Other

Question 1

SB ADS-B

ADSB

Answer 1

Space-Based Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast monitoring system

Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast

Question 2

Transition Altitude -

Transition Level -

Answer 2

lowest useable altitude
(A - pointing up), change to QNE (1003/29.92) climbing

lowest useable level
(V - pointing down), change to local QNH descending

Question 3

Tower winds measured at tower height of ______

Answer 3

33 feet (10 m)

Question 4

The AFM accelerate-stop distance includes the distance traveled while _______

This distance includes the use of speedbrakes and
maximum braking; it does not include ______

Answer 4

initiating the stop

use of reverse thrust

Question 5

The FMC provides takeoff speeds based on ______

Answer 5

balanced V1

(Calculating a V1 speed that equates accelerate-go and accelerate-stop distances defines the minimum field length required for a given weight. This is known as a “balanced field length” and the associated V1 speed is called the “balanced V1”)

Question 6

Takeoff gross weight must not exceed (5) limits

Answer 6

field length
climb
obstacle
brake energy
tire speed

Question 7

Rejected Takeoff Decision must be made _____

Answer 7

before V1

(even if excess runway remains after V1, there is no assurance that the brakes have the capacity to stop the airplane before the end of the runway)

Question 8

During a takeoff if V speeds not displayed and there are no other fault indications, _______

rotate the airplane _______ the displayed V2 speed

Answer 8

takeoff may be continued

5 to 10 knots before

Question 9

V1 means the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must ________ to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance

V1 also means the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at which the pilot can ________

Answer 9

take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speedbrakes)

continue the takeoff and achieve the required height (35/15) above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance

Question 10

When the takeoff performance in the AFM is produced, it assumes an engine failure or event _____ before V1

In a runway limited situation, this means the airplane reaches a height of _____ over the end of the runway if the decision is to continue the takeoff

Answer 10

1 second

35 feet

Question 11

After liftoff, the flight director commands pitch to maintain an airspeed of ______ until another pitch mode is engaged

Answer 11

V2 + 10 to 25 knots

Question 12

What is the optimum climb speed with takeoff flaps?

Answer 12

V2 + 10 knots

Vx

Question 13

What is the maximum bank angle permitted at V2 + 10 knots with takeoff flaps?

Answer 13

25°

Question 14

If LNAV is armed for takeoff, it engages ______

and within ______ of the active leg

Answer 14

above 50 feet AGL

2.5 NM

Question 15

When armed for takeoff, VNAV engages at ______ and provides AFDS climb management for ______ (3)

Answer 15

400 feet AGL

acceleration, flap retraction and climb out

Question 16

Check that the thrust reference changes from TO to CLB on the EICAS at _______

If the thrust reference does not change automatically
_______

Answer 16

the point selected on the takeoff reference page (THR Reduction Height)

manually select climb thrust

Question 17

If VNAV is not used, at acceleration height ________

Climb thrust is normally set at 1500 AGL or after
flaps retract automatically. How is it set manually?

Answer 17

select FLCH and set the command speed to flaps up maneuver speed + 20 knots

using the THR switch on the MCP

(check that the thrust reference changes from TO to CLB on the EICAS)

Question 18

The autopilot is certified to allow engagement _______ after takeoff

The airplane should be ______, and ______
before autopilot engagement

Answer 18

at or above 250 feet AGL

in trim

flight director commands satisfied

Question 19

The minimum altitude for flap retraction is ______

Answer 19

400 feet

Question 20

During flap retraction, full maneuver capability or at least (bank) to stick shaker is provided while retracting the flaps through flaps 1

At _(wt) _ and below, full maneuver capability exists with flaps up and at flaps up maneuver speed ______

Answer 20

40° of bank (25° of bank and 15° overshoot)

309.0 kgs (680,000 lbs)

VREF 30 + 80 knots

Question 21

above (wt) full maneuver capability of at least (bank) to stick shaker does NOT exist until reaching (spd)

For this reason, limit bank angle to ____ with flaps up until reaching ______

Answer 21

309.0 kgs (680.0 lbs)

40° of bank (25° of bank and 15° overshoot)

VREF 30 + 100 knots.

15°

VREF 30 + 100 knots.

Question 22

Minimum control speed in the air (Vmca) is below __(V_)__ and __(V_)__

Answer 22

VR

VREF

Question 23

What is the best indicator of the correct rudder pedal input?

To counter the thrust asymmetry due to an engine failure ______

Flying with lateral control wheel displacement or with excessive aileron trim ______

Answer 23

airplane heading

stop the yaw with rudder.

causes spoilers to be raised

Question 24

VNAV Climb/Descent speeds (National)

Answer 24

climb - (max) 350kts/default Mach

descent - .84/300

Question 25

Meaning of EICAS alert messages preceeded by caret symbols >

Answer 25

informational, has no procedural steps, or the action is obvious (such as Overspeed).

Flight crew does not need to refer to the checklists

Question 26

What is a Quick Action Index checklist?

How are they shown?

Why are some in upper case?

Answer 26

need a quick response

listed first, printed in bold type

annunciated by an EICAS alert message or other indication
(upper and lower case not annunciated)

Question 27

It must be stressed that for smoke that continues or a fire that cannot be positively confirmed to be completely extinguished, ______

Answer 27

the earliest possible descent, landing, and evacuation must be done

(If a smoke, fire or fumes situation becomes uncontrollable, the flight crew should consider an IMMEDIATE landing)

Question 28

Checklists directing an engine shutdown must be evaluated by the Captain to determine whether _____ or _____ is the safest course of action

Continue normal engine operation unless _______

Answer 28

shutdown or operation at reduced thrust

EICAS alert message shows or a limit is exceeded

Question 29

During engine start and before takeoff, the associated non–normal checklist is done if _________ (2)

After completion of the checklist, _______

Answer 29

EICAS alert message or non-normal situation

MEL or DDG (Dispatch Deviations Guide) is consulted to determine if dispatch relief is available

Question 30

The pilot flying may direct checklists to be done by memory if _______

Answer 30

no hazard is created, or if the situation does not allow reference to the checklist

Question 31

Engine failure at cruise:

LRC -

E/O -

Answer 31

better fuel performance

maximum altitude capability

Question 32

PCN -

ACN -

Answer 32

pavement classification number

aircraft classification number

{JeppFD-Pro, General Airport Data}

Question 33

Release amendment required (4)

Answer 33

• distance > 100nm
• altitude > 4000ft
• fuel > 400kg
• return to gate

Question 34

TLR invalidated (4)

Answer 34

• QNH > .10” (3.4hpa)
• OAT > 10C
• TOW >
• MEL perf penalty not in RMKS

Question 35

Jammed Stab

Answer 35

Keep A/P on as long as possible by staying in trim speed.

Question 36

Outboard aileron lock out speed

Answer 36

238 kts