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NCR 744 > 10 - Flight Instruments, Displays > Flashcards

10 - Flight Instruments, Displays Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the Pitch Limit Indication?

When is it displayed?

A

stick shaker activation point for existing flight conditions

flaps not up

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2
Q

Data source:

Airspeed - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Altitude - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Attitude - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Heading - \_\_\_\_\_\_
Verticle Speed - \_\_\_\_\_\_
A 
ADC
ADC
IRS
IRS
ADC  (dampened by IRS)

PFD: (ADC - outter, IRS - inner)

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3
Q

Trend Indication indicates predicted airspeed in ___ , based on ____

A

ten seconds

current acceleration/deceleration rate

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4
Q

Current airspeed displays ____ with no computed information

A

30 knots

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5
Q

Maximum Speed indicates maximum airspeed limited by lowest of the following (3)

A
  • Vmo/Mmo
  • landing gear placard speed
  • flap placard speed
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6
Q

Command Speed Pointer is ____ knots in height

A

5

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7
Q

Minimum Maneuvering Speed (top of amber bar) provides ___g maneuver capability

Flaps down -
Flaps up -
Above FL200 -

When is it displayed?

A

1.3g

  • to stick shaker with flaps down
  • to stick shaker or VREF+80, whichever is less*, with flaps up at or below 20,000 FT
  • to low speed buffet (or as preset by maintenance), with flaps up above 20,000 FT

with first flap retraction after takeoff

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8
Q

1.3g maneuver capability occurs at ____ degrees of bank in level flight

A

40

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9
Q

During non-normal conditions the target speed __(may/may not)__ be below the
minimum maneuvering speed

A

may

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10
Q

Flap Maneuver Speed is the recommended operating speed ______

These speeds guarantee __________ or at least
____ of bank (_____ of bank and _____ overshoot) to stick shaker within ________

A

during takeoff or landing operations

full maneuver capability

40° 25° 15°

a few thousand feet of the airport altitude

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11
Q

Above _______ full maneuver capability is not attained until reaching ________

A

309,000 kgs

VREF 30 + 100 knots.

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12
Q

Minimum Speed (zipper) indicates ______

A

airspeed where stick shaker or low speed buffet occurs

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13
Q

Bank Pointer (LCD) _______ when bank angle is _______

A

fills solid amber

35 degrees or greater

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14
Q

Radio Altitude displays airplane radio altitude below ______

A

2,500 feet AGL

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15
Q

RADIO Minimums _______ when radio altitude is at or below mins

A

change color to amber and flash

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16
Q

Where does the ILS Approach Reference CRS appear on the PFD?

A

CRT - left side, below attitude

LCD - next to ILS freq/identifier, left side, above attitude

17
Q

Glideslope Pointer and Scale:

Scale in view _______

Pointer in view ______ , fills in solid when ______

Scale and pointer _______ to indicate excessive glideslope deviation

A

frequency tuned

receiving glideslope signal

within 2 1/3 dots

turns amber and the pointer flashes

18
Q

Localizer Pointer and Scale:

Scale in view ______

Pointer in view _____ , fills in solid when _____

Scale and pointer _______ to indicate excessive localizer deviation.

At low altitudes, with LNAV engaged and LOC armed, localizer scale and pointer _______ if localizer is not captured

A

frequency tuned

localizer signal received

within 2 1/3 dots

turns amber and the pointer flashes

turns amber and the pointer flashes

19
Q

Expanded Localizer Deviation Scale displays when ________ , providing a more sensitive display.

A rectangle equals _______

A

close to the localizer centerline

1/2 dot deviation

20
Q

Selected altitude box is highlighted in white between ___ and ____ feet prior to reaching the selected altitude

A

900 and 300

21
Q

Altitude box changes to amber when _______

A

deviating from selected altitude between 300-900 feet.

22
Q

Touchdown Zone Indicator - upper edge of crosshatched area indicates _______

A

FMC landing altitude for destination runway or airport.

(departure runway or airport until 400 NM or
one-half the distance to the destination whichever occurs first)

23
Q

Vertical Speed Pointer displays numeric value when greater than ____ feet per minute

A

400

(Display is above the vertical speed display when climbing and below when
descending)

24
Q

What does the Flight Director (FLT DIR) Source Selector actually select?

A

L - left FCC selected
C - center FCC selected
R - right FCC selected

25
Q

Navigation (NAV) Source Selector:

FMC L/R provides information to _______

A

PFD and ND

26
Q

Navigation (NAV) Source Selector:

CDU L/C/R provides information to _______

A

ND ‘during alternate navigation’

27
Q

EIU (EFIS/EICAS Interface Unit) Source Selector L/C/R provides information to _______

A

PFD/ND

L - left EIU provides information to PFD and ND
AUTO - selects operable EIU. Captain’s selects left, then center, then right; F/O’s selects right, then center, then left
C - center EIU provides information to PFD and ND
R - right EIU provides information to PFD and ND

(determines which localizer and glideslope receivers provide information to the respective PFD and ND)

28
Q

IRS Source Selector L/C/R provides _______

A

IRU attitude, heading* and vertical speed information to PFD

*(Source for heading, wind direction and speed, slip/skid, track angle, drift angle, and ground speed displayed on PFD and ND depends on the status of the FMCs, IRUs, and position of the Navigation and IRS source selectors)

(IRU selected by Captain provides autobrake reference)

29
Q

AIR DATA Source Selector L/R provides Air Data Computer information to ________

A

PFD and ND

30
Q

Definition:

DSP
EFIS
EICAS
EIU

A

Display Select Panel

Electronic Flight Instrument System, (consists of the PFD and ND)

Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System

EFIS/EICAS Interface Unit

31
Q

How many EIU, and what is their purpose?

A

3

Receive airplane systems information and supply it to the flight crew on six display units. The units display three primary groups of information:
• primary flight display (PFD)
• navigation display (ND)
• engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS)

32
Q

The pitot static system provides pitot pressure and static pressure to _______ (4)

A

air data computers
standby airspeed indicator
standby altimeter
elevator feel computer

33
Q

What does the Air Data Computer (ADC) System do?

There are ___ ADCs

Each ADC receives inputs from _____ (4)

A

supplies air data information to various airplane systems

2, (left and right, either ADC can provide flight information to the CA’s and FO’s flight instruments)

AOA sensors, TAT probes, pitot static system, and barometric settings

34
Q

Left and right dual total air temperature probes sense _______

Where is the TAT displayed?

What is the difference between TAT and OAT on the ground?

A

outside air temperature (OAT) and heat of compression

upper left primary EICAS

approximately the same

(TAT probe must be aspirated by bleed air
to provide accurate information)

35
Q

Where is Static Air Temperature (SAT) displayed?

A

PROG page 2/3

36
Q

Airspeed box changes to amber if _____

A

current airspeed less than minimum

maneuvering speed

NCR 744 (23 decks)

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