Oxford SBA book Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells are essential to wound forming

A

Monocytes/macrophages

PML not required for first stages

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2
Q

Collagen constitution and distriubution

A

Triple helix

Type I: bone, skin, tendon, uterus, arteries Type II: hyaline cartilage, eye tissues
Type III: skin, arteries, uterus, and bowel wall Type IV: basement membrane
Type V: basement membrane and other tissues
The normal ratio of type I to type III collagen in the skin is approximately 4:1.

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3
Q

Example of physiological metaplasia

A

squamous metaplasia occurring in the endocervix in response to hormonal surges during puberty

Columnar to squamous at transitional zone

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4
Q

Signs of pancreatitis

A

Relief sitting forward
Tachy and fever
Cullens and Grey turner

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5
Q

BP and CO after infrarenal cross clamping in AAA repair

A

Hypertension and increased CO

Unless severe aorta-iliac disease- in which collaterals would form

BP and SVR drop after unclamping

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6
Q

What to give during aortic clamping in AAA repiar and cardiac disease

A

Vasodilators

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7
Q

Patient with long haul flight, young, now presenting with weakness Ix?

A

TOE- patent foreamen ovale

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8
Q

What nerve could be damaged from nail in medial calcaneus

A

Medial plantar

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9
Q

How to calculate osmolality

A

2 (Na+k) + urea +glucose

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10
Q

What does portal hypertension cause in rectus

A

Varices not haemorrhoids

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11
Q

Most common place for Ependymomas

A

Fourth ventricle

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12
Q

Differentiating between haemophilia and VWD

A

Excessive bleeding in VWD

Bleeding in joints in haemophillia

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13
Q

Urethral injury ix

A

Retrograde urography

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14
Q

Artery of Adamkiewicz

A

Greater radicular artery

Usually arises from a left intercos- tal branch of the aorta between T8 and T12, and supplies the anterior spinal artery and distal spinal cord.

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15
Q

Where does the anterior spinal artery arise from

A

Vertebral arteries
Unite below foreamen magnum to form ASA

Unpaired

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16
Q

What does anterior spinal artery supply

A

Supplies the pia mater and anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, including the anterior and lateral columns

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17
Q

Where do anterior and posterior spinal arteries anastomose

A

Conus medullaris- L1

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18
Q

Posterior vertebral arteries formation and supply

A

The posterior spinal arteries arise from the vertebral arteries. They pass down the spinal cord individually and supply the posterior one-third of the spinal cord (i.e. including the major sensory tracts).

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19
Q

CSF pathway

A

Made by choroid plexus in lateral and third
From lateral to third by foremen of Monroe

To fourth by aqueduct of Sylvius

Then to SA by lateral Luschka and middle Magendie

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20
Q

Law of Laplace

A

Aneurysmal expansion is governed by the law of Laplace

This states that the wall tension is proportional to the pressure multiplied by the radius.
As radius increases angle decreases therefore lateral tension increases

With increasing diameter, there is further increase in wall tension leading to an increased risk of rupture.

T = PR

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21
Q

When are diabetic meds taken before surgery

A

Night before

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22
Q

When should sliding scale be started for type 1

A

6am of day of surgery

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23
Q

Which thyroid cancer is FNA useful and unuseful for

A

Papillary - rueful

Follicular cells found with adenoma and carcinoma

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24
Q

Colloid and macrophages on thyroid FNA

A

highly suggestive of benign disease.

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25
Q

What are the 2 lobes of parotid separated by

A

Retromandibular vein

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26
Q

Frey Syndrome

A

Misdirected roflcopters auriculotemproal to sweat glands after super- ficial parotidectomy leads to Frey’s syndrome.

This typically develops about 6 months after sur- gery and mainly features sweating and vasodilatation of the skin supplied by the auriculotemporal nerve.

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27
Q

Where the majority of airway resistance occurs

A

Approximately 30% of airway resist- ance is located in the nose, pharynx, and larynx, and the remaining 70% of airway resistance is gen- erated by the trachea and subsequent airway division

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28
Q

When is lung compliance greatest

A

Lung compliance is greater during the expiration phase compared with the inspiration phase

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29
Q

Relationship between laminar vs turbulent flow with pressure

A

The relationship between laminar flow and pressure is one of direct proportionality.

However, during conditions of turbulent flow, pressure is indeed proportional to the square of the flow rate.

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30
Q

Risk of complication of direct vs indirect hernia

A

Indirect higher 2-5%
Direct- 0.5 %

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31
Q

Cardiorespiratory dysfunction within 72 hours of surgery in diabetic with no chest pain

A

Silent MI

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32
Q

Disorders increasing incidence of cerebral aneurysm

A

Adult polycystic kidney disease, Ehlers–Danlos type IV, neurofibroma- tosis type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome.

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33
Q

Calot triangle borders, contents and variation

A

Inferior border of liver- superiorly
Cystic duct inferiorly
Common hepatic duct medially

The triangle contains the cystic artery and a lymph node (Lund’s node or Mascagni’s lymph node).

An aberrant right hepatic artery running medial to
the common hepatic duct and arising from the superior mesenteric artery is seen in approxi- mately 15% of patients.

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34
Q

Differentials for hyponatraemia

A

Reduced ECF: dehydrated patients with urinary sodium >20 mmol/L suggests renal loss of sodium (e.g. Addison’s, renal failure, diuretics). Sodium <20 mmol/L suggests losses else- where (sweating, gastrointestinal (GI) tract).

Normal ECF: syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion or hypothyroidism.

Increased ECF: excessive water administration, heart failure, renal failure.

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35
Q

Urinary Na in SIADH

A

> 20 as water reabsorbed but not Na
Leading to concentrated urine

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36
Q

Bile produced per day

A

5L by liver
gallbladder concentrates this 5 L into 500 mL per day

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37
Q

SE of cholecystectomy

A

Absence of a gallbladder to concentrate bile, large volumes of it will flow into the duodenum and may cause biliary reflux

Fat intolerance and malabsorption of fat may result in colicky abdominal pain and
diarrhoea after fatty meals in post-cholecystectomy patients.

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38
Q

Stages of cell cycle

A

The cell cycle is divided into the M (mitosis) phase and interphases G1 (gap 1), S (synthesis) and G2 (gap 2) phases. G0 is a resting phase of variable duration and is permanent for terminally dif- ferentiated cells like neurons.

G1 has a high rate of biosynthetic activity.
At the restriction point (R) the cell decides whether to complete the cycle within G1.

DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase.

Further cell growth and differentiation occurs in G2 followed by cell division (both nuclear and cytoplas- mic) in the M (Mitosis) phase.

G1 phase is under the influence of p53

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39
Q

Muscles cut through in posterolateral approach to hip replacement

A

Gluteus medius and minimus

Short external rotators of the hip

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40
Q

Where does sympathetic trunk enter the skull

A

Carotid canal
Forms a plexus on the internal carotid arter

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41
Q

How IAP is measured

A

laparoscopically or via pressure transducers placed in the femoral vein, stomach, rectum, or bladder, the last being the most popular method

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42
Q

Presentation of prolapsed disc

A

Pain and neurological deficit in a single nerve root.
Usually Lumbosacral

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43
Q

Pterion formation

A

Between frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoidal bones.

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44
Q

Presentation of appendicitis in pregnancy, risks and when can you lap

A

Can present with pain in right hypochondrial

Higher chances of perf

Can lap before 26w

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45
Q

Bacterial peritonitis in children sx

A

Abdominal pain, pyrexia, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output.

Abdominal examination may reveal board-like rigidity, rebound tenderness, and absent bowel sounds

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46
Q

Pathophysiology of pyloric stenosis

A

Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the circular and longitudinal muscular layers of the pylorus, leading to a narrowing of the gastric antrum

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47
Q

Physiological effects of surgery on metabolism

A

Raised basal metabolic rate, which in the absence of adequate calorific intake, will result in proteolysis

Diabetic state- insulin resistance and high insulin
Glucose remain normal unless in shock or sepsis- hypoglycaemia

Ketones normal

In the proteolytic state, the action of glucocorticoids results in muscle breakdown and a negative nitrogen balance.

Sodium retention

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48
Q

Goodsall rule

A

If the external opening of a fistula lies behind a line drawn transversely across the anus the track should curve towards an internal opening in the midline posteriorly (i.e. at 6 o’clock).

However, if the external opening lies in front of the transverse anal line, the track is likely to pass radially in a straight line towards the internal open- ing.

Unless its is more than 3cm then it goes to the posterior midline

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49
Q

When to treat carotid stenosis

A

Symptomatic and stenosis >70%

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50
Q

When is elective cholecystectomy considered

A

Symptomatic gallstones failing conservative management (dietary manipulation) or by patient choice

Episodes of septic gallbladder complications to prevent recurrence (in patients who are fit for surgery)

Episodes of complications (e.g. pancreatitis) or to prevent recurrence of complications.

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51
Q

How much does atrial contraction lead to ventricular filling

A

10% at rest
40% during exercise

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52
Q

Bones affected and sign in basal skull fracture

A

Rof of the orbits, the sphenoid bone, and parts of the temporal bone

Periorbital haematoma
Subconjunctival haemorrhage
rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea- damage to cribriform plate

Battle sign- retromastoid bruising- last to develop

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53
Q

Duodenum in transpyloric plane and what lies behind it

A

Second part

Hilum of right kidney

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54
Q

Nerves arising form posterior cord

A

the upper sub- scapular nerve (C5 and C6),
middle subscapular nerve (i.e. the thoracodorsal nerve, supplying latissimus dorsi; C6, C7, C8)
lower subscapular nerve (C5 and C6)
axillary nerve (C5 and C6)
radial nerve (C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

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55
Q

Nerves arising from roots of brachial plexus

A

Dorsal scapular
Muscles to scalene
Long thoracic

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56
Q

Damage to internal laryngeal nerve risk

A

This nerve supplies sensa- tion to the laryngeal mucosa above the vocal folds. Damage to this nerve may therefore result in insensitivity of the mucous membrane of the superior part of the larynx to food, resulting in a loss of cough impulse and increased risk of aspiration.

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57
Q

Where is a fish bone likely to get stuck in laryngopharynx

A

Piriform recess

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58
Q

Boundaries of piriform recess

A

aryepiglottic folds medially
Thyroidcartilage laterally

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59
Q

Complications of colles fracture

A

EPL rupture
Median nerve damage
Sudeck’s atrophy: reflex sympathetic dystrophy, which leaves the hand painful, stiff, and hypersensitive

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60
Q

Commonest presentation of hyperparathyroid

A

Renal stones

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61
Q

Types of transplant rejection and cells involved

A

Hyperacute- minutrd- pre exisitng- HLA or ABO

Accelerated- 2-4d- cellular infiltrate (macrophages and T-lymphocytes)

Acute- 7–21 days post transplantation- T cells

Chronci- insidious - associated with fibrosis of the internal blood vessels

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62
Q

Use of case control over cohort

A

Can be used to investigate rarer diseases

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63
Q

Define oliguria

A

<0.5ml/kg/hour

Oliguria in the postoperative period is defined as a urine output of less than 30 mL/hour for 4 consecutive hours

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64
Q

Histological changes in dysplasia

A

Increased mitosis
z Abnormal mitosis (tripolar, tetrapolar, sunburst, or bizarre)
z An increase in the nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio
z Pleomorphism (variance of size and shape of tumour cells)
z Hyperchromatism (increased amounts of DNA leading to dark-stained nuclei).

In addition, there may be focal or extensive areas of haemorrhage and necrosis due to the abnormal vascularity associated with malignant changes.

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65
Q

Bone cyst presentation

A

Benign fluid collection in metaphysic

Can cause pathological fractures

X ray
well-defined radiolucent area with sclerotic edges

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66
Q

Nerves from trunk of brachial plexus

A

Suprascapular nerve

Nerve to subclavius

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67
Q

Actions of insulin

A

It increases tissue uptake of glucose, amino acids, and lipids.

It stimulates glycogenesis, protein synthesis, and lipid oxidation.

Insulin also inhibits gluconeogenesis and promotes intracellular uptake of potassium and phosphate.

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68
Q

Features of Horners

A

Ptosis
Miosis
Enophthalmos
Decreased sweating of the affected side of the face, and loss of the ciliospinal reflex.

The ciliospinal reflex refers to pupillary dilatation caused by a painful stimulus to the head, neck or upper trunk.

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69
Q

Causes of Horners

A

Pancoast tumour
Carotid body tumours, carotid artery dissections or aneurysms, and syringomyelia.

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70
Q

Pancreatic resection- problems with absorption ?

A

ADEK

Loss of iron, ca, p absorption due to loss of alkalinization- OP

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71
Q

Formation of urinary system in embryo

A

pronephric duct, which is a duct that extends from the cervical region to the cloaca

Which forms mesonephric duct (Wollfain)- initially function as filtration and drainage in utero which sprouts ureteric bud

Ureteric bud forms metanephric blastema

Collecting system – derived from the ureteric bud.
Excretory system – derived from the metanephric blastema.

Kidneys formed from metanephros- ascending
And mesonephros descend and become the ejaculatory ducts.

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72
Q

Origin of bladder tissue

A

the cloaca and mesonephric ducts
Cloaca forms urogenital sinus

The bladder develops mostly from the vesicular part of the urogenital sinus, and the bladder trigone is formed from the mesonephric ducts being drawn into the bladder floor.

The transitional epithelium of the bladder is derived from the endoderm of the urogenital sinus

whereas the epithelium of the ureters and renal pelvis are derived from mesoderm.

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73
Q

Factors controlling ADH release

A

1) Hypothalamic osmoreceptors that secrete ADH in response to raised plasma osmolarity.

(2) Stretch receptors (baroreceptors) that are situated in the atria of the heart- resulting in inhibition of ADH secretion when streched

(3) Stretch receptors that are situated in the aorta and carotid arteries are stimulated when the circulating volume decreases and the blood pressure falls, thereby stimulating ADH secretion.

(4) Trauma, such
as head injury or burns, or any cause of prolonged hypoxia can also stimulate ADH secretion.

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74
Q

Areas affected ini prostate in BPH and cacner

A

Transitional- BPH

Posterior- cancer

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75
Q

Effects of NO

A

Vasodilation and muscle relaxation
Prevents platelet aggregation and adhesion as part of the negative feedback mechanism which ensures clot formation at the site of injury

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76
Q

Sites of narrowing of ureters

A

Pelviureteric junction
The point at which the iliac vessels cross the ureter
the vesicoureteric junction.

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77
Q

Major bleed with warfarin

A

withhold warfarin and administer IV vitamin K, together with either fresh frozen plasma (FFP) or prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC

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78
Q

Le Fort classification

A
  • Le Fort I: transverse maxillary fracture with two segments; the floating palate contains the alveolus, palate, and pterygoid bones.
  • Le Fort II: pyramidal fracture across nasal bones, the medial orbital wall, and down into the maxilla.
  • Le Fort III: craniofacial dysfunction with detachment of the midfacial skeleton from the skull base.
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79
Q

Areas ini brain stimulating vomiting reflex

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone senses potentially toxic substances in blood and initiates emesis.

Nausea due to motion sickness, inner ear disease, and disequilibrium produced by alcohol excess is sensed through the vestibular apparatus and mediated largely by acetylcholine and histamine receptors.

The central cortex and the limbic systems modulate complex experiences such as taste, smell, memory, and emotion

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80
Q

MOA of atropine

A

Anti muscarinic

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81
Q

Borders of omental foremen

A

z Anterior: the free border of the lesser omentum (i.e. the hepatoduodenal ligament). This has two layers and within these layers are the common bile duct, hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein.

z Posterior: the peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava.

z Superior: the peritoneum covering the caudate lobe of the liver.

z Inferior: the peritoneum covering the first part of the duodenum and the hepatic artery, the
latter passing forward below the foramen before ascending between the two layers of the
lesser omentum.

z Left lateral: gastrosplenic ligament and splenorenal ligament.

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82
Q

PBC findings

A

AMA

portal inflammatory infiltrate composed of lymphocytes, histiocytes, and macrophages surrounding the bile ducts causing peri-portal fibrosis and moderate biliary stasis.

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83
Q

Treatment of radiation prostatitis

A

sucralfate, metronidazole, prednisolone enemas or mesalazine enemas.

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84
Q

Absorption occurring in duodenum, jejenum and ileum

A

The duodenum is responsible mainly for the absorption of carbohydrates, protein, minerals
(e.g. calcium, magnesium, iron, chloride, sodium and zinc)

jejunum, responsible for the absorption of glucose, protein, folic acid, and vitamins C, B1 (thiamine), B2, and B6.

The terminal ileum, however, is the main site of absorption of amino acids, lipids, cholesterol, and the fat-soluble vitamins (e.g. A, D, E and K).
intrinsic factor-dependent receptors- can lead to B12 deficiency

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85
Q

Mx of meconium ileus - uncomplicated

A

Gastrografin enemas after adequate intravenous fluid administration. If this fails, laparotomy is indicated to evacuate the obstructing meconiu

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86
Q

Tx of Conns

A

Spiro
Surgery

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87
Q

Steps of angiogenesis

A

(1) proteolytic degradation of the parent vessel basement membrane, allowing formation of a capil- lary sprout;
(2) migration of endothelial cells towards the angiogenic stimulus;
(3) proliferation
of endothelial cells behind the leading front of migrating cells; and
(4) maturation of endothelial cells with organization into capillary tubes.

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88
Q

Artery most commonly affected by mesenteric ischaemia

A

Middle colic

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89
Q

Metabolic complications of TPN

A

z Hypo/hyperglycaemia
z Deranged LFTs
z Hyperchloraemic acidosis
z Hypophosphataemia
z Hypercalcaemia
z Hypo/hyperkalaemia
z Hypo/hypernatraemia
z Deficiency of trace elements such as vitamins, essential fatty acids, folate, zinc, and
magnesium.

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90
Q

Management of achalasia

A

Balloon dilation
Hellers cardiomyotomy

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91
Q

Which nerves are at risk from different approach to hip surgery

A

Anterior- lateral femoral cutaneous
Posterior- sciatic
Lateral- superior gluteal

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92
Q

Most common oesophageal fistula

A

Distal

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93
Q

Presentation of oesophageal fistula and mx

A

Antenatal with polyhydramnios, or postnatal with frothy oral secretions and feeding difficulty. Pneumonitis and sepsis can occur due to aspiration. Early definitive surgical cor- rection is very successful with survival approaching 100%.

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94
Q

Thrombin time vs bleeding time

A

Thrombin- common pathway
Bleeding- platelet function

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95
Q

How jejunal biopsy is taken

A

Crosby–Watson capsule is swallowed and guided
When in position, a small sample of mucosa is obtained by suctio

96
Q

What is seen with Whipples disease

A

Gastrointestinal symptoms that resemble other malabsorption syndromes

jejunal biopsy in Whipple’s disease reveals stunted villi, with macrophage deposition in the lamina propria containing periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)-positive granules

97
Q

What are the cords of the brachial plexus related to

A

2nd part of axillary artery

98
Q

Where innervation of erection and ejactulation occur

A

Erection- parasympathetic- peri-prostatic nerve plexus
Ejactulation- T11-L2- pudendal nerve

99
Q

Most common type of fistula in ano

A

Intersphincteric

100
Q

Factors of Goldman’s Cardiac Risk Index

A

The risk factors include: age greater than 70 years,
raised jugular venous pressure,
presence of a 3rd heart sound,
significant myocardial ischaemic event in the preceding 6 months (i.e. not simply angina pectoris),
surgery on the abdomen or thorax,
symptomatic aortic stenosis,
poor general condition, and emergency surgery.

101
Q

Tumour above and below dentate line

A

Squamous below- since stratified squamous cells- ectoderm
Adeno above- columnar - endoderm

102
Q

Blood supply of pancreas

A

Body and tail- pancreatic branches of splenic

Head and neck- superior pancreaticoduodenal artery - gastroduo- denal artery

inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery-superior mesenteric artery.

103
Q

What can you do to control ICP

A

15 head tilt
Intubation- low CO2- to prevent vasodilation
Mannitol
An intraventricular catheter can be placed to measure the ICP and to allow therapeutic drainag

104
Q

Stanford and DeBakey classification of aortic dissection

A

Stanford classification:
􏰁 Type A: ascending aorta involved
􏰁 Type B: ascending aorta not involved.

DeBakey classification:
􏰁 Type I: ascending aorta extending into descending aorta
􏰁 Type II: ascending aorta only
􏰁 Type III: descending aorta distal to left subclavian artery
􏰁 Type IIIa: Type III extending proximally and distally, mostly above the diaphragm
􏰁 Type IIIb: Type III extending only distally, potentially extending below the diaphragm

105
Q

firm lump in the anterior triangle on the right side of the neck, which moves up with deglutition

A

Berry’s ligament

106
Q

Episiotomy cuts through

A

Perineal skin
Posterior wall of vagina
Perineal body
Attachment of bulbospongiosus muscle

107
Q

Cells in stomach

A

Parietal (oxyntic)- body of stomach - of hista- mine and acetylcholine stimulated gastric acid production

Chief- pepsinogen in fundus

G cell- antrum- gastrin

108
Q

Where does Wharton’s duct open

A

Either side of frenulum

109
Q

Where are the most of calculi in salivary glands seen

A

Eighty per cent of the calculi in salivary glands are found in the submandibular gland and the Wharton’s duct because of the primarily mucoid secretions of the submandibular gland, and the upward drainage angle of Wharton’s duct.

110
Q

Where does the sublingual ducts drain

A

Ducts of Rivinus
Either join the submandibular duct or open separately into the mouth on the elevated crest of mucous membrane -plica sublingualis

111
Q

Phyllodes tumour contents

A

e fibroepithelial tumours composed of epithelial and stromal components.

112
Q

Retroperitoneal structures

A

Suprarenal
Aorta
Duodenum- 2nd, 3rd
Pancreas- except tail
Ureters
Colon- ascending and descending
Kidney
Esophagus
Rectum

113
Q

Largest branch of thyrocevical

A

Inferior thyroid

114
Q

Melena and haematemesis years after aortic repair

A

Aorto-enteric fistula

115
Q

Needle types and when they are used

A

Round-bodied needles tend to separate tissue fibres (i.e. instead of cutting them)- bowel and vascular anastomoses,
are used in friable tissue such as liver and kidney

Blunt round-point needles literally ‘dissect’ rather than cut, and are useful when suturing extremely friable vascular tissue (e.g. liver, kidney, and spleen) and mass closure of the abdominal wall.
potentially reduce the risk of blood borne virus infection from needlestick injuries.

Reverse cutting needles- tough tissues like skin, ligament and tendon

Blunt taperpoint needles - high risk patient

116
Q

Analysis of Pus produced by pancreatitis

A

Sterile- due to sterile necrosis of the pancreas gland.

117
Q

Cause of sterile pyuria

A
  • A treated urinary tract infection, within 2 weeks of treatment
  • Renal stones
  • Prostatitis
  • Chlamydia urethritis
  • Tubulo-interstitial nephritis
  • Interstitial cystitis
  • Urinary tract neoplasm
  • Polycystic kidney.
    In rarer instances, Crohn’s disease of the terminal ileum m
118
Q

Grading renal injury trauma

A

z Grade 1: contusion
z Grade 2: <1 cm laceration not affecting medulla/collecting system
z Grade 3: >1 cm laceration not affecting medulla or collecting system z Grade 4: laceration involving medulla or collecting system
z Grade 5: shattered kidney or avulsed renal artery or vein

119
Q

UC histology

A

general inflammatory cell infiltration
goblet-cell mucus depletion
glandular distortion
mucosal ulceration
crypt abscesses.

120
Q

HLA class 1 vs 2

A

Class 1- intracellular on all nucleated cells- A, B, C
2- expressed only by antigen presenting cells- DR, DP, DQ.

121
Q

HLA B27 conditions

A

Sero-negative spondyloarthropathies

Psoriatic
AS
Enteropathic arthritis
Reactive arthritis

122
Q

Sx of humeral head dislocation

A

The usual mechanism of injury is a fall onto the outstretched arm when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.

The pain is usually severe, and the patient is unwilling to attempt movements of the shoulder.

A swelling may be noticed in the delto- pectoral groove

123
Q

Salter Harris affecting growth

A

1+2 do not affect germinal layer

In Salter–Harris types III and IV, the germinal layer is breached so growth disturbance is likely, although its incidence can be minimized by adequate fracture reduction.

Salter–Harris type V fractures are recognized as a crush injury of the epiphysis, following which, growth arrest is common.
This fracture is often diagnosed retrospectively, when disturbance of physeal growth becomes appar- ent as a limb deformity

124
Q

Most common salter Harris

A

2

125
Q

Action of protein C and S and what C is dependent on

A

Inactivate VIII and V

C is Vit K dependent

126
Q

Respiratory centres, location and function

A

The medullary respiratory centre has inspiratory and expiratory centres, which control the rhythm of breathing.

The pneumotaxic centre is located in the upper pons and controls the duration of inspiration.

The apneustic centre is present in the lower pons and prolongs the inspiratory phase.

127
Q

Central and peripheral chemoreceptors

A

Central- medulla- detects H+ in CSF(indirectly from CO2)

Peripheral- carotid body at bifurcation- respond to decrease PaO2, decreased pH and increased PCO2

128
Q

Mx of patients with GORD resistant to medical management

A

Upper GI endo 6m prior to surgery
Nissen fundoplication
pH monitoring off meds

129
Q

Attachment of long head of triceps and biceps

A

Triceps- infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

Biceps brachii, which has a long head that extends inside the capsule to attach to the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

130
Q

Foetal haemoglobin composition, affinity for substances

A

2a and 2y

Lower affinity to DPG and therefore higher for O2

131
Q

Radical neck dissections vs modified

A

Excision of levels I–V lymphatic structures as well as three non-lymphatic structures: spinal accessory nerve, sternomastoid muscle and internal
jugular vein.

Modified
z Type 1: accessory nerve preserved
z Type 2: accessory nerve and jugular vein preserved
z Type 3: accessory nerve, sternomastoid and jugular vein preserved

132
Q

Tx of VWD

A

Desmopressin for mild
Severe disease, von Willebrand’s factor concen- trate,

Cryoprecipitate or fresh frozen plasma are usually used in cases of bleeding

133
Q

Contrast used in bowel obstruction

A

Gastrogaffin enema

134
Q

Jejunum vs ileum

A

Jejenum- form single or double arterial arcades with long vasa recta
Lymphoid tissue is sparse
Red

Ileum- multiple arcades with short vasa recta
Peyer’s patches
Purple

135
Q

Pasonage Turner syndrome

A

Inflammation of branches of the brachial plexus

Severe pain for days to weeks, followed by weakness and sensory loss over the corresponding territory of the brachial plexus (most com- monly C5–C7, as in this case

136
Q

Elevated hemidiaphragm causes

A

phrenic nerve palsy
atelectasis
diaphragmatic hernia
distended abdominal viscera.
Diaphragm rupture

137
Q

Epistaxis in elderly location

A

Posterior- from branches of sphenopalatine

138
Q

Cause of normal anion gap acidosis

A

GI tract losses of bicarbonate ions, such as diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula losses
Dilutional causes
Drugs (e.g. acetazolamide)
Addison’s disease

Renal tubular acidosis- failure to acidify urine correctly and results in the loss of sulphate and phosphate anions. Electrical neutrality is maintained by renal reabsorption of chlo- ride anions, resulting in a hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap

139
Q

Transverse approach for appendectomy risk

A

Illihypogastric nerve

Perrforates the posterior part of the transversus abdominis muscle
and divides between this and the internal oblique muscle into lateral and anterior cutaneous branches, and muscular branches to both these muscle

140
Q

Cytology of papillary carcinoma

A

nuclear grooves,
intranuclear inclusions or optically clear nuclei, Orphan Annie cells, and psammoma bodies.

141
Q

Capsular invasion thyroid

A

Follicular carcinoma

142
Q

Woody goitre in old lady

A

Anaplastic

143
Q

Remnants of mullein duct in male

A

Appendix testis (Hydatid cyst of Morgagni)

144
Q

Erbs palsy nerve root and features

A

C5,6

abducted and medially rotated with an extension of the elbow and pronation of the forearm

145
Q

Pancoast tumour features

A

(1) pain in the shoulder region radiat- ing toward the axilla and scapula,
(2) pain and atrophy of small muscles of the hand due to ulnar nerve involvement,
(3) paraesthesia in the medial side of the arm,
(4) Horner’s syn- drome (ptosis, miosis, hemianhidrosis and enophthalmos),
(5) oedema of the arms due
to compression of the major vessels in the thoracic inlet

146
Q

Borders of superior orbital fissure

A

superiorly by the lesser wing of the sphenoid, inferiorly by the greater wing, and medially by the body of the sphenoid.

147
Q

Inguinal hernia containing appendix

A

Amyands

148
Q

Richter, Liters, pantaloon, spigelian, grynfelt and petit hernia

A

Richter- inguinal hernia which only contains one side of the bowel wall

Litres- Meckel

Pantaloon- direct and indirect

Maydl hernia- 2 loops- W

Spigelian- lateral to rectus

Grynfelt- Superior lumbar

Petit- inferior lumbar

149
Q

Hypertrophic vs keloid

A

Keloid- outside boundaries
Late in wound healing- >3m
Do not regress

Hypertrophic- limited to boundary
Early in healing
Spontaneously regress but not to normal

150
Q

What anatomical structure to use to determine between direct and indirect hernia

A

Inferior epigastric

Direct- medial
Indirect- lateral

151
Q

peritoneal carcinomatosis

A

Mets in peritoneum

It can lead to the development of ascites

152
Q

Vertebral levels of thyroid cartilage, cricoid, thyroid

A

Thyroid cartilage- C4- same as carotid bifurcation

Cricoid- C6

Thyroid-C5-T1
Isthmus- C7

153
Q

Damage after submandibular gland excision causing loss of sensation at mandible and unable to move upper lip

A

Marginal mandibular branch

154
Q

SIRS criteria

A

temperature >38°C or <36°C; (2) heart rate >90/min; (iii) respiratory rate >20 or PaCO2 <4.3 kPa; and WCC >12,000 or < 4000 × 109/L

155
Q

Formation of atherosclerosis

A

Lipoproteins deposited in intima
Macrophages ingest to form foam cells
Smooth muscles migrate - secrete to form fibrous capsule
Plaque breaks down at base to form lipids, necrotic debris which calcify

156
Q

Jefferson fracture

A

Fractures of the anterior and posterior arches of atlas , and causes the lateral masses to be displaced laterally

No neurology

157
Q

Atlanto- axial dislocation position and complication

A

Posterior dislocation of odontoid
Leads to sudden death as can compress spinal cord

158
Q

Imaging for odontoid fractures

A

plain radiography using a lateral cervical-spine view or open-mouth odontoid views.

However, a CT scan may be required to further delineate the type and extent of the fracture.

159
Q

Pierre robin syndrome

A

Mandibular hypoplasia
Cleft lip
Micrognathia and glossoptosis may cause severe respiratory and feeding difficulties as well as obstructive sleep apnoea in the newborn.
Otitis meadia
Hearing loss

Oligohydrominos

160
Q

Mx of posterior hip dislocation

A

Theatre immediately
Closed reduction of hip

161
Q

Which laryngeal muscle is unapaired

A

Transverse arytenoid muscle

162
Q

How is continence maintained

A

Anorectal angle- minor
Internal anal sphincter
Endoanal cushions- plug anal canal
External anal sphincter

163
Q

Mx of bladder cancer

A

T1/CIS- TURBT+Chemo, if widespread BCG- if that fails cystectomy and chemo

T2-3- cystectomy and chemo

T4- palliative
N1/M1- palliative

164
Q

Mx of supracondylar fracture causing pallor

A

Manipulation of the fracture under general anaesthetic

If this is unsuccessful, surgical exploration of the brachial artery is warranted, and should be performed by a vascular surgeon. Lacerations of the artery are repaired either primarily (i.e. with sutures) or with vein grafts.

165
Q

Mx of bleeding varices

A

Terli and ABx

Sclerotherapy
or band ligation

If ineffective - balloon tamponade (e.g. with a Sengstaken–Blakemore tube)- temporary
Subsequent definitive management would include radiological
(e.g. transjugular intrahepatic porto-systemic shunt or TIPS) or surgical (e.g. oesophageal transection, portosystemic shunting) procedures.

166
Q

Innervation of levator ani

A

The levator ani muscles are mostly innervated by the pudendal nerve, perineal nerve and inferior rectal nerve in concert.

167
Q

Which autonomic system is the accommodation refelx

A

Para in CN 3

168
Q

Post ganglionic neurotransmitter sympathetic

A

Usually noradrenaline

Sweat- Ach

169
Q

Brachial vs thyroglossal cyst on FNA

A

Branchial cysts usually produce an opalescent fluid containing cholesterol crystals or frank pus

thyroglossal cysts commonly contain serous fluid.

170
Q

Dominance prevalence of coronary arteries

A

Dominance is based on the origin of the posterior interventricular artery. In right dominance (90%) the posterior interventricular artery is a large branch of the right coronary artery. Approximately 3% of hearts are co-dominant.

171
Q

Phases of cardiac action potential of non-nodal cells

A

Phase 0- influx of Na
Phase 1: fast sodium channels close. The small downward deflection is due to continuing out-
flow of potassium and chloride.

Phase 2: plateau phase balancing the slow inflow of calcium and outflow of potassium.

Phase 3: slow calcium channels close while potassium channels remain open

Phase 4: resting membrane potential is restored.

172
Q

Main cause of symptoms in refeeding

A

Low P

173
Q

Those at risk of refeeding and when will it occur

A

Individuals with negligible nutrient intake for
5 consecutive days are at risk of this syndrome, which usually occurs within 4 days of recom- mencing feeding

174
Q

Where is secretin produced and its action

A

Secretin is produced by the S cells
of the villi and crypts of the small intestine in response to acidification of duodenal contents.
Secretin stimulates pancreatic enzyme and bicarbonate release while inhibiting gastric acid and pepsin secretion. It also potentiates the action of cholecystokinin

175
Q

What causes VIP production

A

Vagal stimulation of SI not food

176
Q

Mirizzi syndrome and what it causes

A

Impaction of gallstones either in the cystic duct or Hartmann’s pouch of the gallbladder, which leads to external compression of the common hepatic duct and results in symptoms of obstructive jaundice

chronic and/or acute inflammatory changes leading to contraction of the gallbladder and stenosis of the common hepatic duct, or (2) cholecysto- choledochal fistula

177
Q

Arteries contributing to spinal cord blood supply

A

Vertebral (directly off the aorta), ascending cervical, deep cervical, intercostal, lumbar and lateral sacral arteries

inferior portion of the spinal cord is supplied by the anterior and posterior segmental medullary arteries

The great anterior medullary artery (i.e. artery of Adamkiewicz) supplies blood to the inferior two-thirds of the spinal cord and is found on the left side in 65% of people.

178
Q

Phases of gastric secretion

A

z Cephalic phase: the excitatory stage (via odours and thoughts, processed in the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, and medulla) is responsible for saliva production, some pancreatic juice production and 10% of gastric acid secretion.

z Gastric phase: this is mediated via the short gastric reflex (via local neurohormonal pathways in the stomach wall) and the long vagus reflex. It is responsible for 80% of gastric secretion.

z Intestinal phase: this is responsible for 10% of gastric secretion.

179
Q

Cause of meconium ileus in CF

A

Failure of pancreatic secretion

180
Q

Most superficial structure in popliteal fossa

A

Sural nerve

181
Q

Symptoms of High PTH vs High Ca

A

Symptoms of raised PTH include: urinary tract stones due to excessive calcium excretion, bone pains, and pathological fractures due to osteopenia.
Symptoms of hypercalcaemia include fatigue, abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, polyuria, polydipsia, and psychiatric disturbances (depression, confusion).

182
Q

Where would a malignant parotid tumour drain

A

Deep cervical

183
Q

Which RLN is more likely to be damaged and symptoms

A

Right is more medial

Hoarseness
Bilateral- trouble breathing

184
Q

Action of traps and sx If accessory damaged

A

muscle elevates, laterally rotates and retracts the
scapula.

Patients with injury to the spinal accessory nerve (and subsequent dysfunction of the tra- pezius) present with an asymmetric neckline, drooping shoulder and winging of the scapula

185
Q

Sx of Ludwig angina and cause

A

odontogenic infections

reveals bilateral, tense neck swellings with overlying erythema, and an elevated and protruding tongue

186
Q

Risk of breast cancer

A

High risk: increasing age, family history of breast cancer

z Medium risk: high socioeconomic status, late first pregnancy (>30 years), past history of
breast cancer, breast irradiation <20 years

z Low risk: early menarche (<11 years), nulliparity, late menopause (>55 years), oral contra-
ceptive therapy, and postmenopausal use of hormone replacement therapy, obesity, alcohol.

1/9

187
Q

Main complications of SAH

A

Death
Rebleeding
Ischaemia
Hydrocephalus

188
Q

Zygomatic fracture symptoms

A

cheek appears to be flat and depressed

swelling and ecchymosis around his right eye

Diplopia

The zygomatic arch usually fractures at its narrowest point or at the suture between the zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the temporal process of the zygomatic bone.

189
Q

Ann Arbor staging

A

Ann Arbor staging criteria (Stage I: involvement of a single lymph node area; Stage II: involvement of two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm; Stage III: involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm ± spleen; Stage IV: disseminated extralymphatic spread)

190
Q

What blood test can be positive in Non Hodgkin lymphoma

A

High LDH

191
Q

Which HLA are tested for transplant

A

HLA A
HLA B
HLA DR- most important - as highest incident of rejection

192
Q

Oesophageal stent, now have dysphagia mx

A

Ingestion of a carbon- ated drink, which assists in dissolving the obstructing bolus. If this fails, endoscopy is required to ascertain the cause of obstruction, and to dislodge the food bolus, if necessary.

193
Q

Bleeding from his nose, a salty taste in his mouth, Otoscopic examination reveals visible bleeding behind the left tympanic membrane

A

Basal skull fracture

194
Q

What release PTH in parathyroid

A

Chief cells

195
Q

Consequences of prolonged immobilisation post op

A

Initial hyperkalaemia from tissue breakdown, potassium is seen to fall as it is excreted with the loss of total body lean tissue mass.

The muscle mass is then replaced by adipose tissue.

Heart rate gradually increases while the stroke volume falls due to cardiac atrophy.

The cardiac output and blood pressure, however, are maintained due to the compensatory changes mentioned earlier.

With a reduction autonomic nervous system coupled with a fall in inotropic and cardiac output response, the patient’s adaptation to postural changes becomes impaired, making him unsteady on his feet.

The bones eventually demineralize and calcium, phosphate, and hydroxyproline will be excreted in the urine.

196
Q

Path of facial nerve

A

Internal acoustic meatus. The facial nerve then passes through the facial canal (of the petrous temporal bone), widens to form the geniculate ganglion (which mediates taste and salivation) on the medial side of the middle ear. At this point, it deviates sharply (giving off the chorda tympani) to emerge through the stylomastoid foramen

197
Q

Differentiating upper vs LMN of facial nerve

A

UMN- can wrinkle face
LMN- can’t

198
Q

Stored blood and altitude effect on oxygen curve

A

High altitude increase DPG and therefore shift to right

Stored decreases DPG causing shift to left

199
Q

Advantage of Roux en Y over subtotal gastro-jejunostom

A

Subtotal- bilious vomiting

The absence of a functioning pylorus allows bile to reflux into the stomach, which is now of reduced capacity, thereby increasing the chance of bilious vomiting

Proximal jejunum is disconnected from the loop gastro-jejunostomy and reattached at least 30 cm distally. Peristalsis should then direct the bile distally rather than back into
the stomach.

200
Q

Mutation in MEN

A

RET proto oncoogene

201
Q

Itchy rashes in MEN 2A

A

Cutaneous lichen amyloidosis

202
Q

Which part of duodenum is crossed by colon

A

Second part

203
Q

SIRS diagnosis

A

2 or more
Temp >38 or <36
HR >90
RR >20
WCC >12 <4

204
Q

Sensation of parotid

A

auriculotemporal nerve (gland) Trigeminal
the great auricular nerve (fascia). Cervical plexus

205
Q

Drainage into cavernous sinus and what it drains into

A

Ophthalmic veins- superior from facial vein

Central vein of the retina – drains into the superior ophthalmic vein, or directly into the cavernous sinus.

Sphenoparietal sinus

Superficial middle cerebral vein
Pterygoid plexus

It empties into the superior and inferior petrosal sinusus (and subsequently into the internal jugular vein)

206
Q

Tx of prolactinoma

A

If microadenoma- <1cm Bromocriptine/carbogerline

If macro >1cm-then surgery

Surgery usually reserved for those who are resistant to medical treatment, patients who develop adverse effects to dopamine agonists and, in patients desiring pregnancy with tumor size of more than one centimeter.

207
Q

Which part of trachea is incised in tracheostomy

A

2-4th rings

208
Q

Survival rates in Dukes staging

A

A- within bowel -95% 5y
B- MP, then extra colonic but no LN 80%
C- LN involvement- few 60%, many 30%
D- distant mets- 5%

209
Q

Lymph node in calots triangle

A

Mascagni’s lymph node (or node of Lund), and is the sentinel lymph node of the gallbladder.

210
Q

What is the mutation of FAP and what other effects does it have

A

rare autosomal dominant condition which results from the deletion of the long arm of chromosome 5- inheritanly benign

Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium occurs in as many as 95% of individuals with FAP.

Gastro and duodenal involvement

211
Q

Cause of Pneumobilia

A

GI connection

Cholangitis

incompetence of the sphincter of Oddi

ERCP

Whipples

212
Q

Biopsy of Hirschprungs

A

Histologically devoid of ganglion cells in the Meissner’s (submucosal) and Auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus but demonstrates immunohisto- chemical evidence of increased acetylcholinesterase activity.

213
Q

Mx of Hirschprungs

A

Rectal irrigation or emergency colostomy formation may be required before a definitive ‘pull-through’ procedure is performed.

214
Q

Osteomyelitis pathogens

A

S aureus

Sickle- Salmonella

Haemodialysis- pseudomonas

215
Q

Floor of snuffbox

A

Scaphoid and trapezium

216
Q

Frey syndrome pathology

A

Auriculotemporal

t is caused by sprouting of the divided parasympathetic nerve branches to the parotid into the divided sympa- thetic nerve fibres to the sweat glands

217
Q

Management of post op haematoma in breast

A

Observe

218
Q

Floor of femoral triangle

A

Laterally of psoas major and ili- acus, and medially by pectineus and adductor longus.

Palpated on psoas

219
Q

Phases of teste descent

A

z Indeterminate phase (up to 8 weeks): the urogenital ridge and development of male and female gonads is similar up to 8 weeks.

z Transabdominal phase (weeks 8–15): this phase in controlled by Anti-Müllerian hormone secreted by the Sertoli cells. It causes regression of the cranial suspensory ligament of the testes and enlargement of the gubernaculums.

z Processus vaginalis (weeks 20–25): this is a peritoneal diverticulum attached to the lower pole of the testis, which elongates further along with the gubernaculum towards the base of the scrotum.

z Inguinoscrotal phase (weeks 28–35): under the guidance of the gubernaculum, the testis descends with the processus vaginalis along the inguinal canal and into the scrotum. The descent is controlled by testosterone and CGRP. CGRP is released by the genitofemo- ral nerve in response to androgen. It causes rhythmic contraction and shortening of the gubernaculums.

220
Q

When before splenectomy should vaccines be given

A

At least 2 weeks

221
Q

What does the diaphragm form from

A

The diaphragm develops from the dorsal oesophageal mesentery, pleuroperitoneal membranes, lateral body walls and the septum transversum (i.e. which forms the central tendon).

222
Q

How much of saline vs dextrose stays intravascular

A

1 L of normal saline in a healthy adult, only 25% (250 mL) will stay in the intravascular space. The remaining 75% will be distributed within the interstitial space.

When 1 L of 5% dextrose is infused, only 8% (80 mL) will remain in the intravascular space and 92% will be redistributed in the interstitial and intracellular space.

223
Q

Cause of spiral fractures in leg

A

Falls

224
Q

Hypernatraemia post head injury

A

Diabetes insipidus

Low osmolality urine

225
Q

Which structure is vulnerable in incision into ischoanal fossa

A

Pudendal nerve

226
Q

Urine in pyloric stenosis

A

Acidic urine
Due to aldosterone stimulation

227
Q

Hyperthyroid with cold nodule

A

Graves With Papillary

228
Q

Difference between class 2 and 3 shock

A

2- not low
3-BP low

229
Q

How pH affects available Ca

A

acidosis, the decrease in protein binding (i.e. albumin binding) with calcium leads to an increase in ionized calcium. The converse is also true (i.e. decreased ionized calcium levels with alkalosis) and may result in symptoms of hypocalcaemic tetany in alkalosis.

230
Q

TNM of colon cancer

A

T1- submucosa
2-MP
3-subserosa
4- other structures

N0
1- 1-3
2- >4

231
Q

SIRS, Sepsis, severe, shock

A

Sepsis is SIRS plus infection source

Severe sepsis- BP <90
or lactic acidosis

Shock-hypotension despite fluid resuscitations

232
Q

Where to do pericardiocentesis

A
233
Q

Level hemiazygous crosses and joins azygous

A

T8/9

234
Q

What does the hemiazygous drain

A

he hemiazygos vein drains the right poste- rior thorax, lumbar regions, lower oesophagus and parts of the mediastinum

235
Q

CT neg but blood on LP SAH what next

A

Four vessel angiogram

236
Q

Differentiating cord syndromes

A

Anterior - temp, pain, motor
Posterior- sensory, motor
Central- Cervical >lower
Brown sequard- resulting in ipsilateral loss of motor function, vibration and proprioception; with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.

237
Q

Pain in cholecysitis vs colic

A

Constant vs waves