has been used in authorized research or experiments; and
(7) Any other ground analogous to the foregoing as determined and certified licensed veterinarian.
92
Not allowed in animal welfare act
No person, association, partnership, corporation, cooperative or any government agency or instrumentality including slaughter houses shall establish, maintain and operate any pet shop, kennel, veterinary clinic, veterinary hospital, stockyard, corral, stud farm or stock farm or zoo for the breeding, treatment, sale or trading, or training of animals without first securing from the Bureau of Animal Industry a certificate of registration therefor.
93
Types of healing
Primary Intention Healing. ...
Secondary Intention Healing. ...
Tertiary Intention Healing.
94
Most effective treatment for cribbing in horses
Surgery
95
Tool used for shaping of bones
Rongeur (state board)
96
According to RA 10631, killing of which animals is unlawful?
Any animal
| horse and dog
97
Unwritten law
Commons
98
Epidural site for pig
Lumbosacral
99
2 surgeons need to pass each other in a room, how do they do it?
Back to back
100
First move in handling or restraining an animaL
a. Talk in a calm voice
b. Close possible exits
a. Talk in a calm voice
101
Treatment for frothy bloat
- Passing a stomach tube is the best treatment for gassy bloat.
- trochar and cannula
- For frothy bloat, antifoaming agents - linseed oil and turpentine (old) ,dimethicone or polaxolene are easier to give as the effective dose is much smaller.
- pasture should not be grazed for at least ten day (pag may outbreak), ll cattle on that pasture should be removed immediately and put onto a high fibre diet (hay or straw)
102
Halflife of oxytetracycline upon injection.
1-2 minutes
103
Examiners are composed of
3 licensed veterinarians
104
Meaning of CITES.
Convention for International Trade of Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
105
Drug of choice for erysipelas.
penicillin
106
Clorsulon can be used for which pregnant animal.
cow
107
What disease results from ingestion of raw milk causing systemic infection in man and mastitis and abortion in cattle?
Mycobacterium or Brucells spp.
108
Castration of 8-month-old cat is what type of surgery?
Elective
109
How many towel forceps are in surgical pack?
Four
110
What instrument is used in holding tissue?
Forceps
111
What to do for non-productive cough in a healthy dog?
X-Ray
112
Most prominent sign of parturient paresis?
Sternal recumbency with head tucked in the flank
113
Prevalence with P/S ratio less than or equal to 0.04….?
a. 5.0
b. 0.4
c. 1000.00
???
114
Penalty in animal welfare?
a. 1 to 2 years imprison, less than P100,000.00
b. 6 months, less than P50,000.00
a. 1 to 2 years imprison, less than P100,000.00
115
Animals considered to be slaughtered in Animal Welfare Act:
All domestic food animals including deer, crocodile and rabbit
116
Septic arthritis in adult horse?
a. Systemic penicillin
b. Articular lavage and systemic penicillin
c. Articular lavage, systemic penicillin & gentamicin, intraarticular kanamycin
d. Articular lavage only
c. Articular lavage, systemic penicillin & gentamicin, intraarticular kanamycin
117
Drug for tapeworm? 2 questions
Praziquantel
118
Granulation for open wound healing?
a. 1st intention
b. 2nd intention
c. 3rd intention
d. 4th intention
b. 2nd intention
119
About instrument used related in carving bones
a. Curette
b. Rongeur
a. Curette
Rongeur - shape or cut bones
120
Well aligned fracture with immovable cast. Prognosis?
Excellent
121
Description of a cast?
An orthopedic cast, or simply cast, is a shell, frequently made from plaster or fiberglass, that encases a limb (or, in some cases, large portions of the body) to stabilize and hold anatomical structures—most often a broken bone (or bones), in place until healing is confirmed. It is similar in function to a splint.
122
Can be a nidus in suturing cystotomy?
a. Catgut
b. Polyglactin
c. Polyglycon
a. Catgut
123
Johne’s dsisease etiology.
Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
124
Coggin’s test (syn. AGID)
Equine infectious anemia (syn. Swamp fever) (Lentivirus)
125
Disease of respiratory system for young, reproductive system for adult.
PRRS
126
Hypochromic microcytic anemia.
Iron deficiency
127
XLD agar.
Salmonella
128
AST (antibiotic sensitivity test).
Mueller hinton agar
129
Requirement of APP.
V factor
130
Primary lymphoid organ.
- BONE MARROW : pinaka main( based on immuno books
| - THYMUS
131
Units for MCV.
fL (femtoliter)
132
Units for MCH.
Picogram
133
Units for MCHC.
g/dL
134
Gram staining.
Mordant: iodine
135
Produce histamine.
Mast cell, basophil
136
Acute vs chonic inflammation.
Acute: neutrophil
Chronic: monocyte
137
DNA viruses.
BBPROFA
138
RNA viruses.
Positive and negative sense
139
Red tap
Serum
140
Violet tap
Plasma : EDTA
141
Green tap
Heparin
142
Immunoglobulin in milk.
IgA
143
Viral isolation.
Chorioallantoic membrane (CAM)
144
Viral infection isolated in joints of poultry.
Reovirus
145
Epidemic tremor/ avian encephalomyelitis.
Picornavirus
146
Rose bengal.
Brucella
147
Sample handling and storage.
Refrigerate
148
Systematic collection, analysis, interpretation and dissemination of health data.
Surveillance
149
Occurrence of more cases of diseases than expected in a given area.
Epidemic
150
New cases in a population.
Incidence
151
Number of cases in a given population.
Prevalence
152
Lactose fermenter.
Salmonella
153
Hyperestrogenism in pig.
Fusarium graminearum (zearalenone)
154
Black disease.
Clostridium novyi
155
Black leg.
Cl. chauvoei
156
PCR is for detetection of:
Antigen; DNA
157
ELISA is for detetection of:.
Antibodies
158
Nitrate poisoning, sample to collect:
Aqueous humor of the eye
159
Hantavirus being transmitted to humans by:
Rodents
160
Nipah virus reservoir host:
Fruit bats
161
Transmission of EIA.
Blood sucking insects
162
Found in meat juice?
a. Yersinia enterocolitica
b. E. coli
a. Yersinia enterocolitica
163
Least used in testing virus in fruit bats?
a. FA
b. IgG, IgM titer
??
164
Man with brucellosis should have a titer of?
a. 1:80
b. 1: 120
c. 1:160
d. 1:40
c. 1:160
165
Responsible for high antigenicity?
a. capsule
b. spikes
c. cell wall
d. capsid
d. capsid
166
How much increase to indicate infection?
4-fold
167
Added to vaccines to enhance antigenicity or Ab response?
adjuvant
168
Vaccination failure caused by man?
wrong storage temperature
169
Does not lead to vaccination failure?
vaccinating during estrus
170
Not a sign of pregnancy in cow?
a. enlargement of abdomen
b. not back in estrus
c. mucoid vulvar discharge
d. development of mammary gland
c. mucoid vulvar discharge
171
Altricial except? (2qts)
Answer: ability to thermoregulate
172
Epidemiology (2qts) Case: 1000 pigs, 500 infected, 20 died. Compute fore: (1) infectivity, (2) virulence
MAgompute kaaa!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
173
Cryptococcus infection into man?
Dried feces
174
Suppuration on bullet wound?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. E. Coli
???
175
Advantage of iodine over alcohol and chlorhexidine?
a. maintained in presence of blood
b. bactericidal and sporicidal
c. coagualtion of protein
b. bactericidal and sporicidal
176
Iodine used in fungal infection?
a. povidone iodine?
b. tincture of iodine
c. potassium iodide
d. Lugol’s iodine
a. povidone iodine
177
Where to collect samples of BVD?
aspirate from unruptured vesicle
178
Drug resistance gene transferred by?
bacteriophage
179
Avian influenza –
Exotic in the Philippines
180
Not type of sample collection –
a. random,
b. cluster,
c. selective,
d. stratified
c. selective,
181
What iodine is used as mordant stain –
Lugols
182
Apperance of Salmonella in microscope
pink rods
183
Appearance of Bacillus in microscope
elongated rods (rod-like),bacilli occur as single cells (e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis), but may occur in pairs (diplobacillus) or form chains commonly refered to as streptococcus (e.g. Bacillus cereus).
184
Apperance of Pasteurella in microscope –
Bipolar staining
185
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
blue-green pus bacteria
186
Test for brucella –
AGID (Bengal test)
187
Cause abortion at 4th – 6th month –
a. Brucella
b. Lepto
a. Brucella
188
Kid ate in restaurant and had campylobacter infection –
roasted chicken
189
Vaccine for ND –
apathogenic turkey strain
190
Meaning of adjuvant
a substance which enhances the body's immune response to an antigen.
191
Pink eye causative agent –
a. Moraxella bovis (bovine),
b. Chlamydia ovis or Mycoplasma conjunctivae (goat and sheep)
ALL
192
Causative agent of blackleg
Cl. chavoei
193
Routine vaccination in goat –
a. brucella,
b. chlamydia,
c. e. coli?
c. e. coli?
pregnant - chlamydia
194
Clostridial vaccine –
toxoid and adjuvant
195
Disease without hemoglobinuria –
anaplasmosis
196
Animal not affected by mad cow disease –
pig
197
Control of CAE –
screen all
198
Thrush –
candidiasis
199
How is PED virus transmitted? –
Tire of truck? Fly?
200
Regulation of shellfish in coastal areas, public health importance –
waste accumulation in shellfish, waste are dumped in coastal areas
201
Disease connected with rodents?
Hanta
202
Size of pores of mask used during AI investigation?
N95
203
Test for brucella=
Rose Bengal test
204
Medium for salmonella=
brilliant green agar
205
Definition of endemic
The amount of a particular disease that is usually present in a community is referred to as the baseline or endemic level of the disease. This level is not necessarily the desired level, which may in fact be zero, but rather is the observed level. In the absence of intervention and assuming that the level is not high enough to deplete the pool of susceptible persons, the disease may continue to occur at this level indefinitely. Thus, the baseline level is often regarded as the expected level of the disease.
Endemic refers to the constant presence and/or usual prevalence of a disease or infectious agent in a population within a geographic area.
206
Definition of pandemic
Pandemic refers to an epidemic that has spread over several countries or continents, usually affecting a large number of people.
207
Definition of sporadic
Sporadic refers to a disease that occurs infrequently and irregularly.
208
Definition of hyperendemic
refers to persistent, high levels of disease occurrence.
209
Definition of epidemic
refers to an increase, often sudden, in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in that population in that area
210
Definition of Outbreak
carries the same definition of epidemic, but is often used for a more limited geographic area.
211
Definition of Cluster
refers to an aggregation of cases grouped in place and time that are suspected to be greater than the number expected, even though the expected number may not be known.
212
Mordant in gram staining=
lugol’s solution ( iodine)
213
In milk ring test, the ring formed at the reaction is the? Bacteria? Chemicals?
...
214
Shiga toxin or shiga- like toxin=
ETEC ( E.coli)
215
Test to detect added water in milk
Purity test: Boil milk on slow heat for 2-3 hours until it solidifies and become onerous (khoya). Rock solid, rough residue means the milk is adulterated while oily residue means it is of good quality.21 Jun 2019
216
Which bacteria would most like likely be acquired after eating kinilaw? –
a. e.coli?
b. vibrio?
c. Listeria?
b. vibrio?
217
Which bacteria would most like likely be acquired after eating not thoroughly cooked hamburger?
E. coli
218
Can be molds at room temperature and yeast at body temperature=
dimorphic
219
Bacterial diarrhea within “24 hr bug period”Salmonella diarrhea= 12-72 hours; Staph aureus= 1-6 hrs; C. botulinum= 16-18 hrs
,,,
220
With vomiting and diarrhea?
Staphylococcus infection?
221
Antirabies vaccine schedule in man?
a. 0, 7, 14, 21?
b. 0, 7, 14, 28?
c. 0, 7, 10, 14?
a.0, 7, 14, 21?
check mo to ulit
222
A cattle exposed to flood can acquire=
leptospirosis
223
Brucella can be found=
unpasteurized milk
224
During post-mortem exam, the sublingual lymph node and spleen have lesions , what is the decision?
a. Condemn?
b. Pass?
....
225
When does Abortion in brucella happens?
7 mos
226
Factor V – found in
chocolate agar
227
Bacterial cause of metritis=
E. coli
228
Incubation period of HPAI=
7-10 days ( few days to 1 week)
229
FMD and AI is classified as what type of disease in the Philippines=
Exotic
230
Definition of exotic disease.
xotic diseases are infectious diseases that normally do not occur in the region of your pig farm either because they have never been present there or because they were eradicated and then kept out by government control measures.
231
First to see a protozoan under a microscope?
Leuweenhoek
232
Transmitter of orf=
mosquitoes
233
Virus associated with hendra virus=
nipah virus (henipaviridae)
234
Transmitter/ carrier of hendra=
flying foxes
235
Period of bacterial growth wherein there is a quiescent period=
stationary
236
Period of bacterial growth wherein there is no multiplication of bacteria=
lag phase
237
What will you do if the first lab diagnosis of S. pyogenes in milk confirms positive?=
check the pre-milking teat hygiene
238
Source of salmonella in chicken before slaughtering=
bird itself
239
Source of salmonella in chicken after slaughtering=
evisceration/ cutting
240
FXN of interferon=
anti viral agent
241
Indication of below 6.5 pH of meat=
low keeping quality
242
Disease which is associated with cockroach as transmitter=
a. TB,
b. Lepto,
c. Anthrax,
d. Clostridium
.....
243
virus common in tumors of marine mammals=
pappilomavirus
244
diagnostic test of PRRS= ELISA, RT-PCR, HAHI, precipitation test
,,,
245
a substance produced by a microorganism that is effective in killing or inhibiting the growth of other microorganism
....
246
test for antibiotic residue in meat
The SCAN-tests are based on direct application of meat fluid or homogenized egg or milk onto a growth medium seeded with a sensitive test bacterium. After overnight incubation, the presence of antibiotic residues is shown by the formation of growth inhibition zones around the sample holes.
247
Type of reproduction of herpes virus-
budding
248
Function of viral protein=
antigenic property
249
Dead end host of rabies=
a. cattle
b. cat
c. bat
d. dog
a. cattle
250
neck pitting in cattle is normal when it is =
1-2 seconds
251
Sabbaraud’s dextrose agar=
fungi culture
252
Downer animal=
pass as suspect
253
Description of colony and color of brucella?
Coccobacilli and red
254
Greenish like growth in frozen meat –
molds
255
Data is seen in retrospective view is an example of? –
analytical study
256
Bacteria that is short rod in shape and is found in the cotyledons of the fetus –
Brucella
257
It does not care about the exposure nor diseased population –
cross sectional
258
It cares about the exposure and non-exposure of the population –
cohort study
259
Definition of concomitant variation
a method of scientific induction devised by J. S. Mill according to which a phenomenon varying in any way whenever another phenomenon varies in some particular way is a cause or effect of that phenomenon or is related to it through some fact of causation.
260
Storing food below the environmental temperature –
refrigeration
261
Rod shape bacteria –
E. coli
262
Which of the following cannot be detected using Coomb’s test –
Heinz body anemia
263
Function of interferon –
a. interfere with viral protein synthesis?
b. increase DNA synthesis of cell?
c. Act as a shield in a cell?
Interferons (IFNs) are proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, parasites or tumor cells. They allow for communication between cells to trigger the protective defenses of the immune system that eradicate pathogens or tumors.
Interferons are a large family of related cytokines first identified by their ability to confer resistance to viral infections. They are firmly established as components of the innate arm of the immune system providing rapid and broad protection against a wide variety of invading pathogens.
-Interferon is secreted by cells in response to stimulation by a virus or other foreign substance, but it does not directly inhibit the virus's multiplication. Rather, it stimulates the infected cells and those nearby to produce proteins that prevent the virus from replicating within them.
264
Interleukin that stimulates T-cell –
IL 2
Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is one of a family of polypeptides that mediate interactions between leukocytes. It was initially called T-cell growth factor. It stimulates proliferation and enhances function of other T-cells, natural killer (NK) cells and B-cells.
265
Interleukin that stimulates B-cell – IL 1? IL 2? IL 8? IL 12?
8 or 1 - google
Th2 cells also release the antiinflammatory interleukins, IL-4 and IL-10. These potent inhibitors of INF-gamma secretion by Th1 cells act to reduce cell-mediated immune activity. These two interleukins also stimulate activation of B lymphocytes and mast cells.
266
Use of formalin in leptospira in urine sample? –
a. stabilized,
b. preserved,
c. prevent growth of the organism?
???
267
Best describe an anaerobic bacteria
– cannot grow in the presence of oxygen
268
Temperature which can kill Salmonela in cooking –
a. 70 C?
b. 212 C?
c. 50 C?
a. 70 C
Salmonella are destroyed at cooking temperatures above 150 degrees F. The major causes of salmonellosis are contamination of cooked foods and insufficient cooking.
269
An example of acquired active immunization –
vaccination
270
During inspection in a slaughter house, pigs showed hyperimmunity against Hog cholera because they were vaccinated 10 days ago, what is your judgement?
a. condem?
b. Reject slaughter?
c. Pass?
d. Suspect?
d. Suspect
271
During inspection in a slaughter house, you figured out that the pigs had just recently farrowed 10 days ago, what will you do?
a. condem?
b. Reject slaughter?
c. Pass?
d. Suspect?
..
272
Define hyphae
each of the branching filaments that make up the mycelium of a fungus.
273
Which of the following is an example of a vehicle –
a. water, wind and land?
b. Tire of a vehicle?
c. An insect?
b. Tire of a vehicle?
| c. An insect?
274
An arthropod that transmit disease
- vector
275
Rabies is an example of
– arthropozoonoses
276
Used to differentiate gram positive from gram negative bacteria –
gram stain
277
This organism will only survive and replicates inside the living cell-
viruses
278
Bacteria that release pyocyanin –
Pseudomonas
279
Fungal specimen that came from nail and skin scraping –
potassium hydroxide
280
What would be the major sign to be seen in Aeromonas hydrophila poisoning? (di ko alala pero parang ganito mga choices)
a. vomiting +++, diarrhea -
b. vomiting -, diarrhea +++
c. vomiting ++, diarrhea - -
....
