Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Tire speed

A

204 kts

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2
Q

Runway slope

A

+/- 2%

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3
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind

Component

A

15 knots

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4
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

45,100 feet pressure altitude

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5
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Altitude

A

10,000 feet pressure altitude

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6
Q

Maximum Field Elevation

A

9,500 feet

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7
Q

Maximum speed operating in RVSM airspace

A

0.90 Mach

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8
Q

Ground wind limits for all doors

A
  • 40 knots while opening or closing

* 65 knots while open

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9
Q

Takeoff/Landing Crosswind Guidelines (including peak gust): Good
Dry
Wet

A

Dry 30/30

Wet 25/25

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10
Q

Takeoff/Landing Crosswind Guidelines (including peak gust)

Medium - Poor

A

15/10

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11
Q

Maximum Taxi Weight

A

395.9

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12
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight

A

394.6

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13
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

295.7

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14
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

276.6

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15
Q

Minimum Flight Weight

A

166.6

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16
Q

Maximum differential pressure (relief valves)

A

9.4 psi

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17
Q

Maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for

takeoff and landing

A

0.11 psi

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18
Q

The autopilot must not be engaged below ___ feet after takeoff

A

250

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19
Q

The autopilot must not be engaged below ___ feet during enroute operation.

A

500

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20
Q

The autopilot must be disengaged below ___ feet in a single channel ILS approach

A

150

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21
Q

The autopilot must be disengaged below ___ feet in a non-precision approach.

A

360

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22
Q

Do not use FLCH on final approach below ___ feet airport field elevation

A

1,000

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23
Q

Autoland - Flaps

A

25 or 30 only

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24
Q

Autoland - Glideslope Angle

A

Maximum 3.25º

Minimum 2.5º

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25
Q

Automatic landings require _ operating hydraulic systems

A

4

26
Q

Autoland - Maximum Wind Component

Headwind
Tailwind
Crosswind

A

25 knots
15 knots
25 knots

27
Q

Do not operate HF radios during ___

A

refueling operations

28
Q

Do not operate the weather radar (3)

A

in a hangar

within 50 feet of any personnel

within 50 feet of a fuel spill

29
Q

Remove any power cords from all flight deck PC power outlets before ____

A

using a hand microphone

30
Q

Desired Oxygen Pressures - Crew/Pass system

A

1,200/1,200

31
Q

Personnel entering main cargo deck during flight ____

A

will carry a portable oxygen bottle

32
Q

The smoke barrier door must be closed during ____

A

taxi, takeoff, flight and landing

33
Q

EGT Limits -
Starting
Takeoff
Continuous

A

750 (870 - 40 sec)
960 (5 min)
925

34
Q

Minimum Oil Pressure

A

10 psi

35
Q

Max Oil Temperature -
Continuous
Transient (15 min)

A

160º C

175º C

36
Q

Continuous ignition must be ON encountering: (5)

A
  • heavy rain
  • severe turbulence
  • volcanic ash
  • icing conditions
  • standing water or slush on runway
37
Q
APU Limits -
Between starts wait:
1 and 2 \_\_ min
2 and 3 \_\_ min
3 and 4 \_\_ min
A

Between battery starts wait:
1 minute
1 minute
75 minutes

38
Q

The maximum altitude with flaps extended is ______ feet

A

20,000

39
Q

Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits -
Flaps Up
Flaps Down

A

+2.5g to -1.0g

+2.0g to 0.0g

40
Q

Use of speed brakes in flight with flaps extended past __ is not recommended

A

20

41
Q

From engine start until shutdown at the completion of flight, _______ are the primary means of alerting the flight crews to non-normal conditions or improper configuration

A

EICAS Alert messages (Warning, Caution, Advisory)

42
Q

Maximum speed in RVSM Airspace

A

0.90 Mach

43
Q

The maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operations is ______

A

200 feet

44
Q

The maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display difference for RVSM between Captain and First Officer -

A

SL to 5,000 ft - 35 feet

10,000 ft - 40 feet

45
Q

The maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display difference for RVSM operations between CA/FO and Field Elevation -

A

75 feet

46
Q

IFR approach procedures using VNAV to a DA(H) are not authorized if the path angle is less than ____ or more than ____ degrees

A
  1. 75

3. 50

47
Q

Do not extend or retract the flaps between positions __ and __ during fuel jettison

A

1 and 5

48
Q

The use of ___ and ___ fuels are prohibited

A

Jet B and JP4

49
Q

In-flight tank fuel temperature must be maintained at least ___ above the fuel freezing point of the fuel being used

A

3° C

50
Q

Jet A Freeze Point -

A
  • 40 C
51
Q

Jet A1 Freeze Point -

A

-47 C

52
Q

Nacelle anti-ice must be ON during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except when the temperature is below ____

A

-40°C OAT

53
Q

Icing conditions exist when the OAT on the ground or TAT in-flight, is (4)

A

10°C or below, and;

  • visible moisture in any form is present
  • When operating on ramps, taxiways or runways with snow, ice, standing water or slush
  • When the difference between the temperature and dew point is less than 3°C
54
Q

Do not use anti-ice if OAT or TAT exceeds ____

A

10°C

55
Q

Ice crystal conditions exist when in visible moisture and one or more of the following indications are present: (4)

A
  • Amber or red weather radar returns below the airplane.
  • Appearance of liquid water on the windshield at temperatures too cold for rain (the sound is different than rain).
  • The autothrottle is unable to maintain the selected airspeed.
  • TAT indication on EICAS remains near 0°C.
56
Q

TAT should normally increase approximately __°C per ___ feet of descent

A

2°C per 1,000 feet

57
Q
Flap Placard Speed (VFE)
1 
5
10
20
25
30
A
1   - 280
5   -260
10 - 240
20 -230
25 -205
30 -180
58
Q

Landing Gear Operating Speeds:
Retract or Extend (VLO/MLO) -
Extended (VLE/MLE) -

A

270/0.82

320/0.82

59
Q

The total number of persons carried, including crew, shall not exceed __

A

10

60
Q

Access to the cargo compartment during ___, ___, ___, and ___ is prohibited

A

Taxi, Takeoff, Flight, and Landing

61
Q

Mode 4 of the GPWS must be determined to be operational before takeoff by verifying that a ____ status message is not displayed on EICAS before engine start, and a ____ advisory message is not displayed on EICAS after engine start and before takeoff

A

GND PROX SYS

GND PROX SYS

62
Q

Above _______ full maneuver capability is not attained until reaching __________

A

309,000 kgs

VREF 30 + 100 knots.