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NCR 744 > GOM > Flashcards

GOM Flashcards

1
Q

Before each flight ALL ‘operating flight crewmembers’ shall review (6)

A 
Maintenance Log
Flight Plan
Weather 
NOTAMs
Performance 
Weight and Balance

{2-6}

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2
Q

A change of PIC requires _____

A

a new Dispatch Release

(can be verbal with Dispatch - record time and initials of amending party)

{2-7}

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3
Q

Above FL____ one pilot must wear 02 mask

A

410

{2-8}

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4
Q

Above FL____ must wear mask if only one pilot at controls

A

250

{2-8}

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5
Q

Cabin altitude above 10,00ft, up to and including ____ft, must wear mask if more than ____ min

A

12,000

30

{2-30}

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6
Q

Verify MCP changes on FMA by __(PF/PM)__

A

both

{2-10}

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7
Q

Both pilots verify altitude changes on ____

A

MCP

{2-12}

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8
Q

How do you satisfy Special Airport Qualification?

A

read Jeppesen Special Airport Qualification pages

{2-14}

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9
Q

When are non-revenue Part 91 Flights used? (3)

A

repositioning

maintenance ferry

maintenance acceptance

{2-16}

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10
Q

Three-engine ferry only by persons ____

A

authorized by the Administrator

{2-20}

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11
Q

Transportation ‘local in character’ is ___ min or less between airport and hotel and ___(can/can not)___ be considered part of a rest period

A

60

can

{3-1}

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12
Q

Flight Time begins _____ and ends _____

A

when aircraft moves under it’s own power for the purpose of flight

when the aircraft comes to a rest after landing

{3-1}

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13
Q

Must except/acknowledge flight assignment ____ hrs prior to scheduled reporting time

A

12

{3-2}

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14
Q

Rest Period is a _____ period of time free from _____

A

continuous

all duty

{3-3}

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15
Q

The company ___may/may not___ contact crew once during a required rest period

A

may

(up to 1 hr after release or within 1.5 hrs prior to reporting)

{3-3}

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16
Q

When Autoland is used to satisfy landing currency requirements, which pilot is credited for landing?

A

both

{3-4}

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17
Q

Duty Time begins ____ mins prior to scheduled departure and end ____ min after block in

A

60/90 (international)

30

{3-9/10}

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18
Q

Who is responsible for notifying SOC, and establish a new report time if needed, if duty period is extended due to post flight duty requirements?

A

PIC

{3-10}

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19
Q

Must block in ____ mins before end of duty time to be compliant

A

30

{3-11}

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20
Q

If the projected end of duty period time is within ____ hrs of the Crew Duty End Time, the Dispatcher will notify _____ and _____

A

3

pilot

Duty Manager

{3-11}

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21
Q

If you leave the company hotel for more than ____ hrs you must notify _____, _____ or ____ and leave contact number

A

2

Captain

Crew Scheduling

SOC Duty Manager

{3-13}

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22
Q

Company may extend into days off for no more than ____ hrs

A

72

{3-14}

23
Q

A repositioning/ferry flight ___(may/may not)___ be performed after completion of a revenue flight as a Part 91 non-revenue flight without complying with 121 rest requirements

A

may

{3-14}

24
Q

A flightcrew member may not take off on a flight segment if he does not have _____ that the flight segment will be completed within the maximum flight and/or duty time limitations

A

a reasonable expectation

{3-15}

25
Q

Home base stby will return Crew Scheduling calls within ____ mins and be prepared to depart on DH flight within ____ hrs

A

15

4

{3-15}

26
Q

Long Call Reserve:

  • Positive contact with Crew Scheduling via _____ or _____
  • minimum of ____ hrs notice prior to show time
A

email
phone

10

{3-16}

27
Q

Short Call Reserve:

  • must return call within ____ min
  • report to the aircraft no later than ____
A

15

2 hours

{3-16}

28
Q

2 pilot domestic or international flight/duty limits ____

A

8/16

(during any 24 consecutive hours)

{3-18/19}

29
Q

3 pilot domestic or international flight/duty limits _____

A

12/18

(during any 24 hour period)

{3-18/20}

30
Q

4 pilot domestic flight/duty limits ____

A

16/20

(during any 24 consecutive hours)

{3-18}

31
Q

Flight time limitation in any 12 calendar month period

A

1,000

{3-19}

32
Q

4 pilot international flight/duty limits _____

A

no published limit/30

{3-20/21}

33
Q

Minimum rest - 4 pilot international ____

A

10 hours ‘on the ground’

16 hours ‘on the ground’
(if more than 24 hrs on duty - scheduled or not)

{3-20}

34
Q

Required Trip Envelope documents (5)

A 
search checklist 
dispatch release
flight plan 
load manifest
maintenance log page (yellow)

{4-5}

35
Q

Walk-around must be performed by ____

A

member of flight crew OR mechanic

{4-6}

36
Q

B744 is ICAO code ____ aircraft

A

E

{4-9}

37
Q

No alcohol ____ hours before flight, sim, ground training

A

12

{4-33}

38
Q

Transfer of control in flight briefing (5)

A 
speed
LNAV
VNAV
altitude
CMD

{4-44}

39
Q

Lowest takeoff minimums and required equipment

A

600(175m)/600(175)/600(175)

HIRL ‘and’ CL lights

{4-49}

40
Q

Lowest takeoff minimums with either HIRL ‘or’ CL lights

A

1000(300m)/(1000(300m)/1000(300m)

{4-49}

41
Q

SMGCS (SMIGS) in effect below

A

RVR 1200 (350m)

{4-50}

42
Q

Circling approaches (without training) are approved with weather _____ and minimums _____

A

1000 ft / visibility 3 miles or published circling minimums (whichever is higher)

1000 ft HAA or published MDA (whichever is higher)

{4-56}

43
Q

VNAV approach requirements:

GOM (4)
FCOM (3)

A

-approach in database
-no modifications on final segment (including FAF)
- VNAV PTH annunciated by 1000 ft HAA
- ANP within limits (if published)
{4-57}

FCOM:
- GP angle on legs page, or
- RWxx waypoint, or
- MXxx waypoint before end of runway
{NP.21.42}
44
Q

Descent below MDA/DA(H) requirements (4)

A

visual reference

continuously in position

normal descent rate

land in touchdown zone

{4-67}

45
Q

Which RVR is controlling for approaches?

A

Touchdown zone

(mid/rollout advisory only, use mid if touchdown zone inop)

{4-59}

46
Q

Stabilized approach from _____ feet (5)

A

1000

correct flight path

small changes in heading/pitch

speed (+10/-5)

landing configuration (checklist complete)

sink rate no greater than 1000 fpm (or brief)

{4-60}
FCTM {5.4}

47
Q

Airplane must be aligned within the confines of the runway by _____

A

200 ft AGL

{4-61}

48
Q

Crew must report to Dispatcher any time flight deviates:

____ min late from planned ETA

____ feet from planned altitude

____ NM from planned route

A

15

4000

100

{Ops Specs B43.c.(1)}

49
Q

When must you file a ‘low fuel’ report?

A

Emergency declared

Low fuel declared and given ATC priority

{Ops specs B43.c.(2)}

50
Q

Autopilot minimum use height (MUH)

ILS ____

NP ____

A

100 ft

MDA - 50

{Ops spec C071.c}

51
Q

Circle to land weather minimums (without training):

ceiling _____ ft,

visibility _____ sm,

MDA _____ ft

A

1000 ft

3 sm

1000 ft (or published if higher)

{Ops spec C075.d}

52
Q

Change of control the Pilot Flying should state __(5)__ then say “You have the controls.”

A

speed

autoflight modes (e.g. LNAV, VNAV)

altitude

CMD

{4-8}

53
Q

What is the minimum planned landing fuel at the _____ airport?

A

alternate

9000 kg

{4-41}

NCR 744 (23 decks)

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