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NCR 744 > FCTM > Flashcards

FCTM Flashcards

1
Q

Above 309,000 kgs limit bank angle to ___ with flaps up until reaching UP + 20 knots (VREF30+100)

Why?

A

15 deg

Top of amber bar indicates minimum maneuvering speed. This airspeed provides:

• 1.3g maneuver capability to stick shaker or VREF+80, “whichever is LESS”, with flaps up at or below 20,000 FT

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2
Q

The flap maneuver speed is the recommended operating speed (when)

These speeds guarantee full maneuver capability or at least ___ to stick shaker, within ___

While the flaps may be extended up to 20,000 feet, ____ maneuver margin to stick shaker exists for a fixed speed as altitude increases.

A

during takeoff or landing operations

40° of bank (25° of bank and 15° overshoot)

a few thousand feet of the airport altitude

less

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3
Q

Flaps Down Amber Band, (any time the flaps are not full-up), the minimum maneuver speed is the slowest speed that provides _______

The top of the amber band __(varies/does not vary)__ with g load

A

full maneuver capability, 1.3g or 40° of bank (25° of bank and 15° overshoot) to stick shaker

does not

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4
Q

As airspeed is decreased below the top of the amber band, maneuver capability decreases.

The speed in the middle of the amber band provides
______ maneuver capability, __(bank/g)__

A

adequate

30° of bank (15° of bank and 15° overshoot)

1g

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5
Q

Flap maneuver speeds are based on _____

Minimum maneuver speed is calculated using _____

These speeds provide independent means to
ensure that the current airspeed provides at least _______ for __(phase of flight)__

A

airplane weight

airspeed and angle of attack

full maneuver capability

terminal-area maneuvering

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6
Q

For lighter weights at altitudes up to approximately 10,000 feet, the top of the amber band provides _____

Due to increasing Mach effects between 10,000 and 20,000 feet, the maneuver capability _____

Above approximately 20,000 feet, the top of the
amber band shows the speed that provides ____

A

full maneuver capability

decreases as altitude increases

1.3g maneuver capability to low speed buffet

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7
Q

There is a direct correlation between bank angle and load factor (Gs) in level, constant speed flight.

25° -
40° -
60° -

A
  1. 1g
  2. 3g
  3. 0g
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8
Q

Flap retraction and extension schedules provide speeds that are close to _____, and in a climb are close to _____

In level flight they provide a ______ pitch attitude and
require ____ change in thrust at different flap settings

A

minimum drag

max angle climb speed

relatively constant

little

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9
Q

Conditions Affecting Maneuver Margins to Stick Shaker (6)

A 
airspeed
weight
altitude 
landing gear
speedbrakes
engine failure
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10
Q

Does the use of nacelle or wing anti-ice have any affect on maneuver margin?

A

no

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11
Q

If the autothrottle is disconnected, or is planned to be disconnected prior to landing, the recommended method for approach speed correction is ______

minimum ____

maximum ____

A

add one half of the reported steady headwind component plus the full gust

VREF + 5 knots

VREF + 20 knots

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12
Q

One half of the reported steady headwind component can be estimated by using;

____ for a direct headwind, ____ for a 45° crosswind, ____ for a direct crosswind and interpolation inbetween

A

50% - 1/2

35% - 1/3

zero

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13
Q

When VREF has been adjusted by a NNC, this becomes the new VREF used for landing. This new VREF __(does/does not)__ include wind additives

A

does not

(for example, if a non-normal checklist
specifies “Use flaps 25 and VREF 30 + 20 knots for landing”, the flight crew would select flaps 25 as the landing flaps and look up the VREF 30 speed in the
FMC or QRH and add 20 knots to that speed, then add wind additive)

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14
Q

V2 is the ______ and provides at least ______(deg bank) for all takeoff flaps

A

minimum takeoff safety speed

30° bank capability (15° + 15° overshoot)

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15
Q

If the Outside Air Temperature (OAT) is different from the International Standard Atmospheric (ISA), barometric altimeter errors result due to non-standard air density.

When the temperature is warmer than ISA, true altitude is _____ than indicated altitude
When the temperature is colder than ISA, true altitude is _____ than indicated altitude

A

higher

lower

(temperature higher - altitude higher
temperature lower -altitude lower)

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16
Q

Consider doing the Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections where ______ and/or _____ exist near airports in combination with very cold temperatures ______

Consider correcting en route minimum altitudes and/or flight levels where ______ is a factor
In some cases corrections may be appropriate for temperatures between ______

A

high terrain
obstacles
-30°C or colder

terrain clearance
0°C and -30°C

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17
Q

Boeing airplanes have _____ Baro-VNAV systems and are _____ from using LNAV/VNAV minima on approach charts when operating outside of published temperature restriction limits

If cold temperature altitude corrections are applied descent to the corrected LNAV (MDA) minima is _____

A

uncompensated

prohibited

allowed

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18
Q

Ice Crystal Icing at high altitude exists where solid ice particles can cool interior engine surfaces through melting and ice buildup can occur. Ice crystals can accumulate aft of the engine fan, in the engine core When the ice breaks off, it can result in ______

Symptoms can include _____ (3)

A

engine power loss or damage

surge
flameout
high vibration

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19
Q

Ice crystal icing conditions exist when in visible moisture, and one or more of the following indications are present: (4)

A
  • Amber or red weather radar returns below the airplane
  • Appearance of liquid water on the windshield at temperatures too cold for rain (the sound is different than rain)
  • The autothrottle is unable to maintain the selected airspeed
  • TAT indication on EICAS stays near 0°C
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20
Q

The vertical flight path angle displayed by the FPV uses ________ inputs and should be considered unreliable with unreliable ________

A

inertial and barometric altitude

primary altitude displays

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21
Q

RNAV approaches are compatible with all FMCs provided _______ is active at the beginning of the approach

A

DME-DME or GPS updating

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22
Q

When ANP exceeds RNP ______ is displayed

A

an EICAS alert

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23
Q

If an AFDS anomaly is observed where individual pilot-selected AFDS modes are not responding normally to MCP switch selections, attempt to correct the problem by _________

A

disengaging the autopilot and selecting both flight director switches to OFF then ON

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24
Q

Presence of windshear may be indicated by? (4)

A
  • Thunderstorm activity
  • Virga (rain that evaporates before reaching the ground)
  • Pilot reports
  • Low level windshear alerting system (LLWAS) warnings
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25
Q

What can you do if windshear is ‘suspected’ for takeoff? (5)

A
  • Delay the takeoff
  • Takeoff with full-rated takeoff thrust
  • Use the longest suitable runway
  • Use flaps 20*
  • Increase the Vr speed to the performance limited gross weight rotation speed*

*Improved Climb

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26
Q

During takeoff and initial climb _______ may be the first indication of windshear

A

airspeed fluctuations

27
Q

Ice crystals are most frequently found in areas of visible moisture and above altitudes normally associated with icing conditions. Their presence can be indicated by one or more of the following: (5)

A

• Appearance of rain on the windshield at temperatures too cold for liquid water to exist. This is due to ice crystals melting on the
heated windows (sounds different than rain)
• Airplane TAT indication remains near 0 degrees C due to TAT probe icing
• Areas of light to moderate turbulence
• Heavy precipitation below the airplane, identified by amber and red radar returns on weather radar
• Cloud tops above typical cruise levels (above the tropopause)

28
Q

Larger flap settings on takeoff provide ______ (2)

A

shorter takeoff distance

greater tail clearance

29
Q

Allowing the engines to stabilize for more than ____ before advancing thrust levers may adversely affect takeoff distance

Ensure the target N1 is set by ____

A

2 seconds

80 knots

30
Q

If an engine exceedance occurs after thrust is set and the decision is made to continue the takeoff, ______ to control the exceedance, __(because)__

Minimum 400 feet AGL and airspeed acceptable, the thrust lever should be ______

A

do not retard the thrust lever

invalidates takeoff performance

retarded until the exceedance is within limits

31
Q

Controls: Start of takeoff roll ______

centerline with ______

rudder becomes effective ______

A

•light forward pressure on the control column
(above 80 knots relax to the neutral position)
•ailerons neutral
(into wind as required to maintain wings level)

rudder pedal steering and rudder

between 40 and 60 knots

32
Q

If the accuracy of either primary airspeed indication is in question, reference the ______

Another source of speed information is ______

A

standby airspeed indicator

ground speed indication

33
Q

Takeoff into a headwind of _______ may result in HOLD before the autothrottle can make final thrust adjustments

The HOLD mode remains engaged until ______

A

20 knots or greater

VNAV engagement or another thrust mode is
selected

34
Q

HOLD mode protects against ______

Lack of the HOLD annunciation means ______

If HOLD annunciation does not appear ______

A

thrust lever movement if a system fault occurs

the protective feature may not be active

no crew action is required

35
Q

During takeoff initiate a smooth continuous rotation at VR toward ____ of pitch attitude.

Liftoff at ____

After liftoff use the ______ as the primary pitch reference

Use flight director pitch command for rotation?

A

15°

10 deg

attitude indicator

no

36
Q

Tail Strike Pitch Attitude (degrees):

F10 ____

F20 ____

A

12.5 degrees (both)

37
Q

Takeoff performance is based on the _____ CG limit

A more _____ CG increases the lift available at a given angle of attack due to _____

A

forward

aft

reduction in nose up trim required from the horizontal stabilizer

38
Q

Crosswind Takeoff: below 80 knots _______ forward pressure

The amount of forward pressure required ______ as the crosswind component increases

Begin the takeoff roll with the control wheel ______

throughout the takeoff roll _______

A

light to moderate

increases

approximately centered

gradually increase control wheel into the wind only enough to maintain approximately wings level

39
Q

Improved Climb Takeoff Performance:

  • certified for flaps ____
  • increasing VR speed to the _______ rotation
    speed, not to exceed actual gross weight VR ____
  • set V speeds for the actual gross weight. Rotate at _____
A

20 takeoff only

performance limited gross weight

+ 20 knots

the adjusted (higher) rotation speed

40
Q

When using ATM, the takeoff thrust setting __is/is not__ considered a takeoff operating limit

During ATM takeoff when may thrust levers be advanced to full rated takeoff thrust?

A

is not

(minimum control speeds VMCG/VMCA are based on the full rated takeoff thrust)

any time

41
Q

ATM reduced takeoff thrust __(may/may not)__ be used for takeoff on a wet runway

ATM reduced takeoff thrust __(is/is not)__ permitted for takeoff on a runway contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice

A

may (if approved takeoff performance data for a wet runway is used)

is not

42
Q

Derated Takeoff Thrust __(is/is not)__ considered an operating limit

Thrust levers __(can be/should not be)__ advanced unless conditions are encountered during the takeoff where additional thrust is needed on all engines, such as a windshear condition.

A

is

(since minimum control speeds VMCG/VMCA and stabilizer trim setting are based on the derated thrust)

should not be

(If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, any asymmetrical thrust increase could result in loss of directional control)

43
Q

Derated takeoff thrust __(may/may not)__ be used for takeoff on a wet/contaminated runway

It __(may/will not)__ permit a higher takeoff weight when performance is limited by VMCG, such as on a runway contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice

A

may

may

(this is because derated takeoff thrust allows a
lower VMCG)

44
Q

After the airplane is in the air, pushing a TO/GA switch advances the thrust levers to ______ and ______ is annunciated

A

maximum available thrust

THR REF

45
Q

Engine Failure Recognition: ______ is the best indicator of the correct rudder pedal input

To counter the thrust asymmetry due to an engine failure, stop the yaw with ______

In flight, correct rudder input approximately
_______

A

airplane heading

rudder (using aileron causes spoilers to be raised)

centers the control wheel

46
Q

One Engine Inoperative Liftoff attitude should be ____ deg and achieved in approximately ____ seconds

Adjust pitch attitude, as needed, to maintain desired airspeed of _____

A

10.6 deg

5 seconds

V2 to V2 + 10 knots

47
Q

One Engine Inoperative initial climb attitude should be adjusted to maintain a minimum of ___ and _____

After liftoff the flight director commands a minimum of ____, or _____up to a maximum of _____

A

V2 and a positive climb

V2

existing speed

V2 + 10 knots

48
Q

Retract the landing gear after a positive rate of climb is indicated on ______

A

the altimeter.

49
Q

After Engine Failure/Fire select ENG OUT climb on VNAV CLB page after ______ (3)

A

flap retraction

all obstructions are cleared

NNC complete

50
Q

The flight director roll mode commands _______ after liftoff until LNAV engagement or another roll mode is selected

If ______ is not consistent with desired flight path, use ______ to achieve the desired track

A

ground track (wings level)

ground track (wings level)

HDG SEL/LNAV

51
Q

Engine indications of a fire, impending breakup or approaching or exceeding limits, should be dealt with ______

Accomplish the appropriate memory checklist items as soon as ______ (3)

Accomplish the reference checklist items after _____

A

as soon as possible

under control

gear retracted

safe altitude
(typically 400 feet AGL or above)

flaps have been retracted and conditions permit

52
Q

One Engine Inoperative: If an immediate turn is required maintain _______

The AFDS limits the bank angle to ____ until ______

Bank angles up to ____ are permitted at _____ with takeoff flaps.

A

V2 to V2 + 10 knots with takeoff flaps

15° until V2 + 10 knots

25°

V2 + 10 knots

53
Q

The minimum altitude for flap retraction with an engine inoperative is ______

During training, Boeing uses ______ as a standard altitude to initiate acceleration for flap retraction

A

400 feet AGL

1,000 feet AFE

54
Q

Acceleration height for a takeoff with an engine failure after V1 is based on accelerating to ______ while retracting flaps and selecting the maximum continuous thrust limit within _____ after initiating takeoff

A

VREF + 100 knots

5 minutes (10 minutes)

55
Q

At engine out acceleration height, if VNAV is engaged, a ______ segment is commanded for acceleration

Airspeed commands to ______

With flaps up and airspeed greater than _____ VNAV automatically sets the reference thrust limit to Max Continuous Thrust (CON)

A

near-level

VREF + 100 knots

VREF + 98 knots

56
Q

At engine out acceleration height, if VNAV is not engaged _______

A

select FLCH

flaps up maneuver speed + 20 knots on the MCP

57
Q

One Engine Inoperative: After flap retraction and at or above flaps up maneuver speed +20 knots, if VNAV is not engaged, select FLCH and _______ (3) and continue the climb to the obstacle clearance altitude.

when the flaps are up and thrust is set _______ (2)

A

THR switch push

verify CON is set

select and execute ENG OUT prompt

NNC

After Takeoff checklist

58
Q

Engine Failure During ATM Takeoff:

Is thrust increase required?

If more thrust is needed during an ATM takeoff,
thrust may be increased to full rated takeoff thrust by _______

A

no

(ATM takeoff must comply with all regulatory takeoff performance requirements)

manually advancing the thrust levers while still on the runway, or by pushing the TO/GA switch when airborne

(because the takeoff speeds consider VMCG and VMCA at the full rated takeoff thrust)

59
Q

Engine Failure During a Derated Thrust (Fixed Derate) Takeoff:

Increase thrust to _____

A

Do not increase thrust

(could result in loss of directional control because the takeoff speeds assure VMCG and VMCA only at the fixed derate level of thrust)

Increase thrust only as required to insure terrain clearance

60
Q

The speed at the bottom of the amber band corresponds to _______

If the g load is increased during maneuvering, the stick shaker activation speed ______

A

stick shaker activation for the current g load

increases

61
Q

Takeoff Briefing: (1/6)

A
  • departure flight path with emphasis on anticipated track and altitude restrictions

(It is not necessary to brief normal or standard takeoff procedures)

  • adverse weather
  • adverse runway conditions
  • unique noise abatement requirements
  • MEL
  • EFP (engine failure procedure)
  • other ‘where it is necessary’
62
Q

Holding:

Speed reduction point

Leg timing

Flaps 1 fuel penalty

A

3 min before fix

initial outbound leg -
1 min at or below 140
1.5 min above 140
(adjust to achieve proper inbound leg timing)

10%

63
Q

Maximum holding speeds:

ICAO

FAA

A

140^ and below - 230*
above 140 to 200 - 240
above 200 to 340 - 265*
above 340 - .83

6000 and below - 200
above 60 to 140^ - 230* (210)
above 140 - 265*

64
Q

Takeoff Briefing is a description of _____
with emphasis on ______

It assumes ______

A

departure flight path

anticipated track and altitude restrictions

normal operating restrictions are used

NCR 744 (23 decks)

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