FCTM Flashcards
Above 309,000 kgs limit bank angle to ___ with flaps up until reaching UP + 20 knots (VREF30+100)
Why?
15 deg
Top of amber bar indicates minimum maneuvering speed. This airspeed provides:
• 1.3g maneuver capability to stick shaker or VREF+80, “whichever is LESS”, with flaps up at or below 20,000 FT
The flap maneuver speed is the recommended operating speed (when)
These speeds guarantee full maneuver capability or at least ___ to stick shaker, within ___
While the flaps may be extended up to 20,000 feet, ____ maneuver margin to stick shaker exists for a fixed speed as altitude increases.
during takeoff or landing operations
40° of bank (25° of bank and 15° overshoot)
a few thousand feet of the airport altitude
less
Flaps Down Amber Band, (any time the flaps are not full-up), the minimum maneuver speed is the slowest speed that provides _______
The top of the amber band __(varies/does not vary)__ with g load
full maneuver capability, 1.3g or 40° of bank (25° of bank and 15° overshoot) to stick shaker
does not
As airspeed is decreased below the top of the amber band, maneuver capability decreases.
The speed in the middle of the amber band provides
______ maneuver capability, __(bank/g)__
adequate
30° of bank (15° of bank and 15° overshoot)
1g
Flap maneuver speeds are based on _____
Minimum maneuver speed is calculated using _____
These speeds provide independent means to
ensure that the current airspeed provides at least _______ for __(phase of flight)__
airplane weight
airspeed and angle of attack
full maneuver capability
terminal-area maneuvering
For lighter weights at altitudes up to approximately 10,000 feet, the top of the amber band provides _____
Due to increasing Mach effects between 10,000 and 20,000 feet, the maneuver capability _____
Above approximately 20,000 feet, the top of the
amber band shows the speed that provides ____
full maneuver capability
decreases as altitude increases
1.3g maneuver capability to low speed buffet
There is a direct correlation between bank angle and load factor (Gs) in level, constant speed flight.
25° -
40° -
60° -
- 1g
- 3g
- 0g
Flap retraction and extension schedules provide speeds that are close to _____, and in a climb are close to _____
In level flight they provide a ______ pitch attitude and
require ____ change in thrust at different flap settings
minimum drag
max angle climb speed
relatively constant
little
Conditions Affecting Maneuver Margins to Stick Shaker (6)
airspeed weight altitude landing gear speedbrakes engine failure
Does the use of nacelle or wing anti-ice have any affect on maneuver margin?
no
If the autothrottle is disconnected, or is planned to be disconnected prior to landing, the recommended method for approach speed correction is ______
minimum ____
maximum ____
add one half of the reported steady headwind component plus the full gust
VREF + 5 knots
VREF + 20 knots
One half of the reported steady headwind component can be estimated by using;
____ for a direct headwind, ____ for a 45° crosswind, ____ for a direct crosswind and interpolation inbetween
50% - 1/2
35% - 1/3
zero
When VREF has been adjusted by a NNC, this becomes the new VREF used for landing. This new VREF __(does/does not)__ include wind additives
does not
(for example, if a non-normal checklist
specifies “Use flaps 25 and VREF 30 + 20 knots for landing”, the flight crew would select flaps 25 as the landing flaps and look up the VREF 30 speed in the
FMC or QRH and add 20 knots to that speed, then add wind additive)
V2 is the ______ and provides at least ______(deg bank) for all takeoff flaps
minimum takeoff safety speed
30° bank capability (15° + 15° overshoot)
If the Outside Air Temperature (OAT) is different from the International Standard Atmospheric (ISA), barometric altimeter errors result due to non-standard air density.
When the temperature is warmer than ISA, true altitude is _____ than indicated altitude
When the temperature is colder than ISA, true altitude is _____ than indicated altitude
higher
lower
(temperature higher - altitude higher
temperature lower -altitude lower)
Consider doing the Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections where ______ and/or _____ exist near airports in combination with very cold temperatures ______
Consider correcting en route minimum altitudes and/or flight levels where ______ is a factor
In some cases corrections may be appropriate for temperatures between ______
high terrain
obstacles
-30°C or colder
terrain clearance
0°C and -30°C
Boeing airplanes have _____ Baro-VNAV systems and are _____ from using LNAV/VNAV minima on approach charts when operating outside of published temperature restriction limits
If cold temperature altitude corrections are applied descent to the corrected LNAV (MDA) minima is _____
uncompensated
prohibited
allowed
Ice Crystal Icing at high altitude exists where solid ice particles can cool interior engine surfaces through melting and ice buildup can occur. Ice crystals can accumulate aft of the engine fan, in the engine core When the ice breaks off, it can result in ______
Symptoms can include _____ (3)
engine power loss or damage
surge
flameout
high vibration
Ice crystal icing conditions exist when in visible moisture, and one or more of the following indications are present: (4)
- Amber or red weather radar returns below the airplane
- Appearance of liquid water on the windshield at temperatures too cold for rain (the sound is different than rain)
- The autothrottle is unable to maintain the selected airspeed
- TAT indication on EICAS stays near 0°C
The vertical flight path angle displayed by the FPV uses ________ inputs and should be considered unreliable with unreliable ________
inertial and barometric altitude
primary altitude displays
RNAV approaches are compatible with all FMCs provided _______ is active at the beginning of the approach
DME-DME or GPS updating
When ANP exceeds RNP ______ is displayed
an EICAS alert
If an AFDS anomaly is observed where individual pilot-selected AFDS modes are not responding normally to MCP switch selections, attempt to correct the problem by _________
disengaging the autopilot and selecting both flight director switches to OFF then ON
Presence of windshear may be indicated by? (4)
- Thunderstorm activity
- Virga (rain that evaporates before reaching the ground)
- Pilot reports
- Low level windshear alerting system (LLWAS) warnings
What can you do if windshear is ‘suspected’ for takeoff? (5)
- Delay the takeoff
- Takeoff with full-rated takeoff thrust
- Use the longest suitable runway
- Use flaps 20*
- Increase the Vr speed to the performance limited gross weight rotation speed*
*Improved Climb
During takeoff and initial climb _______ may be the first indication of windshear
airspeed fluctuations
Ice crystals are most frequently found in areas of visible moisture and above altitudes normally associated with icing conditions. Their presence can be indicated by one or more of the following: (5)
• Appearance of rain on the windshield at temperatures too cold for liquid water to exist. This is due to ice crystals melting on the
heated windows (sounds different than rain)
• Airplane TAT indication remains near 0 degrees C due to TAT probe icing
• Areas of light to moderate turbulence
• Heavy precipitation below the airplane, identified by amber and red radar returns on weather radar
• Cloud tops above typical cruise levels (above the tropopause)
Larger flap settings on takeoff provide ______ (2)
shorter takeoff distance
greater tail clearance
Allowing the engines to stabilize for more than ____ before advancing thrust levers may adversely affect takeoff distance
Ensure the target N1 is set by ____
2 seconds
80 knots
If an engine exceedance occurs after thrust is set and the decision is made to continue the takeoff, ______ to control the exceedance, __(because)__
Minimum 400 feet AGL and airspeed acceptable, the thrust lever should be ______
do not retard the thrust lever
invalidates takeoff performance
retarded until the exceedance is within limits
Controls: Start of takeoff roll ______
centerline with ______
rudder becomes effective ______
•light forward pressure on the control column
(above 80 knots relax to the neutral position)
•ailerons neutral
(into wind as required to maintain wings level)
rudder pedal steering and rudder
between 40 and 60 knots
If the accuracy of either primary airspeed indication is in question, reference the ______
Another source of speed information is ______
standby airspeed indicator
ground speed indication
Takeoff into a headwind of _______ may result in HOLD before the autothrottle can make final thrust adjustments
The HOLD mode remains engaged until ______
20 knots or greater
VNAV engagement or another thrust mode is
selected
HOLD mode protects against ______
Lack of the HOLD annunciation means ______
If HOLD annunciation does not appear ______
thrust lever movement if a system fault occurs
the protective feature may not be active
no crew action is required
During takeoff initiate a smooth continuous rotation at VR toward ____ of pitch attitude.
Liftoff at ____
After liftoff use the ______ as the primary pitch reference
Use flight director pitch command for rotation?
15°
10 deg
attitude indicator
no
Tail Strike Pitch Attitude (degrees):
F10 ____
F20 ____
12.5 degrees (both)
Takeoff performance is based on the _____ CG limit
A more _____ CG increases the lift available at a given angle of attack due to _____
forward
aft
reduction in nose up trim required from the horizontal stabilizer
Crosswind Takeoff: below 80 knots _______ forward pressure
The amount of forward pressure required ______ as the crosswind component increases
Begin the takeoff roll with the control wheel ______
throughout the takeoff roll _______
light to moderate
increases
approximately centered
gradually increase control wheel into the wind only enough to maintain approximately wings level
Improved Climb Takeoff Performance:
- certified for flaps ____
- increasing VR speed to the _______ rotation
speed, not to exceed actual gross weight VR ____ - set V speeds for the actual gross weight. Rotate at _____
20 takeoff only
performance limited gross weight
+ 20 knots
the adjusted (higher) rotation speed
When using ATM, the takeoff thrust setting __is/is not__ considered a takeoff operating limit
During ATM takeoff when may thrust levers be advanced to full rated takeoff thrust?
is not
(minimum control speeds VMCG/VMCA are based on the full rated takeoff thrust)
any time
ATM reduced takeoff thrust __(may/may not)__ be used for takeoff on a wet runway
ATM reduced takeoff thrust __(is/is not)__ permitted for takeoff on a runway contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice
may (if approved takeoff performance data for a wet runway is used)
is not
Derated Takeoff Thrust __(is/is not)__ considered an operating limit
Thrust levers __(can be/should not be)__ advanced unless conditions are encountered during the takeoff where additional thrust is needed on all engines, such as a windshear condition.
is
(since minimum control speeds VMCG/VMCA and stabilizer trim setting are based on the derated thrust)
should not be
(If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, any asymmetrical thrust increase could result in loss of directional control)
Derated takeoff thrust __(may/may not)__ be used for takeoff on a wet/contaminated runway
It __(may/will not)__ permit a higher takeoff weight when performance is limited by VMCG, such as on a runway contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice
may
may
(this is because derated takeoff thrust allows a
lower VMCG)
After the airplane is in the air, pushing a TO/GA switch advances the thrust levers to ______ and ______ is annunciated
maximum available thrust
THR REF
Engine Failure Recognition: ______ is the best indicator of the correct rudder pedal input
To counter the thrust asymmetry due to an engine failure, stop the yaw with ______
In flight, correct rudder input approximately
_______
airplane heading
rudder (using aileron causes spoilers to be raised)
centers the control wheel
One Engine Inoperative Liftoff attitude should be ____ deg and achieved in approximately ____ seconds
Adjust pitch attitude, as needed, to maintain desired airspeed of _____
10.6 deg
5 seconds
V2 to V2 + 10 knots
One Engine Inoperative initial climb attitude should be adjusted to maintain a minimum of ___ and _____
After liftoff the flight director commands a minimum of ____, or _____up to a maximum of _____
V2 and a positive climb
V2
existing speed
V2 + 10 knots
Retract the landing gear after a positive rate of climb is indicated on ______
the altimeter.
After Engine Failure/Fire select ENG OUT climb on VNAV CLB page after ______ (3)
flap retraction
all obstructions are cleared
NNC complete
The flight director roll mode commands _______ after liftoff until LNAV engagement or another roll mode is selected
If ______ is not consistent with desired flight path, use ______ to achieve the desired track
ground track (wings level)
ground track (wings level)
HDG SEL/LNAV
Engine indications of a fire, impending breakup or approaching or exceeding limits, should be dealt with ______
Accomplish the appropriate memory checklist items as soon as ______ (3)
Accomplish the reference checklist items after _____
as soon as possible
under control
gear retracted
safe altitude
(typically 400 feet AGL or above)
flaps have been retracted and conditions permit
One Engine Inoperative: If an immediate turn is required maintain _______
The AFDS limits the bank angle to ____ until ______
Bank angles up to ____ are permitted at _____ with takeoff flaps.
V2 to V2 + 10 knots with takeoff flaps
15° until V2 + 10 knots
25°
V2 + 10 knots
The minimum altitude for flap retraction with an engine inoperative is ______
During training, Boeing uses ______ as a standard altitude to initiate acceleration for flap retraction
400 feet AGL
1,000 feet AFE
Acceleration height for a takeoff with an engine failure after V1 is based on accelerating to ______ while retracting flaps and selecting the maximum continuous thrust limit within _____ after initiating takeoff
VREF + 100 knots
5 minutes (10 minutes)
At engine out acceleration height, if VNAV is engaged, a ______ segment is commanded for acceleration
Airspeed commands to ______
With flaps up and airspeed greater than _____ VNAV automatically sets the reference thrust limit to Max Continuous Thrust (CON)
near-level
VREF + 100 knots
VREF + 98 knots
At engine out acceleration height, if VNAV is not engaged _______
select FLCH
flaps up maneuver speed + 20 knots on the MCP
One Engine Inoperative: After flap retraction and at or above flaps up maneuver speed +20 knots, if VNAV is not engaged, select FLCH and _______ (3) and continue the climb to the obstacle clearance altitude.
when the flaps are up and thrust is set _______ (2)
THR switch push
verify CON is set
select and execute ENG OUT prompt
NNC
After Takeoff checklist
Engine Failure During ATM Takeoff:
Is thrust increase required?
If more thrust is needed during an ATM takeoff,
thrust may be increased to full rated takeoff thrust by _______
no
(ATM takeoff must comply with all regulatory takeoff performance requirements)
manually advancing the thrust levers while still on the runway, or by pushing the TO/GA switch when airborne
(because the takeoff speeds consider VMCG and VMCA at the full rated takeoff thrust)
Engine Failure During a Derated Thrust (Fixed Derate) Takeoff:
Increase thrust to _____
Do not increase thrust
(could result in loss of directional control because the takeoff speeds assure VMCG and VMCA only at the fixed derate level of thrust)
Increase thrust only as required to insure terrain clearance
The speed at the bottom of the amber band corresponds to _______
If the g load is increased during maneuvering, the stick shaker activation speed ______
stick shaker activation for the current g load
increases
Takeoff Briefing: (1/6)
- departure flight path with emphasis on anticipated track and altitude restrictions
(It is not necessary to brief normal or standard takeoff procedures)
- adverse weather
- adverse runway conditions
- unique noise abatement requirements
- MEL
- EFP (engine failure procedure)
- other ‘where it is necessary’
Holding:
Speed reduction point
Leg timing
Flaps 1 fuel penalty
3 min before fix
initial outbound leg -
1 min at or below 140
1.5 min above 140
(adjust to achieve proper inbound leg timing)
10%
Maximum holding speeds:
ICAO
FAA
140^ and below - 230*
above 140 to 200 - 240
above 200 to 340 - 265*
above 340 - .83
6000 and below - 200
above 60 to 140^ - 230* (210)
above 140 - 265*
Takeoff Briefing is a description of _____
with emphasis on ______
It assumes ______
departure flight path
anticipated track and altitude restrictions
normal operating restrictions are used
