Other Flashcards
SB ADS-B
ADSB
Space-Based Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast monitoring system
Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast
Transition Altitude -
Transition Level -
lowest useable altitude
(A - pointing up), change to QNE (1003/29.92) climbing
lowest useable level
(V - pointing down), change to local QNH descending
Tower winds measured at tower height of ______
33 feet (10 m)
The AFM accelerate-stop distance includes the distance traveled while _______
This distance includes the use of speedbrakes and
maximum braking; it does not include ______
initiating the stop
use of reverse thrust
The FMC provides takeoff speeds based on ______
balanced V1
(Calculating a V1 speed that equates accelerate-go and accelerate-stop distances defines the minimum field length required for a given weight. This is known as a “balanced field length” and the associated V1 speed is called the “balanced V1”)
Takeoff gross weight must not exceed (5) limits
field length climb obstacle brake energy tire speed
Rejected Takeoff Decision must be made _____
before V1
(even if excess runway remains after V1, there is no assurance that the brakes have the capacity to stop the airplane before the end of the runway)
During a takeoff if V speeds not displayed and there are no other fault indications, _______
rotate the airplane _______ the displayed V2 speed
takeoff may be continued
5 to 10 knots before
V1 means the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must ________ to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance
V1 also means the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at which the pilot can ________
take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speedbrakes)
continue the takeoff and achieve the required height (35/15) above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance
When the takeoff performance in the AFM is produced, it assumes an engine failure or event _____ before V1
In a runway limited situation, this means the airplane reaches a height of _____ over the end of the runway if the decision is to continue the takeoff
1 second
35 feet
After liftoff, the flight director commands pitch to maintain an airspeed of ______ until another pitch mode is engaged
V2 + 10 to 25 knots
What is the optimum climb speed with takeoff flaps?
V2 + 10 knots
Vx
What is the maximum bank angle permitted at V2 + 10 knots with takeoff flaps?
25°
If LNAV is armed for takeoff, it engages ______
and within ______ of the active leg
above 50 feet AGL
2.5 NM
When armed for takeoff, VNAV engages at ______ and provides AFDS climb management for ______ (3)
400 feet AGL
acceleration, flap retraction and climb out
Check that the thrust reference changes from TO to CLB on the EICAS at _______
If the thrust reference does not change automatically
_______
the point selected on the takeoff reference page (THR Reduction Height)
manually select climb thrust
If VNAV is not used, at acceleration height ________
Climb thrust is normally set at 1500 AGL or after
flaps retract automatically. How is it set manually?
select FLCH and set the command speed to flaps up maneuver speed + 20 knots
using the THR switch on the MCP
(check that the thrust reference changes from TO to CLB on the EICAS)
The autopilot is certified to allow engagement _______ after takeoff
The airplane should be ______, and ______
before autopilot engagement
at or above 250 feet AGL
in trim
flight director commands satisfied
The minimum altitude for flap retraction is ______
400 feet
During flap retraction, full maneuver capability or at least (bank) to stick shaker is provided while retracting the flaps through flaps 1
At _(wt) _ and below, full maneuver capability exists with flaps up and at flaps up maneuver speed ______
40° of bank (25° of bank and 15° overshoot)
309.0 kgs (680,000 lbs)
VREF 30 + 80 knots
above (wt) full maneuver capability of at least (bank) to stick shaker does NOT exist until reaching (spd)
For this reason, limit bank angle to ____ with flaps up until reaching ______
309.0 kgs (680.0 lbs)
40° of bank (25° of bank and 15° overshoot)
VREF 30 + 100 knots.
15°
VREF 30 + 100 knots.
Minimum control speed in the air (Vmca) is below __(V_)__ and __(V_)__
VR
VREF
What is the best indicator of the correct rudder pedal input?
To counter the thrust asymmetry due to an engine failure ______
Flying with lateral control wheel displacement or with excessive aileron trim ______
airplane heading
stop the yaw with rudder.
causes spoilers to be raised
VNAV Climb/Descent speeds (National)
climb - (max) 350kts/default Mach
descent - .84/300
Meaning of EICAS alert messages preceeded by caret symbols >
informational, has no procedural steps, or the action is obvious (such as Overspeed).
Flight crew does not need to refer to the checklists
What is a Quick Action Index checklist?
How are they shown?
Why are some in upper case?
need a quick response
listed first, printed in bold type
annunciated by an EICAS alert message or other indication
(upper and lower case not annunciated)
It must be stressed that for smoke that continues or a fire that cannot be positively confirmed to be completely extinguished, ______
the earliest possible descent, landing, and evacuation must be done
(If a smoke, fire or fumes situation becomes uncontrollable, the flight crew should consider an IMMEDIATE landing)
Checklists directing an engine shutdown must be evaluated by the Captain to determine whether _____ or _____ is the safest course of action
Continue normal engine operation unless _______
shutdown or operation at reduced thrust
EICAS alert message shows or a limit is exceeded
During engine start and before takeoff, the associated non–normal checklist is done if _________ (2)
After completion of the checklist, _______
EICAS alert message or non-normal situation
MEL or DDG (Dispatch Deviations Guide) is consulted to determine if dispatch relief is available
The pilot flying may direct checklists to be done by memory if _______
no hazard is created, or if the situation does not allow reference to the checklist
Engine failure at cruise:
LRC -
E/O -
better fuel performance
maximum altitude capability
PCN -
ACN -
pavement classification number
aircraft classification number
{JeppFD-Pro, General Airport Data}
Release amendment required (4)
- distance > 100nm
- altitude > 4000ft
- fuel > 400kg
- return to gate
TLR invalidated (4)
- QNH > .10” (3.4hpa)
- OAT > 10C
- TOW >
- MEL perf penalty not in RMKS
Jammed Stab
Keep A/P on as long as possible by staying in trim speed.
Outboard aileron lock out speed
238 kts
